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QUESTION 191
Which MST configuration statement is correct?
A. MST configurations can be propagated to other switches using VTP.
B. After MST is configured on a switch, PVST+ operations will also be enabled by default.
C. MST configurations must be manually configured on each switch within the MST region.
D. MST configurations only need to be manually configured on the Root Bridge.
E. MST configurations are entered using the VLAN Database mode on Cisco Catalyst switches.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?

A. All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment.
B. The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address.
C. The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit and the show ip mroute output on router R2. The network administrator wants to check the multicast traffic coming on R2. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is sourced from two different sources.
B. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is reaching R2.
C. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 gets dropped because of RPF failure.
D. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is forwarded out the Ethernet3/1 and Ethernet3/2 interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port: 00:06:34: %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

e
A. The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B. The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.
C. The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D. Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
Switch 1:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch 2:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveGiven the switch configurations, which of the following statements is correct?

A. PAgP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
B. LACP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
C. One switch must be in LACP Active mode for the EtherChannel to form.
D. Only one switch must be in the On mode and the other in the LACP Passive mode for Etherchannel to form.
E. Each physical port in the EtherChannel must have the command switchport access vlan 10 for the EtherChannel to form.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
What command will specify IEEE 802.1Q as the encapsulation method for a trunked port on a Cisco IOS switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot1q
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel?
A. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode.
B. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type.
C. The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on.
D. The ports will not form an EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
The network administrator maps VLANs 10 through 20 to MST instance 2. How will this information be propagated to all appropriate switches?
A. Information will be carried in the RSTP BPDUs.
B. It will be propagated in VTP updates.
C. Information is stored in the Forwarding Information Base and the switch will reply upon query.
D. Multiple Spanning Tree must be manually configured on the appropriate switches.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
IEEE 802.1w RSTP defines which port states?
A. Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking, Disabled
B. Learning, Forwarding, Discarding
C. Learning, Active, Block
D. Listening, Forwarding, Active, Blocking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest time to receive BPDUs
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 221
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
E. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
An administrator recently entered the following commands on a switch:Switch(config)# vtp mode transparentSwitch(config)# vtp version 2What is the result of this configuration?
A. VLAN configuration information is saved in RAM only.
B. VLANs cannot be created, modified or deleted via command line interface.
C. VLAN configuration information received via VTP advertisements are forwarded to other switches within the management domain.
D. VLAN configuration information is synchronized with information within VTP advertisements received from other switches in the management domain.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 228
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 230
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 231
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 232
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the default multicast configuration is being used. Which host or hosts will receive multicast traffic sent from host A?

A. host B
B. host C
C. hosts B, C, and D
D. none

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 233
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 234
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show spanning-tree command, which statement is true?

A. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary global configuration e command.
B. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.
C. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 24577 global configuration command.
D. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 2 global configuration command.
E. The root bridge has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 235
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 236
When STP operation is functioning normally, which statement is true about BPDUs?
A. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every two seconds
B. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every 15 seconds.
C. A bridge sends a TCN BPDU to the root bridge once upon initial configuration, followed by configuration BPDUs every two seconds.
D. A bridge sends only TCN BPDUs to the root bridge and no configuration BPDUs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 237
On a Cisco multilayer switch, which command will configure a port to act as a routed interface?”
A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport trunk native vlan 1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 238
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. an identical VTP mode
B. an identical speed/duplex
C. an identical trunk negotiation parameter
D. an identical trunk encapsulation parameter

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 239
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 240
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241
Which action could have caused the following output to appear on a switch? %SPANTREE-2-ROOTGUARDBLOCK: Port 1/1 tried to become non-designated in VLAN 77. Moved to root-inconsistent state
A. The switch is configured with Loop Guard and stops receiving BPDUs.
B. The switch is configured with PortFast and starts receiving BPDUs.
C. The switch is configured with Root Guard and starts receiving superior BPDUs.
D. The switch is configured with BackboneFast and starts receiving inferior BPDUs.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 244
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?

A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 246
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the Reverse Path Forwarding check procedure is true?

A. If a multicast packet arrives from 66.66.66.2 on Serial 0/1, then the packet is forwarded.
B. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
C. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
D. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
E. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
F. If a multicast packet arrives from 192.168.30.0 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded out all other interfaces.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 247
Refer to the exhibit. How can the hello timers on SW_B be adjusted from the default?

e A. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_A
B. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_B
C. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_A
D. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 248
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 250
Refer to the exhibit. What command was issued on the Layer 3 switch Sw1 between Exhibit #1 and Exhibit #2?

A. ip routing
B. no ip routing
C. router eigrp 1
D. no router eigrp 1
E. mls qos
F. no mls qos

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 251
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured router R1 to provide interVLAN routing between the various subnets on the network. Based on the output provided by the show ip route command, what statement is true?

e
A. Users on all VLANs can communicate with each other and access the Internet.
B. Because of the missing routing protocol, none of the VLANs can route traffic.
C. Users can access all the resources on the network but cannot browse the Internet.
D. Users will have full access to the Internet but will not be able to communicate with each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 252
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured in an HSRP group to provide redundancy for the users on Network A. The T1 link between R1 and Network B has failed. How will HSRP respond to the failure?

A. R1 will change its priority but will remain active using the Frame Relay backup link to forward the traffic to Network B.
B. R2 will assume the role of active router and will use its T1 link to forward the traffic to Network B.
C. Both routers R1 and R2 will be active, and the traffic will be load balanced between the T1 links.
D. Both routers R1 and R2 will be inactive, and the users on Network A will lose the connectivity to Network
E.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 253
Refer to the exhibit. All of the switches used in the network started with a cleared (default) configuration. After the switches were powered on, the commands in the exhibit were entered on switch CAT1. What was the response of switch CAT1?

A. The command was accepted, and a dot1q trunk was established.
B. The command was rejected, and a dot1q trunk was established by default.
C. The command was accepted, and an access link was autonegotiated.
D. The command was rejected, and a port channel was autoconfigured with a native VLAN of 1.
E. The command was accepted only because the command no shutdown was issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT2.
F. The command was rejected because the trunking encapsulation on the activated interface defaulted to auto mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 254
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)

A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 255
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?

A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 256
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 257
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information available, which statement is true?

e
A. Instance 0 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
B. Instance 1 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-1024.
C. Instance 2 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
D. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 101.
E. Switch P1S1 is the primary root for VLAN 110.
F. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 30.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 258
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 259
Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
D. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch
1. Where will the broadcast propagate?

A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 261
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 262
Refer to the exhibit and the show vtp status output. Switch SW_B was previously used in a lab but is now connected to the production network in VTP transparent mode. What will happen when the trunk link between SW_A and SW_B is brought up?

A. SW_A will update its VLAN database with the information from SW_B because SW_A is configured as a VTP server.
B. Because SW_B is configured as a VTP server, SW_A will not change its VLAN database information.
C. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because of a higher revision number on SW_B.
D. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because SW_B is configured in VTP transparent mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 263
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 264
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 265
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 266
Refer to the exhibit. Supervisor redundancy has been configured on a Catalyst 4500 switch. The administrator issued the show redundancy states command. Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)

A. Route processor redundancy (RPR) is not currently functional.
B. Route processor redundancy (RPR)is currently up and functional.
C. This route processor is offline.
D. The Mode = Simplex portion of the output indicates that the system is currently not in redundant mode.
E. The redundant supervisor is in standby mode.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 142
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
A medium-sized network with a redundant topology that uses core and access switches is experiencing intermittent end-station accessibility. The root bridge is on one of the core switches. It is determined that the problem occurs during STP convergence and that accessibility issues depend on the STP state of the individual switch port. What is the best way to decrease STP convergence time in this situation?
A. Enable PortFast on the core switches to accelerate the choice of a new root port.
B. Enable UplinkFast on the VLAN that is having the most accessibility problems.
C. Enable UplinkFast on the wiring closet switches at the edge of the network.
D. Enable PortFast on all IOS based switches that have been configured for bridge priority.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Switch S1 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
C. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port.
E. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F.     DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to prevent VLAN attacks. Ports 0/20 – 24 are not currently used on switch Cat2. VLAN 50 is an unused VLAN. How does the configuration in the exhibit improve security on the switch Cat2?

A. The native VLAN is different from any data VLAN.
B. Trunking is negotiated rather than on.
C. DTP is turned off.
D. The ports have been configured as a primary PVLAN.
E. The ports have been configured as a secondary PVLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 169.254.23.59
B. 223.254.255.254
C. 225.1.1.1
D. 227.43.34.2
E. 238.3.3.3
F. 249.1.2.3

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Switch C is configured with UplinkFast. How much time will expire after a failure in L2 before switch C activates the port connected to L3?

A. 1-5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. It must be used with the PortFast feature enabled.
B. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F.     The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F.     process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F.     protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F.     An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?

A. On External_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
C. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
D. On External_B remove the command standby 1 preempt

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two statements characterize VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same broadcast domain.
B. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same collision domain.
C. VLAN membership is based upon port membership or assigned dynamically based on MAC.
D. It is a physical network segment.
E. They must be created in the vlan database mode on all IOS and Cat OS based Catalyst Switches.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which statement about VTP is false?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) operation? (Choose two.)
A. CEF supports per packet load balancing.
B. The CEF switching process can perform packet fragmentation.
C. CEF processed packets forwarded to a tunnel interface create separate lookup table entries.
D. access control lists should be avoided when utilizing CEF because they cause the forwarding decision to bypass CEF and use process switching.
E. CEF can be used to forward packets when an ACL is involved since CEF tables include access control list information.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Which statement correctly describes the extended system ID?
A. It is the 2-bit number of the MSTP instance.
B. It is the VLAN identifier value and allows for 4096 BIDs to be uniquely identified.
C. It is a bridge MAC address which is allocated from a pool of MAC addresses that are factory assigned.
D. It is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Frames from Workstation 1 are given the proper priority through Switch A, but Switch B handles Workstation 1 frames as if they have no precedence. Which of the following actions will allow traffic from Workstation 1 to be given the proper priority?

A. configure qos all command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
B. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
C. configure mls qos trust cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
D. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
E. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
F. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch A fa0/1 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F.     Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F.     ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

e
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2,
and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement
can be derived from the exhibit?

A. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
B. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which two statements are true about CEF switching? (Choose two.)
A. The CEF data plane is responsible for the fragmentation of outgoing packets.
B. The CEF control plane builds the FIB table. The data plane builds the adjacency table and forwards traffic.
C. The CEF control plane builds the FIB and adjacency tables. The data plane forwards IP unicast traffic.
D. IP packets with the IP header options set are process switched.
E. Packets with the TCP header options set are process switched.
F. The adjacency table is derived from next hop IP addresses in the routing table.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
A switch sends BPDUs with which destination address upon initial bootup?
A. a well-known STP multicast address
B. the IP address of its default gateway
C. the MAC addresses stored in the CAM table
D. the MAC address of neighbors discovered via CDP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is initially the root bridge. Switch D with bridge priority of 0 is added to the network. Which port should the Root Guard feature be configured on to prevent Switch D from becoming the root?

A. Switch A fa0/2
B. Switch C fa0/1
C. Switch C fa0/3
D. Switch D fa0/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 121
Which specification can associate VLAN groups to Spanning Tree instances to provide multiple forwarding paths for data traffic and enable load balancing?
A. IEEE 802.1w (RSTP)
B. IEEE 802.1s (MST)
C. IEEE 802.1d (STP)
D. IEEE 802.1Q (CST)

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 122
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 124
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 125
Which protocol allows for the automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways as well as automatic failover between those gateways?
A. IRDP
B. HSRP
C. GLBP
D. VRRP

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 126
Given the above partial configuration, which two statements are true about VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

A. VLANs 1-5 will be blocked if fa0/10 goes down.
B. VLANs 1-5 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
C. VLANs 6-10 will use fa0/10 as a backup only.
D. VLANs 6-10 have a port priority of 128 on fa0/10.
E. VLANs 1-10 are configured to load share between fa0/10 and fa0/12.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 127
In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 128
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 129
Refer to the exhibit. STP has been implemented in the network. Switch SW_A is the root switch for the default VLAN. To reduce the broadcast domain, the network administrator decides to split users on the network into VLAN 2 and VLAN 10. The administrator issues the command spanning-tree vlan 2 root primary on switch SW_A. What will happen as a result of this change?

A. All ports of the root switch SW_A will remain in forwarding mode throughout the reconvergence of the spanning tree domain.
B. Switch SW_A will change its spanning tree priority to become root for VLAN 2 only.
C. Switch SW_A will remain root for the default VLAN and will become root for VLAN 2.
D. No other switch in the network will be able to become root as long as switch SW_A is up and running.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
What is advertised by a Catalyst switch in a VTP domain?
A. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links on the switch
B. the VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CFI Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number
C. the management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters
D. a 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 131
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 132
Which describes the default load balancing scheme used by the Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)?
A. per host basis using a round-robin scheme
B. per host basis using a strict priority scheme
C. per session using a round-robin scheme
D. per session using a strict priority scheme
E. per GLBP group using a round-robin scheme
F. per GLBP group using a strict priority scheme

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 133
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?
A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.
B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. TACACS+ is the only supported authentication server type.
E. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes it is not authorized.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 135
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 136
Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
Which three QoS mechanisms can be configured to improve VoIP quality on a converged network? (Choose three.)
A. the use of a queuing method that will give VoIP traffic strict priority over other traffic
B. the use of RTP header compression for the VoIP traffic
C. the proper classification and marking of the traffic as close to the source as possible
D. the use of 802.1QinQ trunking for VoIP traffic
E. the use of WRED for the VoIP traffic

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
Which four protocols have been developed for IP routing redundancy to protect against first-hop router failure? (Choose four.)
A. HSRP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. VRRP
E. MSTP
F. GLBP

Correct Answer: ABDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 139
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 140
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The port on switch CAT1 is forwarding and sending BPDUs correctly.
B. The port on switch CAT1 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
C. The port on switch CAT2 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
D. The port on switch CAT2 is blocking and sending BPDUs correctly.
E. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding and receiving BPDUs correctly.
F. The port on switch CAT3 is forwarding, sending, and receiving BPDUs correctly.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 66
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F. ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to
56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.
F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 70
What are three possible router states of HSRP routers on a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. established
C. active
D. idle
E. backup
F. init

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 72
Based on the show spanning-tree vlan 200 output shown in the exhibit, which two statements about the STP process for VLAN 200 are true? (Choose two.)

A. BPDUs will be sent out every two seconds.
B. The time spent in the listening state will be 30 seconds.
C. The time spent in the learning state will be 15 seconds.
D. The maximum length of time that the BPDU information will be saved is 30 seconds.
E. This switch is the root bridge for VLAN 200.
F. BPDUs will be sent out every 10 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration provided in the exhibit, what additional configuration is required to allow the router to properly participate in a PIM sparse-dense mode scenario?

A. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in dense mode network areas.
B. The RP configuration needs to be added for the router to participate in sparse mode network areas.
C. The PIM dense-mode state, refresh interval needs to be configured.
D. IGMP needs to be enabled on the router.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 76
What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?
A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit. Switch 15 is configured as the root switch for VLAN 10 but not for VLAN 20. If the STP configuration is correct, what will be true about Switch 15?

A. All ports will be in forwarding mode.
B. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode.
C. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in blocking mode.
D. All ports in VLAN 10 will be in forwarding mode and all ports in VLAN 20 will be in standby mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
About how long does it take for the port to change from blocking to forwarding when spanning-tree PortFast is enabled?
A. immediately
B. 15 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands would both produce the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. show standby
B. show standby group 10
C. show glbp 10
D. show glbp disabled
E. show glbp active
F. show glbp standby

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Which two statements are true concerning an Ethernet MAC address that maps to a Layer 3 multicast address? (Choose two.)
A. The first 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
B. The last 3 bytes of the Ethernet multicast MAC address are 01:00:5E.
C. When assigning a Layer 3 multicast address, an Ethernet Layer 2 address is automatically generated from the hardcoded MAC address.
D. The multicast address copies the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 23 bits of the Ethernet multicast MAC address.
E. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the last 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.
F. The Ethernet multicast address assigns the first 24 bits of the MAC address to all Fs.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
What does the following command accomplish? Switch(config-mst)#instance 10 vlan 11-12
A. enables a PVST+ instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
B. enables vlan 11 and vlan 12 to be part of the MST region 10
C. maps vlan 11 and vlan 12 to the MST instance of 10
D. creates an Internal Spanning Tree (IST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
E. creates a Common Spanning Tree (CST) instance of 10 for vlan 11 and vlan 12
F. starts two instances of MST, one instance for vlan 11 and another instance for vlan 12

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 84
Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
LAB
Refer to question 13.

Router name and IP address may be different.
e
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 89
What is the cause of jitter?
A. variable queue delays
B. packet drops
C. transmitting too many small packets
D. compression

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. The command switchport mode access is issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT1. What will be the result?

e A. The command will be rejected by the switch.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will no longer be bundled.
C. Dynamic Trunking Protocol will be turned off on interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14.
D. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will only allow traffic from the native VLAN.
E. Interfaces FastEthernet0/13 and FastEthernet0/14 will continue to pass traffic for VLANs 88,100,360.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Refer to the exhibit. The show port-security interface fa0/1 command was issued on switch SW1. Given the output that was generated, which two security statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security aging command.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security protect command.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 was configured with the switchport port-security violation restrict command.
D. When the number of secure IP addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down.
E. When the number of secure MAC addresses reaches 10, the interface will immediately shut down and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
Observe the above diagram. Spanning tree is enabled on all devices. Currently either Switch B or C can serve as the root should Switch A fail. A client recently connected Device D, a PC running switching application software, to Switch C port P3/3. The administrator would like to configure Root Guard to ensure that Device D does not assume the role of root. All other parameters must stay the same. On which interface(s) must Root Guard be enabled?

A. P1/2
B. P2/2
C. P3/3
D. P1/1 and P1/2
E. P1/2 and P2/2
F. P1/2, P2/2 and P3/3

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 94
Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial output, which statement is true?

A. The console port will require authentication through TACACS+.
B. The console port will not require any authentication.
C. Users logging in through the network ports will have authentication verified through TACACS+.
D. PPP authentication will be authenticated through the TACACS+ server first.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 95
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 96
Which statement is true if the spanning tree enhancement Root Guard is enabled?
A. If BPDUs are not received on a nondesignated port, the port is moved into the STP loop-inconsistent blocked state.
B. If BPDUs are received on a PortFast enabled port, the port is disabled.
C. If superior BPDUs are received on a designated port, the interface is placed into the root-inconsistent blocked state.
D. If inferior BPDUs are received on a root port, all blocked ports become alternate paths to the root bridge.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 97
The network operations center has received a call stating that users in VLAN 107 are unable to access resources through Router 1. From the information contained in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. VLAN 107 does not exist on switch A.
B. VTP is pruning VLAN 107
C. VLAN 107 is not configured on the trunk
D. spanning tree is not enabled on VLAN 107

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 98
Refer to the exhibit. The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interfaces of Switch1 and Switch2 have been properly configured to support trunking. On the basis of the VTP configuration commands that have been issued on Switch1, which command set is required to properly configure VTP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1
B. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode serverSwitch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2 (config)# vtp password switch1
C. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch2
D. Switch2# conf t Switch2(config)# vtp mode clientSwitch2(config)# version 2Switch2(config)# vtp domain eng_groupSwitch2(config)# vtp password switch1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 99
Which type of IGMP message is sent when a network client wants to join a multicast group?
A. host membership query
B. host membership report
C. host membership status
D. host membership notification

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 100
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 101
Which three conditions need to be present for UplinkFast to trigger a fast reconfiguration? (Choose three.)
A. The switch must have at least one unblocked port.
B. The switch must have UplinkFast enabled.
C. The switch must be configured for one VLAN.
D. The switch must have at least one blocked port.
E. The failure must be on the root port.
F. The switch must be enabled on a VLAN with switch priority configured.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration provided, how will the user be authenticated?

A. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the local database policy.
B. Authentication for all ports will be enforced according to the CON list.
C. The CON list will be used only if the default local authentication failed.
D. No authentication will be required for the console port.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 103
Which router redundancy protocol cannot be configured for interface tracking?
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. VRRP
D. SLB
E. RPR
F. RPR+

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 105
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 106
What are three functional areas of the Enterprise Composite Network Model? (Choose three.)
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. Service Provider Edge
D. Building Access
E. Server Farm
F. Campus Backbone
Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 107
Refer to the exhibit. Why is the line protocol down on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1?

A. Switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must use ISL encapsulation for these configurations to work.
B. The interfaces on switch CAT1 and switch CAT2 must be in access mode for these configurations to work.
C. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2 are in different native VLANs.
D. Interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1 and interface Port-channel1 on switch CAT1 are in different native VLANs.
E. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT1.
F. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is turned off on interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch CAT2.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. All switches must be part of a common MST region. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. The configuration must be implemented on the MST root switch only.
B. The configuration is optional on the MST root switch.
C. The configuration is mandatory on all MST switches in the MST region.
D. The configuration is optional on all MST switches in the MST region.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 109
What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk native vlan 7 accomplish?
A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 110
Which statement is true about the STP Path Cost on a particular port?
A. It is known only to the local switch where the port resides.
B. It can be modified to help determine Root Bridge selection.
C. Modifying it can cause TCN BPDU to be sent to the Root Bridge.
D. When increased, it can provide higher bandwidth to a connecting port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 111
Which process plays a major role in the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. hello packet exchange

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 112
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 113
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 114
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 are configured on the trunked links between Switch A and Switch
B. Port Fa 0/2 on Switch B is currently in a blocking state for both VLANs. What should be done to load balance VLAN traffic between Switch A and Switch B?

A. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/1 for Switch A.
B. Lower the port priority for VLAN 1 on port 0/2 for Switch A.
C. Make the bridge ID of Switch B lower than the ID of Switch A.
D. Enable HSRP on the access ports.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 115
What two pieces of information will the show vlan id 5 command display? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN information on port 0/5
B. ports in VLAN 5
C. MTU and type
D. utilization
E. filters

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 116
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 117
Based on the network diagram and routing table output in the exhibit, which of these statements is true?

A. InterVLAN routing has been configured properly, and the workstations have connectivity to each other.
B. InterVLAN routing will not occur since no routing protocol has been configured.
C. Although interVLAN routing is not enabled, both workstations will have connectivity to each other.
D. Although interVLAN routing is enabled, the workstations will not have connectivity to each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 118
A new workstation has consistently been unable to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server when the workstation boots. Older workstations function normally, and the new workstation obtains an address when manually forced to renew its address. What should be configured on the switch to allow the workstation to obtain an IP address at boot?
A. UplinkFast on the switch port connected to the server
B. BackboneFast on the switch port connected to the server
C. PortFast on the switch port connected to the workstation
D. trunking on the switch

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 119
In a static VLAN environment, how does a host join a VLAN?
A. It must be assigned to a VLAN dynamically by the VLAN Server.
B. It automatically assumes the VLAN of the port.
C. It will be assigned to a VLAN based on the username.
D. It will automatically be assigned a VLAN based on its MAC address.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 120
A brand new stand alone Catalyst 3550 switch is being installed. Multiple VLANs will be configured on the switch. What needs to be configured before adding any VLAN to the VLAN database if VTP is in server mode?
A. VTP pruning
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP version number
D. ISL or IEEE 802.1Q trunking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?

A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the information provided in the exhibit, which two sets of procedures are best practices for
Layer 2 and 3 failover alignment? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
B. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for all VLANs. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and backup STP root for all VLANs.
C. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
D. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and
120.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and

110.

E. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 11 and 110. Configure the D-SW2 switch as the standby HSRP router and the STP root for VLANs 12 and 120.
F. Configure the D-SW1 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 11 and
110.
Configure the D-SW2 switch as the active HSRP router and the backup STP root for VLANs 12 and

120.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
E. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A network is configured with VLANs 1 through 5. 802.1 Q trunking is enabled between all switches. Currently, access ports for VLAN 3 exist only on Switch3 and Switch6. What must the administrator do to ensure that the other switches do not receive unnecessary broadcast packets for VLAN 3 while still allowing all other VLAN packets to cross?

A. Configure VTP pruning.
B. Configure Switch3 and Switch6 as transparent switches.
C. Configure Switch1, Switch2, Switch4 and Switch5 as transparent switches.
D. Nothing is required. Only Switch3 and Switch6 will receive VLAN3 packets by default.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6
Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)

A. A trunk link will be formed.
B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.
Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest.
B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over.
C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105.
D. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.6.
E. The local IP address of Router A is 10.1.0.20.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which spanning-tree feature will disable ports configured for PortFast in the event of a BPDU being received on those ports?
A. BPDUGuard
B. BPDU filtering
C. UDLD
D. Root Guard
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.)
A. mls qos trust override cos
B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id
Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest time to receive BPDUs
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
LAB The information of the question VTP Domain name : cisco VLAN Ids 20 31 IP Addresses 172.16.71.1/24 172.16.132.1/24 These are your specific tasks:
1.
Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server

2.
Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client

3.
Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch

4.
Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch

5.
Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the future.

6.
All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
Correct Answers: vtp server configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode server switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch(config)#vlan 20 switch(config)#vlan 31 switch(config)#int vlan 20 switch(if-config)#ip add 172.64.20.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#int vlan 31 switch(if-config)#ip add 192.162.31.1 255.255.255.0 switch(if-config)#no shut switch(if-config)#exit switch#ip routing switch#copy run start vtp client configuration: switch#conf t switch(config)#vtp mode client switch(config)#vtp domain CISCO switch#copy run start

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 14
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL
Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the above graphic. Switch A, the root bridge, is connected directly to Switch B over link L1 and to Switch C over link L2. The Layer 2 LAN interface on Switch C that is connected directly to Switch B is in the blocking state. If Switch C detects a link failure on the currently active link L2 on the root port, which spanning tree enhancement will allow Switch C to unblock the blocked port and transition it to forwarding without going through the listening and learning states?

A. PortFast
B. UplinkFast
C. BackboneFast
D. rapid spanning tree
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17
What are three disadvantages of a router-on-a-stick configuration for InterVLAN routing? (Choose three.)
A. InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B. The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C. Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D. There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E. Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F. NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands contains the minimum number of commands necessary on the Cat_3550 switch for the host in VLAN 2 to be able to ping the host in VLAN 3? e
A. ip routing
B. ip routingrouter eigrp 1network 10.0.0.0
C. router eigrp 1network 10.0.0.0
D. ip routingrouter eigrp 1redistribute connectednetwork 10.0.0.0network 200.1.1.0no auto-summary
E. ip routingrouter eigrp 1redistribute connectednetwork 10.0.0.0no auto-summary
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement is correct about 802.1Q trunking?
A. Both switches must be in the same VTP domain.
B. The encapsulation type on both ends of the trunk does not have to match.
C. The native VLAN on both ends of the trunk must be VLAN 1.
D. 802.1Q trunking can only be configured on a Layer 2 port.
E. In 802.1Q trunking, all VLAN packets are tagged on the trunk link, except the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F. Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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