Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-044 Self Study,Buy Best Adobe 9A0-044 Real Exam Questions And Answers With New Discount

No Comments

The 100% valid latest Adobe 9A0-044 question answers ensure you 100% pass! And now we are offering the free Adobe 9A0-044 new version along with the VCE format Adobe 9A0-044 practice test. Free download more new Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-044.html PDF and VCE on Flydumps.com.

QUESTION 31
Which type of channel stores selections for editing specific parts of an image?
A. color channels
B. alpha channels
C. masking channel
D. spot color channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit button.
You are using a levels adjustment layer to adjust the tonal range of an image. Which statement is true?
A. The adjustment layer affects all layers above it.
B. The adjustment layer permanently modifies all pixels affected by it.
C. All input levels to the left of the black point slider are adjusted to solid white.
D. All input levels to the right of the white point slider are adjusted to solid white.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Click the Exhibit button.
Which gradient style was used to make the gradient shown in the exhibit?

A. angle
B. radial
C. diamond
D. reflected

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which tool allows you to paint over a targeted color with a corrective color?
A. Brush
B. Clone Stamp
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
You are painting in your image with the Brush tool. You have enabled the airbrush capabilities. Which setting determines how quickly paint is applied?
A. Flow
B. Opacity
C. Scattering
D. Color Dynamics

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
Click the Exhibit button.
What happens if the curve adjustment shown in the exhibit is applied to an image?
A. The highlights are lightened, the shadows are darkened, and the contrast is increased.
B. The highlights are darkened, the shadows are lightened, and the contrast is increased.
C. The highlights are lightened, the shadows are darkened, and the contrast is decreased.
D. The highlights are darkened, the shadows are lightened, and the contrast is decreased.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
You are using a Brush tool. Which blending mode always results in a darker color?
A. Behind
B. Normal
C. Screen
D. Multiply

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
The Aligned checkbox for the Pattern Stamp tool in the Options Bar ensures that _____.
A. all areas painted with the tool are continuations of the same underlying pattern
B. you are sampling from the same pixels in the pattern with which you are painting
C. you are sampling from the same relative point in the pattern with which you are painting
D. the upper left corner of the pattern with which you are painting is aligned with the beginning of each brush stroke

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 39
Click the Exhibit button.
You have an image open in Photoshop and you move the Exposure slider to the left from the position shown in the exhibit. What happens to the image?

A. The image gets lighter.
B. The image gets darker.
C. The image gets blurrier.
D. The image gets sharper.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
You are creating an image for use solely on a computer monitor. Which pixel aspect ratio setting you should use?
A. Square
B. DV NTSC
C. Anamorphic
D. DV NTSC Widescreen

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
You create an image with square pixels that you want to preview on a standard NTSC 4:3 monitor. When you activate the Video Preview feature, Photoshop warns you that the document pixel settings do not match the device settings. What should you do to get an accurate preview?
A. select Do Not Scale
B. select Scale to Fit in Frame
C. select Apply Pixel Ratio to Preview
D. deselect Apply Pixel Ratio to Preview
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporated into video
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Click the Exhibit button.
You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?

A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
Which statement about Camera Raw images is true?
A. There is less degradation upsampling a Camera Raw image than other file formats.
B. You can correct for pincushion and barrel distortions while applying Camera Raw settings.
C. Each time the White Balance of the image is changed, there is degradation to the original image.
D. You can change Camera Raw settings to a Raw image numerous times without degradation to the original image.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You are processing a Camera Raw image using the Adobe Camera Raw dialog box. You want the settings you have created to be updated and applied to the image without opening it. What should you do?
A. configure the settings, then click Done
B. configure the settings, then click Open
C. configure the settings, then click Alt-click (Windows) or Option-Click (Mac OS) Done
D. configure the settings, then click Alt-click (Windows) or Option-Click (Mac OS) Open

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
What is the Adobe Digital Negative (DNG) Format?
A. a file format specially tailored for creating photographic negatives
B. a file format specially tailored for scanned photographic negatives
C. a proprietary format for the raw files generated by certain digital cameras
D. a publicly documented archival format for the raw files generated by digital cameras

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47
What should you do to ensure that an image’s History log is part of the image’s metadata?
A. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as metadata, and use File Info to view the log
B. in the History palette’s History Options, select Create New Snapshot When Saving, and use File Info to view the log
C. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as a text file, and use File Info to append the log to the metadata
D. in Photoshop’s General preferences, select History Log saved as a text file, and use Adobe Bridge to append the log to the metadata

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which color mode should you use when the color image is to be printed, but the printing requirements are uncertain?
A. RGB
B. Bitmap
C. Indexed
D. Multichannel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What is the purpose of HDR images?
A. to simplify blending computations
B. to increase the luminance data in an image
C. to increase the bit depth of images from 8-bit to 16-bit
D. to combine multiple exposures of a scene into a panoramic image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
Which is an advantage of working with 16-bit images rather than 8-bit images?
A. 16-bit images have a smaller file size.
B. 16-bit images provide finer distinctions in color.
C. Some filters can only be used on 16-bit images.
D. 16-bit images can be saved in a wider variety of file formats.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
You are using Adobe Bridge to view metadata. You want to limit the information in each category to the information you use. What should you do?
A. choose View > Compact Mode
B. from the Metadata panel, click the triangle to the left of the items you want to hide
C. from the Preferences dialog box, click on Metadata, then uncheck items you want to hide
D. from the Metadata panel, select the items you want to view, then choose Window > Workspace > Save Workspace

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52
You have a folder of images. You want to rename each image with new text, a sequence number, and the current extension, and copy the renamed file to another folder. What should you do?
A. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Batch Rename
B. from Photoshop, choose File > Scripts > Image Processor
C. from Adobe Bridge, choose Tools > Version Cue > Make Alternates
D. from Photoshop, choose File > Automate > Batch, then choose Rename from the Actions pop-up menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
What should you do to apply a keyword to a selected image being viewed in Adobe Bridge?
A. double-click the keyword in the Keywords panel
B. select the check box next to the keyword in the Keywords panel
C. drag the keyword from the Keywords panel to the image being viewed
D. right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) the image and choose the keyword from the resulting menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Which items are saved as part of a workspace?
A. tool settings and palette positions
B. tool settings and keyboard shortcuts
C. palette positions and keyboard shortcuts
D. the positions of all open palettes and the toolbox

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 55
The palettes you use most often when working with images for print differ from the palettes you use for images for the Web. You want to quickly switch from one set of palettes to another. What should you do for each arrangement of palettes?
A. create an action
B. create a tool preset
C. create a workspace
D. create a keyboard shortcut

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
You want to create several colors to use in a number of projects. You want to save the new colors independent of the defaults so that you can load them at any time. What should you do?
A. add the new colors to the Color palette, then choose Save Colors from the Colors palette menu
B. add the new colors to the Swatches palette, then choose Save Swatches from the Swatches palette menu
C. add the new colors to the Color palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new colors and click Save Set
D. add the new colors to the Swatches palette, then from the Presets Manager, Shift-click on the new swatches and click Save Set

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 57
Click the Exhibit button.
You want to highlight frequently-used menu items by assigning a color to them.
What should you do?
A. click and drag a swatch from the Swatches palette onto the menu item
B. choose Edit > Preferences > Guides, Grids and Slices, then select a color for Guides
C. choose Edit > Menus, select the menu item from the list, then select a color from the Color column
D. choose Edit > Preset Manager, choose Menus from the pop-up list, select the menu item, then choose a color from the Palette menu

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which filter allows you to apply different sharpening settings to shadows, highlights, and midtones?
A. Sharpen
B. Sharpen More
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Smart Sharpen

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
You take a picture with a digital camera using a long exposure time. You did NOT use a tripod. Which Smart Sharpen filter setting should you choose to help eliminate blurriness in the image?
A. Remove Lens Blur
B. Remove Radial Blur
C. Remove Motion Blur
D. Remove Gaussian Blur
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
Which filter command should you use to remove JPEG artifacts from an image?
A. Blur > Smart Blur
B. Noise > Add Noise
C. Blur > Surface Blur
D. Noise > Reduce Noise

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
Which statement about the Filter Gallery is true?
A. Filter effects can be temporarily hidden in the list of applied filters.
B. Filters that are hidden are still applied when click OK to apply filters.
C. All filters listed under the Filter menu are available in the Filter Gallery.
D. You get the same effect regardless of the order the filters appear in the list of applied filters.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You want to apply a number of filters to your image to achieve a special effect. You want to apply some filters more than once, and you may need to rearrange the order in which the filters are applied or change the settings of the filters. What should you do?
A. choose Filter > Stylize
B. choose Filter > Artistic
C. choose Filter > Filter Gallery
D. choose Filter > Pattern Maker

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You are printing an image to your desktop inkjet printer. You want to use a custom ICC profile for the paper to which you are printing. In the Print with Preview dialog box, you have specified the custom ICC profile as the Printer Profile. Which color handling method should you use?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You enable color management in your printer driver dialog box. You want to print an RGB image. Which color handling method should you choose in the Print with Preview dialog box?
A. Separations
B. No Color Management
C. Let Printer Determine Colors
D. Let Photoshop Determine Colors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
You want to print a file without displaying a dialog box. Which command should you use?
A. File > Print
B. File > Print Online
C. File > Print One Copy
D. File > Print with Preview

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
You measure a laser printer’s resolution in _____ per inch and you measure an image’s resolution in _____ per inch.
A. dots; dots
B. dots; pixels
C. pixels; dots
D. pixels; pixels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 67
Which is an advantage of using vector drawing tools rather than raster drawing tools?
A. Vector shapes can be resized directly with a selection tool.
B. You can create multiple vector shapes on the same layer in ImageReady.
C. Vector shapes maintain crisp edges in a PDF file or when printed to a PostScript printer.
D. You can create vector shapes, but not rasterized shapes, in both Photoshop and ImageReady.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 68
You want to create several vector shapes on the same layer. You want the shapes to mask one another where they overlap. Which Vector tool option should you select?
A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
Click the Exhibit button.
Which text property was used for the letter d?
A. Kerning
B. Leading
C. Tracking
D. Baseline Shift

Correct Answer: D

The Adobe 9A0-044 certification can make you a competent person.It may enable a technician to know about the Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-044.html configurations,get information about the Adobe 9A0-044 data center products and hardware and knowledge about Adobe 9A0-044 united computing systems.

Continue Reading

ACE Illustrator, Adobe

Adobe 9A0-043 Exam Materials,Buy Discount Adobe 9A0-043 Flydumps Latest Version PDF&VCE

No Comments

ATTENTION: Get your Adobe 9A0-043 certification easily with,Flydumps latest Adobe 9A0-043 exam dumps. All the up-to-date questions and answers were added to the new version.Go to the site Flydumps.com to get more Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-043.html exam
information.

QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. You are using the Transform palette to scale a selected object. You notice the warning icon shown in the exhibit, at the bottom of the palette. What does this icon indicate will happen when you attempt to scale the object?

A. Only the object will be transformed.
B. Only the pattern of the object will be transformed.
C. Only the object and its strokes and effects will be transformed.
D. Both the object and the pattern of the object will be transformed.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You want to assign an identical set of stroke, fill, and effects attributes to objects as you create them.
Which method should you choose?
A. Fill and Stroke
B. Filter > Stylize
C. Graphic Styles
D. Effects > Stylize

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33
You create an extruded object by choosing 3D > Extrude & Bevel. Which should you choose to make modifications to the 3D effects?
A. Window > Attributes
B. Window > Appearance
C. Effect > 3D > Extrude & Bevel
D. Object > Transform > Transform Again

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Click the Exhibit button. Which shape mode in the Pathfinder palette was applied to all the objects in Exhibit A to create the image in Exhibit B?

A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
Click the Exhibit button. Image A in the exhibit has no transparency applied. Which statement about Image B is true?

A. An opacity mask was applied.
B. Isolate blending was turned on.
C. The objects were grouped first, then transparency was applied.
D. The objects were selected individually and transparency was applied to each.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which tool allows you to select objects that have the same stroke weight?
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand
C. Selection tool
D. Direct selection tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
You create an object using the Symbol Sprayer tool and change the color of several of the symbols within the object. What should you use to change a symbol back to the original color value?
A. Symbol Styler tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
B. Symbol Shifter tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
C. Symbol Stainer tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. Symbol Screener tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
In which palette do you find the option to align the stroke of your closed path to the outside?
A. Align palette
B. Stroke palette
C. Attributes palette
D. Appearance palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39
You are using the Paintbrush tool to create paths with an Art brush applied to them. Every time you drag the Paintbrush tool over an existing selected path, the path shape changes.
You want to be able to create a new path instead of changing an existing path. What should you do?
A. set Fidelity to zero
B. set Smoothness to zero
C. turn off Edit Selected Paths
D. turn on Fill New Brush Strokes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Click the Exhibit button. Which method allows you to create the graphic shown in the exhibit as a single object?

A. Merge
B. Add New Stroke
C. Compound Path
D. Add to Shape Area

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is required for you to preview the effect of a filter on an object in the Filter Gallery?
A. The object must be a bitmap object.
B. The object must be in a CMYK or LAB color mode document.
C. The object can be either an expanded vector object or a bitmap object.
D. The object can be either an expanded vector object or a linked bitmap object.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
You draw several overlapping paths. You now want to convert all of them to a Live Paint group. What should you do?
A. click on each individual object with the Live Paintbucket tool
B. click on each individual object with the Live Paint Selection tool
C. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paintbucket tool
D. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paint Selection tool
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
How should you create a clipping mask by using the Layers palette?
A. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
B. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the bottom, select the layer and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
C. arrange the objects on one layer with the clipping path on the top, select each separate object (not the layer) and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu
D. arrange the objects to be clipped on one layer and the clipping path on a separate layer above, select both layers and choose Make Clipping Mask from the Layers palette menu

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
What should you do within the Drop Shadow dialog box to display the available spot colors in a file?
A. select Color from the Mode field pop-up menu
B. select Overlay from the Mode field pop-up menu
C. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click in the Color spectrum
D. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click the Color Swatches button

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You apply an Outer Glow effect to an object. Which should you choose to set the resolution for the raster effect?
A. Print Presets
B. Pixel Preview
C. Transparency Flattener Presets
D. Document Raster Effects Settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Which is a typical resolution for printing gradients and mesh?
A. 72 ppi
B. 150 ppi
C. 200 ppi
D. 300 ppi

Correct Answer: B

Get certified Adobe 9A0-043 is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers.We help you do exactly that with our high quality Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-043.html Certification Certified Information Systems Security Professional training materials.

Continue Reading

ACE Illustrator, Adobe

Adobe 9A0-043 Free Dumps,The Most Effective Adobe 9A0-043 Test Software Sale

No Comments

Do not you know how to choose the Adobe 9A0-043 exam dumps? Being worried about your Adobe 9A0-043 exam? Just try Flydumps new version Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-043.html exam dumps.High pass rate and money back guarantee!

QUESTION 31
Which icon should you click repeatedly to cycle through the views of a palette? Exhibit:

A. OPTION A
B. OPTION B
C. OPTION C
D. OPTION D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
You create an object using the Symbol Sprayer tool and change the color of several of the symbols within the object. What should you use to change a symbol back to the original color value?
A. Symbol Styler tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
B. Symbol Shifter tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
C. Symbol Stainer tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key
D. Symbol Screener tool and the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
You want to export your Illustrator document to a raster file format that allows you to control image compression while retaining all of the color information. Which format should you choose?
A. GIF
B. EPS
C. PSD
D. JPEG
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What does Adobe Bridge allow you to do?
A. browse files of all Adobe file formats
B. convert from one Adobe file format to another
C. edit metadata of any file format, Adobe or other
D. convert non-Adobe files to the most closely related Adobe file format

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
You are converting several vector objects to raster. Which should you select in the Rasterize dialog box so that you can control the resolution globally?
A. Screen (72 ppi)
B. High (300 ppi)
C. Anti-aliasing: None
D. Use Document Raster Effects Resolution

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What should you do within the Drop Shadow dialog box to display the available spot colors in a file?
A. select Color from the Mode field pop-up menu
B. select Overlay from the Mode field pop-up menu
C. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click in the Color spectrum
D. click the color box within the Drop Shadow dialog and click the Color Swatches button

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Which should you choose to turn off typographer’s quotes for your document?
A. Type > Glyphs
B. Type > Smart Punctuation
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You create a new Transparency Flattener Preset. Where do you select that preset so that it is used when you print your document?
A. Transparency palette
B. Flattener Preview palette
C. General Settings in the Print dialog box
D. Advanced Settings in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Which two actions can you perform by using the Control palette? (Choose two.)
A. rotate an object
B. change the fill color of a path
C. proportionally scale an object
D. change the shear angle of a path
E. select objects with similar attributes

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 41
Which should you use to have only quotation marks outside the margin of your area text object?
A. Optical Kerning
B. Optical Margin Alignment
C. Roman Hanging Punctuation
D. Adobe Every-Line Composer

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which Illustrator Legacy Option Version setting allows you to turn off compression?
A. Illustrator 3
B. Illustrator 8
C. Illustrator 9
D. Illustrator 10

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Which must be displayed to create a guide in Illustrator?
A. grids
B. rulers
C. toolbox
D. Control palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
You apply an Outer Glow effect to an object. Which should you choose to set the resolution for the raster effect?
A. Print Presets
B. Pixel Preview
C. Transparency Flattener Presets
D. Document Raster Effects Settings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
Which method allows you to create the graphic shown in the exhibit as a single object?
Exhibit: 1-40.gif

A. Merge
B. Add New Stroke
C. Compound Path
D. Add to Shape Area

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You draw several overlapping paths. You now want to convert all of them to a Live Paint group. What should you do?
A. click on each individual object with the Live Paintbucket tool
B. click on each individual object with the Live Paint Selection tool
C. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paintbucket tool
D. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paint Selection tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which type of font can offer additional, alternate glyphs?
A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. TrueType
D. OpenType
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Which tool allows you to select objects that have the same stroke weight?
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand
C. Selection tool
D. Direct selection tool

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
You want to make your image interactive when it is viewed in a Web browser. You want to add a JavaScript that will be triggered when the user moves the mouse into a certain area of the image. Which should you choose from the SVG Interactivity palette?
A. onmouseup
B. onmouseout
C. onmouseover
D. onmousedown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
You are creating a graphic that will be used on the Web. You want to ensure maximum compatibility with
the largest number of users, the smallest possible file size, and the highest fidelity to the original graphic.
The graphic uses few colors.
Which file format should you use?

A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A

Ensure that you are provided with only the best and most updated Adobe 9A0-043 Certification training materials, we also want you to be able to access Adobe 9A0-043 easily, whenever you want.We provide all our Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-043.html Certification exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Now we add the latest Adobe 9A0-043 content and to print and share content.

Continue Reading

Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-019 Flydumps,Up To Date Adobe 9A0-019 Exam Online Sale

No Comments

We are committed on providing you with the latest and most accurate Adobe 9A0-019 exam preparation products.If you want to pass Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-019.html exam successfully, do not miss to read latest Flydumps Adobe 9A0-019 brain dumps on Flydumps.

QUESTION 21
You have an RGB image. The presence of ______ in parts of the channel indicates the presence of red in the image that location.
A. blue
B. blak
C. white
D. green

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
You have an existing selection. You click on the option bar. How will a new selection interact with the existing selection?
A. The new selection will be added to the existing selection.
B. The new selection will be intersected with the existing selection.
C. The new selection will be subtracted form the existing selection.
D. A new selection will be made the existing selection will be lost.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
You have created an RGB image with three spot color channels. Which statement is true?
A. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will overprint the composited image.
B. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will overprint the composited image
C. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will be overprinted by the composited image.
D. White areas in each spot color channel indicate where the designated color will be overprinted by the composited image.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
In the levels dialog box, what does Option-dragging (Mac OS)or Alt-dragging (Windows) the Input Sliders accomplish?
A. IT sets the amount of clipping.
B. It resets the values in the dialog box.
C. It sets the black and white points in the image.
D. It display the lightest and darkest areas in the image.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
You making a selection with the polygonal lasso tool. You want to edit your selection before completing it. What should you?
A. press the Escape key
B. use the Deselect command
C. press Delete until the unwanted segment is removed.
D. Use the Undo command until the unwanted segment is removed

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
You are creating an image that will be printed in black and one spot color. How do you add the spot color to the document?
A. create spot color channel and paint
B. add the spot color to the Swatches palette and paint
C. select the spot color as the foreground color and paint
D. create a new layer with the name of the spot color and paint

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
What is the resolution when you output a vector graphic to a PostScript printer?
A. 150 lpi
B. 300 dpi
C. the resolution of the printer
D. the original resolution of the vector graphic

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
You want to create a selection by using the elliptical marquee tool. Which key should you press to reposition the marquee while drawing it?
A. V
B. Shift
C. Spacbar
D. Cmd (Mac OS) or Ctrl (Windows)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
You want to create a pattern fill layer that only applies to a selected area of your image. What should you do?
A. choose the Fill command; choose the Pattern option from the Use Pull-down menu, the choose a pattern
B. with the selection active, click the Create New Fill or Adjustment Layer button on the Layers palette and drag to Pattern
C. with the selection active, click the Add a Layer Style button on the Layers palette to create a masked pattern overly
D. create a new layer and set it to Overlay mode; choose the Fill command, then choose the Pattern option from the Use menu and select pattern.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which statement about vector graphics is true?
A. They are made up of pixels.
B. They are resolution dependent.
C. They are resolution independent.
D. They are also know as raster images.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
You select an are with the crop tool. You select the Gropped Area: Hide option, and commit the crop operation. What happens?
A. A layer mask is created to cover the area that was outside the crop area
B. A new layer is created with the cropped image, and the original layer is hidden.
C. The image is cropped, but the area outside the crop area is NOT deleted form the document.
D. The area inside the crop marquee is hidden, and the area outside the marquee remains visible.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
You create a mask and save it as an alpha channel. The mask contains clack, white and gray pixels. You load the mask as a selection so you can run a filter on the image. Which areas of the mask allow the image to be affected?
A. only black areas
B. only white areas
C. both black and gray areas
D. both white and gray areas

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
You want to adjust the tonal values of an image WITHOUT changing the hue of the pixels in the image. Which color mode should you use?
A. Lab
B. RGB
C. CMYK
D. Indexed Color

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
Which filter are you most likely to need after resampling an image?
A. Add Noise
B. De-Interlace
C. Unsharp Mask
D. Gaussian Blur

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You mask a selection by using the lasso tool. You want to modify the selection by using painting tools. What should you do?
A. create a layer mask and paint
B. switch to Quick Mask mode and paint
C. select a painting tool; change the blending mode to Multiply, and paint on the active layer
D. select a painting tool; select Add to Existing Selection in the options bar, and paint on the active layer.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Which color space does Adobe Photoshop use as an intermediate color space when converting color modes?
A. Lab
B. HSL
C. HSB
D. RGB

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 37
Exhibit.

You use the Image Size command to resize a document. You have Resample Image selected. What happen when you reduce the resolution?
A. Pixel dimensions are reduced.
B. Pixel dimensions are increased.
C. Document size dimensions are reduced.
D. Document size dimensions are increased.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You have created an elliptical marquee. You want to manipulate the selection edge with image editing tools. What should you do?
A. make a work path from the selection; use image tools to modify the path, then make a selection form the path
B. choose Select>Transform Selection; use image editing tools to modify the selection, then press Return (Mac OS) or Enter (Windows)
C. click the Edit in Quick Mask Mode button on the toolbox; use image editing the selection in the image, then Standard Mode button to exit Quick Mask mode.
D. Save the sel4ection as a mask in an Indexed Color mode image; use image editing tools to modify the selection in the image in the image, then load the selection into the original image file

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
You are scanning a photograph at 100%. It will be output to an imagesetter at 2450 dpi with a line screen of 150 tpi. You want to preserve the image quality and minimize the file size. With which resolution should you scan your photograph?
A. 150 lpi
B. 2450 dpi
C. 1.5 to 2 times the line screen
D. 3.5 to 5 times the line screen
Correct Answer: C

Preparing Adobe 9A0-019 exam is not difficult now.You can prepare from Adobe 9A0-019 Certification or Adobe https://www.pass4itsure.com/9a0-019.html dumps.Here we have mentioned some sample questions.You can use our Adobe 9A0-019 study material notes for test preparation.Latest Adobe 9A0-019 study material available.

Continue Reading

3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Try Free Demo, Sale Latest Release 3Com 3M0-331 Real Exam Questions And Answers For Sale

No Comments

No doubt,3Com 3M0-331 exam is worth challenging task but you should not feel hesitant against the confronting difficulties.Get a complete hold on 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html exam syllabus through Flydumps training and boost up your skills.What’s more,all the brain dumps are the latest.

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD

Well-regarded for its level of detail, assessment features, and challenging review questions and hands-on exercises,3Com 3M0-331 helps you master the concepts and techniques that will enable you to succeed on the 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html exam the first time.

Continue Reading

3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Certification Exams,Valid and updated 3Com 3M0-331 Demo Free Download Online

No Comments

Flydumps 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html exam material details are researched and created by the Most Professional Certified Authors who are regularly using current exams experience to create precise and logical dumps.You can get questions and answers from many other websites or books,but logic is the main key of success,and Flydumps will give you this key of success.

QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 41
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
3Com 3M0-331 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. We update our product frequently so our customer can always have the latest version of 3Com 3M0-331.We provide our customers with the excellent 7×24 hours customer service.We have the most professional 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-331.html expert team to back up our grate quality products.If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our 3Com 3M0-331 free pdf

Continue Reading

3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-212 Vce Files, Best 3Com 3M0-212 Practice With New Discount

No Comments

Flydumps guarantee your 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html exam success with our Exam Resources .3Com 3M0-212 braindumps are the latest and developed by experience’s IT certification Professionals working in today’s prospering companies and data centers.All our 3Com 3M0-212 brain dumps including 3Com 3M0-212 exam questions which guarantee you can 100% success 3Com 3M0-212 exam in your first try exam.

QUESTION 35
Which Layer 3 protocol is supported on the Switch 5500-SI?
A. OSPF
B. PIM Dense Mode
C. RIP 2
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
What is a key Link Aggregation (LA) Switch 7700/8800 configuration consideration?
A. Member links can be mixed media, speed and duplex mode
B. The Switch 7700/Switch 8800 supports non-sequential LA port assignment on a single module
C. A member link port can only belong to one aggregated link
D. You must remove the specific LA group before disabling its member link ports
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches to create a single switch stack.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
Which two are Layer 3 features of the Switch 5500-EI and 5500G-EI? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic IPX routing
B. Multicast routing PIM Sparse and Dense Mode
C. Static routes for routed environments where no routing protocol is used
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 39
What is a security feature on the Switch 8800?
A. Requires RADIUS for IEEE 802.1x Network Login authentication
B. User names and passwords can be configured on the switch
C. Switch only acts as authenticator but not authentication server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
DRAG DROP
Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 41
Which two Access Control Lists (ACLs) features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Default switch flow template includes all IP fields
B. Layer 3 ACLs only
C. Each interface has an associated flow template that defines the subset of all possible protocol fields used by the interface
D. Both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ACLs

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 42
DRAG DROP
Drag each 3Com switch to the set of multicast protocols it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 43
Which two features are supported on the Switch 8800? (Choose two.)
A. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) and Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
B. IEEE 802.11a/g Wireless Access Point
C. 2,048 Virtual LANs (VLANs) per chassis
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 44
Which two security standards are supported on 3Com’s Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 switch families? (Choose two.)
A. Port-based Access Control Lists (ACLs)
B. Disconnect Unauthorized Device (DUD) port security
C. RADIUS switch login
D. IEEE 802.1x Network Login

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 45
What is the security benefit obtained when the Switch 5500 is integrated with Tipping Point IPS?
A. Prevents unauthorized users from logging onto the network
B. Illegal activity or infected machine can be automatically isolated or blocked
C. Automatically works with IEEE 802.1X Network Login and switch ACLs to determine user authorization and access authority

Correct Answer: B

3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism.The main purpose of 3Com 3M0-212 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge,give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification

Continue Reading

3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-212 Study Guide Book, Most Popular 3Com 3M0-212 Practice Questions Latest Version PDF&VCE

No Comments

Flydumps guarantee your 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html exam success with our Exam Resources.Our 3Com 3M0-212 Flydumps are the latest and developed by experience’s IT certification Professionals working in today’s prospering companies and data centers.All our 3Com 3M0-212 Flydumps including 3Com 3M0-212 exam questions which guarantee you can 100% success 3Com 3M0-212 exam in your first try exam.

QUESTION 35
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
C. Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)
D. Distributed Device Management (DDM)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 36
Which three technologies can be used to provide a high level of network availability? (Choose three.)
A. Cut-through switching
B. eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)
C. Virtual LAN-centric (VLAN-centric) network design
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.1w Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
F. Internet Group Membership Protocol (IGMP) Snooping

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 37
What is the most common Layer 2 method for handling multicast traffic?
A. DVMRP
B. PIM-SM/DM
C. IGMP Snooping

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com switch to the set of multicast protocols it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 39
Which two are features of IEEE 802.1X Network Login? (Choose two.)
A. All authorization can be administered centrally
B. Authenticates users before they gain access to the network
C. Devices such as telephones are automatically authenticated based on IP address
D. Security administrators must use the history log file to determine who is accessing the network

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 40
Which two security standards are supported on 3Com’s Switch 7700 and Switch 8800 switch families? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS switch login
B. IEEE 802.1x Network Login
C. Port-based Access Control Lists (ACLs)
D. Disconnect Unauthorized Device (DUD) port security

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 41
Which three are security-design features that can be used in enterprise networks to improve network security? (Choose three.)
A. Enable IEEE 802.3ad Link Aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric design

Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 42
Click the Task button.
Drag each switch family to the recommended customer environment.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 43
For which customer network environment does 3Com recommend the Switch 8800 family?
A. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. Large enterprise network core
C. Large enterprise distribution layer
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Which two are Switch 8800 routing configuration considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Supports OSPF
B. Supports EIGRP
C. By default, RIP is disabled on the switch
D. By default, RIP v2 runs when RIP is enabled

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 45
What is a key Link Aggregation (LA) Switch 7700/8800 configuration consideration?
A. A member link port can only belong to one aggregated link
B. Member links can be mixed media, speed and duplex mode
C. You must remove the specific LA group before disabling its member link ports
D. The Switch 7700/Switch 8800 supports non-sequential LA port assignment on a single module

Correct Answer: A

This volume is part of the Exam Certification Guide Series from 3Com 3M0-212.3Com 3M0-212 in this series provide officially developed exam preparation materials that offer assessment, review, and practice to help 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-212.html Certification candidates identify weaknesses,concentrate their study efforts,and enhance their confidence as 3Com 3M0-212 exam day nears.

Continue Reading

3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-211 Study Guides,Discount 3Com 3M0-211 Self Study Is Your Best Choice

No Comments

Flydumps 3Com 3M0-211 exam questions and answers in PDF are prepared by our expert,Moreover,they are based on the recommended syllabus covering all the 3Com 3M0-211 exam objectives.You will find them to be very helpful and precise in the subject matter since all the 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html exam content is regularly updated and has been checked for accuracy by our team of Microsoft expert professionals.

QUESTION 30
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
Which two are features of the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. Describes network edge access between a supplicant and a network access device
B. Defines tunnel encapsulation to transmit data across a Virtual Private Network
C. Identifies RADIUS as a generic means of performing supplicant access validity inspection
D. Identifies proxy servers as means of intercepting and filtering requests to the main server
E. Defines packet filtering as a means to control network access by analyzing each incoming and outgoing packet and rejecting or accepting it based on user-defined rules

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which two cabling options should you choose for a customer who wants to upgrade the building and the campus backbones to Giabit Ethernet?Note: The campus backbone requires a 1,000-meter run, and the building backbone runs are from 300-500 meters in length. All new cabling is required. (Choose two)
A. 1000BASE -TX copper for the building backbones
B. 1000BASE -SX 50 micron multimode fiber for the campus backbones
C. 1000BASE – LX 9 micron single-mode fiber for the campus backbones
D. 1000BASE -LX 62.5 micron multimode fiber for the building backbones

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 33
How does a 3Com switch 7700, with RSTP disabled, handle the flooding process for a frame with the following attributes: A VLAN exists for the frame’s protocol, but the frame’s source port is not a member of the VLAN definition?
A. The frame is forwarded to all switch ports in the system
B. The frame is flooded to the default VLAN for the receive port
C. The frame is flooded according to the default VLAN assigned to that port
D. The frame is flooded according to the group of ports assigned to that VLAN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
Which two are attributes of the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
A. Layer 4 protocol
B. Routing load balancing
C. Authentication passwords must be encrypted
D. Multiple virtual routers may exist on the same LAN segment
E. The Virtual Router ID (VRID) value determines the Master/Backup status
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 35
What is MINIMUM REQUIREMENT TO SUPPORT THE Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStake 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is supported by every switch
B. At least two switches must be staked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which three traffic-prioritization classification are supported by the Super Stack 3 Switch 4400?
A. IP address
B. Physical port number
C. Resource Reservation Protocol
D. Common Open Policy Service Protocol
E. IETF Differentiated Services Code Point

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 37
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Choose two)
A. The Link Aggregation group can start on any port
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to single Link Aggregation group

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 38
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Which three are functions of the Access Control List capabilities of the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Filter routing updates
B. Support Embadded Firewall
C. Control management logins
D. Filter data from information in Layer 2-4 IP header
E. Integrate with RAIDUS for maximum security protection
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 40
Which two operations does the Switch 7700 use to prevent network loops on an Ethernet network? (Choose two)
A. The switch uses Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to eliminate loops on the network
B. The network administrator must configure switch-to-switch ports to eliminate loops on the network
C. The switch uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to eliminate loops on the network
D. The switch uses Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to determine the network topology and eliminate loops
E. The switch uses Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to eliminate loops on the network
F. The switch automatically learns address of other devices by listening to the network to determine the network topology

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 41
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF

3Com 3M0-21 Exam Certification Guide presents you with an organized test preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques.“Do I Know This Already?”quizzes open each chapter and allow you to decide how much time you need to spend on each section.3Com 3M0-21 lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it.Challenging 3Com https://www.pass4itsure.com/3m0-211.html review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.3Com 3M0-21 exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time.

Continue Reading

CCDP, Cisco

Cisco 642-873 Questions, Latest Upload Cisco 642-873 Guide For Sale

No Comments

Free sharing of new updated Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-873.html exam practice test. If you are looking to get certified in short possible time, better try Flydumps latest new version Cisco 642-873 with all new questions and answers added,visit Flydumps.com to free Cisco 642-873 download vce and pdf files.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of these is a Layer 2 transport architecture that provides packet-based transmission optimized for data based on a dual (counter-rotating) ring topology?
A. DTP
B. RPR
C. SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three of these are elements of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network architecture? (Choose three)
A. cell phones
B. remote access
C. mobility services
D. network management
E. network unification
F. network decentralization

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of these are correct regarding the recommended practice for distribution layer design? (Choose two.)

A. use a redundant link to the core
B. use a Layer 2 link between distribution switches
C. never use a redundant link to the core because of convergence issues
D. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches with route summarization
E. use a Layer 3 link between distribution switches without route summarization

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of these terms refers to call issues that cause variations in timing or time of arrival?
A. queuing
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. digitized sampling
E. signal-to-noise ratio ratio

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which two of these are characteristics of an IDS sensor? (Choose two.)
A. passively listens to network traffic
B. is an active device in the traffic path
C. has a permissive interface that is used to monitor networks
D. traffic arrives on one IDS interface and exits on another
E. has a promiscuous interface that is used to monitor the network

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. core layer
B. Internet boundary
C. aggregation layer
D. aggregation and core layers
E. access and aggregation layers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
In which two locations in an enterprise network can an IPS sensor be placed? (Choose two.)
A. bridging VLANs on two switches
B. bridging two VLANs on one switch
C. between two Layer 2 devices with trunking
D. between two Layer 2 devices without trunking
E. between a Layer 2 device and a Layer 3 device with trunking

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is a virtual firewall?
A. another name for a firewall deployed in routed mode
B. another name for a firewall deployed in transparent mode
C. a separation of multiple firewall security contexts on a single firewall
D. a firewall that, when deployed in routed mode, can support up to 1000 VLANs per context
E. a firewall that has multiple contexts, all of which share the same policies (such as NAT and ACLs)

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
In a VoWLAN deployment, what is the recommended separation between cells with the same channel?
A. 19 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 10 dBm
D. 6 dBm
E. 5 dbm to 10 dBm

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. in order to support business applications
D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which site-to-site VPN solution allows Cisco routers, PIX Firewalls, and Cisco hardware clients to act as remote VPN clients in order to receive predefined security policies and configuration parameters from the VPN headend at the central site?
A. Easy VPN
B. GRE tunneling
C. Virtual Tunnel Interfaces
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
E. Group Encrypted Transport VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)
A. use ISL encapsulation
B. use 802.1q encapsulation
C. set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D. use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E. set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
For acceptable voice calls, the packet error rate should be no higher than what value?
A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 2.5%
D. 25%

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which of these statements is true of clientless end-user devices?
A. They do not receive unique IP addresses.
B. RADIUS or LDAP is required in order to assign IP addresses.
C. They are assigned addresses from the internal DHCP pool.
D. Their traffic appears to originate from the originating host network.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NetFlow uses five key fields for the flow.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
E. NetFlow examines data in Layers 2 through 4.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is meant by the term “firewall sandwich”?
A. multiple layers of firewalling
B. a method of operating firewalls from multiple vendors
C. firewall connections in either an active or standby state
D. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific servers
E. an architecture in which all traffic between firewalls goes through application-specific gateways

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
When BGP tuning is used, how is packet flow into the e-commerce module controlled?
A. by tracking the status of objects along the path to the e-commerce module
B. by detecting undesirable conditions along the path to the e-commerce module
C. by using the MED to communicate the site preferences for traffic to multiple ISPs
D. by communicating the available prefixes, routing policies, and preferences of each site to its ISP
E. by moving the SLB to a position where selected traffic to and from the servers does not go through the SLB

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)
A. Flex Links
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-free inverted U

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Free practice questions for Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-873.html exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam. You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Cisco 642-873.

Continue Reading