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QUESTION 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)
A. Time and Date
B. Management IP address
C. Default Zoneset distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 36
Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. Zone

D. FLOGI
E. LUN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?
A. MDS-A# show vsan 10
B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database
C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports
D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership
E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 4
E. RAID 5
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. better server utilization
B. increased network visibility
C. decreased complexity
D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems
E. physical resource sharing
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 40
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG
QUESTION 43
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vem
B. N1000v-VSM# vem status
C. N1000v-VSM# show module
D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status
E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 14
B. None
C. Ports 16
D. Ports 18
E. Ports 1720

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 49
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI

F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 50
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 51
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 54
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 55
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?
A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.
B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.
C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.
D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?
A. access
B. services
C. aggregation
D. transport
E. network
F. core

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and intrusion prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 62
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC overlay link
B. vPC peer link
C. vPC keepalive link
D. vPC control link
E. vPC management link
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?
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Cisco 640-916 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-916 Dump Test Online Store

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QUESTION 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F QUESTION 6

Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre
Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?
A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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