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Exam Description
The pass 4 itsure Cisco 640-864 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four.)
A. Faster ROI
B. Improved business agility
C. Increased network availability
D. Faster access to applications and services
E. Lower total cost of network ownership
F. Better implementation team engagement
Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 2
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much information about the network as possible.Which of these choices describes the preferred order for the information-gathering process?
A. Site and network audits, traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input
B. Existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits, traffic analysis
C. Traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits
D. Site and network audits, existing documentation and organizational input, traffic analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves.
Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Support for legacy applications
B. Bandwidth support for new applications
C. Limited budget allocation
D. Policy limitations
E. Limited support staff to complete assessment
F. Support for existing legacy equipment
G. Limited timeframe to implement
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
A. Obtain site contact information
B. Perform network audit
C. Identify customer requirements
D. Perform gap analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable solution?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. QoS should only be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to enable prioritization and ensure the best performance for all time-critical applications.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What are the three primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A. provide end-user connectivity
B. provide high speed transport
C. provide QoS services
D. enforce security policies
E. provide WAN connections
F. connect access devices to the core backbone
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module?
A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design?(Choose two.)
A. improves flexibility
B. facilitates implementation
C. lowers implementation costs
D. improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Switching
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 13
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise Edge Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. e-commerce module
B. Internet connectivity module
C. server farm module
D. remote access and VPN module
E. PSTN services module
F. enterprise branch module
G. building distribution module
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network management reside?
A. Enterprise data center module
B. Enterprise campus module
C. Enterprise edge module
D. Service Provider edge module
E. Service Provider data center module
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two.)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer.
B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer.
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer.
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 17
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus network design?
A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge
B. the routing protocol choicE.open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. the routing abilities of the host devices
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0 architecture component of virtualization.Which of the following is not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data Center?
A. Virtualized media access utilizing Fibre Channel over Ethernet
B. VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide for virtualized LAN and SAN connectivity, separating physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
C. Virtual Machines that run an application within the client operating system, which is further virtualized and running on common hardware
D. Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network devices are virtualized using device contexts
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not relevant?
A. whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC address is required
B. the number of shared media segments
C. which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D. whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus?(Choose two.)
A. Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the work from the distribution and core layers.
B. Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C. Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast propagation.
D. Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E. Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and access layers.Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A. The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features.
B. The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge.
C. The campus core layer is optional.
D. The core layer requires high performance to manage the traffic policing across the backbone.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the enterprise network core layer, when designing a network based on its switched hierarchical design?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?
A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of any other devices such as firewalls or content switching devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol that will allow you to track overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by traffic type, and utilization by source and destination.
Which is ideally suited for this function?
A. MRTG
B. NetFlow

C. RRD
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which of the following three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified IP Phone
B. Cisco 880 Series Router
C. Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E. Cisco 2900 Series Router
F. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G. Leased lines
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 28
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the designer have their own strengths.Which one of these statements is an example of such a strength?
A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize intercontroller roaming events.
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the same subnet for more efficiency.
Correct Answer: B Exam B

QUESTION 1
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?
A. signal attenuation
B. required bandwidth
C. required distance
D. electromagnetic interference
E. cost
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. access layer aggregation
B. route summarization
C. network trust boundary
D. next-hop redundancy
E. layer 2 switching
F. port security
G. broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true concerning enterprise edge distribution switches?
A. The speed of switching is the most critical feature.
B. Security requirements are offloaded to the other modules for performance reasons.
C. Edge distribution switches are only required when using a collapsed core backbone.
D. Enterprise edge distribution switches are similar to the building distribution layer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. All areas need to connect back to area 0.
B. The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise campus network. In a fully redundant topology, which is likely to provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
A. redundant supervisors
B. redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
C. single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D. single supervisors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
A. virtual port-channel
B. virtual routing and forwarding
C. virtual switching system
D. virtual device context
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodulesare part of this module?
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center

E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure best-practice access layer design for the enterprise campus? (Choose three.)
A. Portfast
B. UDLD
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. Flex Links

F. SPAN
G. EtherChannel
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
A. network application characteristics
B. routing protocol characteristics
C. switching latency characteristics
D. packet filtering characteristics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A. Overlay Transport Virtualization
B. Virtual Private LAN Services
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation
D. QinQ tunneling
Correct Answer: A

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.)
A. the monitoring of processor time on network devices
B. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic
C. the decoding and analyzing of packets
D. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network
E. the monitoring of user network utilization
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What is the benefit of deploying a gatekeeper in an H.323 IP telephony network.?
A. provides spatial redundancy through the use of HSRP
B. provides load balancing via GUP when alternate gatekeepers are deployed
C. reduces configuration complexity by centralizing the dial plan
D. increases redundancy by allowing each gateway to maintain a copy of the dial plan
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
-Has a low initial cost
-Provides low-to-medium BW
–
Has medium-to-high latency and jitter Which technology would you suggest?

A.
ISDN

B.
X.25

C.
analog modem

D.
DSL

E.
wireless
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security solution offers protection against “day zero” attacks?
A. Cisco IOS IPS
B. Cisco IOS Firewall
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
E. Cisco Security Agent
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. intra-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. inter-office
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints? The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
A. RTCP
B. H.245
C. H.225
D. RAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single
dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?

A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize
routing table size. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office from the
Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)

A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. The layer’s IT
resources include servers, storage, and clients. The layer represents how resources exist across the
network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity. Which Cisco SONA
architecture layer is being described?

A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19

Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 20
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No How
many calls can be made?

A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 22
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in Which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 27
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises Which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes: support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, Which
will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint,
Which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?

A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 31
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 32
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers
listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation
of these routers? (Choose two.)

A. software revisions
B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify Which network management protocol will be used for Which function.
E. Order the equipment.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network.
Which two strategies can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
(Choose two)

A. translate one protocol into the other
B. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
C. encapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets
D. bridge between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks
E. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
A network is being designed to meet the requirements listed.
Within the enterprise network:
All routers are Cisco 3800 Series routers running the latest Cisco IOS release.
The fastest convergence time possible is required.
Unequal cost load-balancing is required.
For Internet connections:
A single link is used to connect to a single ISP.Which two routing protocols should be used?(Choose two.)

A. Use Internal BGP as the IGP within the enterprise.
B. Use Static (Default) routing between the enterprise and the ISP.
C. Use OSPF as the IGP within the enterprise.
D. Use EIGRP as the IGP within the enterprise.
E. Use EIGRP between the enterprise and the ISP.
F. Use External BGP between the enterprise and the ISP.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
B. Guest tunnels have limitations on Which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
C. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
F. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
B. QoS should be performed only in the core.
C. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best performance for all time-critical applications.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
For Which technology is IPsec required for a site-to-site enterprise WAN/MAN architecture?
A. self-deployed MPLS
B. ATM
C. Frame Relay
D. SP MPLS VPN
E. ISP Service
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
What does Cisco recommend as the foundation of any deployed security solution?
A. Customer needs
B. Security audit
C. Service-level agreement
D. Corporate security policy
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
What is the administrative distance of eBGP routes?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 20
D. 110
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which name is for the Cisco product that provides centralized, policy-based security management?
A. IDS
B. Out-of-band management
C. AAA
D. CSPM

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which statement represents a likely starting point for planning network changes?
A. Protocol assessment
B. Determining the design requirements
C. Determining the business needs
D. Determining the application requirements

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45
What does IGMP stand for?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Interior Group Management Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Media Protocol

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
ISDN is short for Integrated Services Digital Network. Under what category of WAN technologies does ISDN belong?
A. Cell-switched
B. Circuit-switched
C. Packet-switched
D. Leased lines

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
As a network engineer, can you tell me accounting management on a network-management system allows a network manager to perform Which function?
A. Assess the network’s effectiveness and throughput
B. Charge back to users for network resources
C. Performance management
D. Identify problem areas in the network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Which address type is 225.10.1.1?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What is the length of the key used with Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)?
A. 64 bits
B. 168 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 56 bits
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Correct Answer: B

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