Oracle 1Z0-020 test: High Pass Rate Oracle 1Z0-020 Dumps PDF

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Question: 1
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. With composite partitioning, table partitions can store data rows.
B. With composite partitioning, table partitions cannot store data rows.
C. With composite partitioning, table subpartitions can store data rows.
D. With composite partitioning, table subpartitions cannot store data rows.

Answer: B, C
Question: 2
Which two statements are true for an online index rebuild? (Choose two)
A. No table locking is required.
B. The operation can be done in parallel.
C. Queries on the base table will result in errors.
D. Changes to the base table are logged in a journal table.

Answer: A, D
Question: 3
Following an upgrade from Oracle8, release 8.0, to Oracle8i, release 1 or 2, you should run the script utlrp.sql to accomplish which goal?
A. Create a set of compatible data dictionary tables.
B. Recompile any PL/SQL modules made invalid by the upgrade.
C. To remove the release upgrade program modules from the SYSTEM tablespace.
D. Replace statistics tables created with the DBMS_STATS with current versions.

Answer: B
Question: 4
When you create a stored outline, in which schema is it stored?
A. SYS
B. OUTLN
C. SYSTEM
D. The Current User

Answer: B
Question: 5
What is the maximum number of parallel recover servers when the FAST_START_PARALLEL_ROLLBACK parameter is set to HIGH?
A. 2* CPU_COUNT
B. 4* CPU_COUNT
C. 6* CPU_COUNT
D. 2* number of rollback transactions
E. 4* number of rollback transactions
Answer: B
Question: 6
Given: LOG_ARCHIEVE_DEST_2??? ?.ìC ???LOCATION = /archive2 OPTIONAL??? What effect does OPTIONAL have in the location parameter?
A. There is an error on startup because there is no OPTIONAL clause available.
B. If the destination is unavailable, it puts the archive log in a default directory.
C. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten.
D. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten at the request of the DBA.
E. If the destination is unavailable, it allows the online redo log to be overwritten if the parameter LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2_OVERWRITE is set to ??True??

Answer: C
Question: 7
Which two can be obtained from the summary advisor? (Choose two)
A. Summary accounting.
B. Summary refresh plan.
C. Summary recommendations.
D. Summary space requirements.

Answer: C, D
Question: 8
What does fine-grained access enable you to do?
A. Associate policies with tables and view.
B. Choose the schema in which a stored PL/SQL block will execute in.
C. Select which user??s privilege map is used during execution.
D. Select how external object references are resolved in queries.

Answer: A
Question: 9
What are autonomous transactions?
A. PL/SQL blocks that have a transaction scope independent of the transaction scope of the calling PL/SQL block.
B. Nested transactions that share resources with the calling transaction.
C. The transaction that is created by the LOGON event trigger.

Answer: A
Question: 10
When the listener is NOT available during client load balancing and failover, which file does the client use to pick a listener/
A. TNSNAMES.ORA on the server
B. LISTENER.ORA on the client
C. TNSNAMES.ORA on the client
D. LISTENER.ORA on the server
Answer: C
Question: 11
Which four steps are required to transport a tablespace? (Choose four)
A. Make the tablespace read-only.
B. Import metadata into the target database.
C. Export metadata from the source database.
D. Copy the data files to the target system.
E. Make the tablespace in the target database read-write.
F. Rename the data files on the source system.

Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 12
Examine this statement:
SELECT deptno, job, SUM(sal)
FROM emp
Which GROUP BY clause would you use to generate a subtotal of the sum of salaries in each
department, and a subtotal of the sum of salaries of all the different job types?

A. GROUP BY deptno, job;
B. GROUP BY CUBE (deptno, job);
C. GROUP BY ROLLUP (deptno, job);
D. GROUP BY SUM (deptno), SUM (job);
E. GROUP BY CUBE (deptno, job, sal);

Answer: C
Question: 13
Why would you drop a column instead of marking it unused?
A. You want to release the space.
B. You want it to process more quickly.
C. You want users to be able to modify the table during the operation.
D. You want to prevent users from creating a new column with the same name.
E. You want the column data to be available again on export or import of the table.
Answer: A
Question: 14
Which statement about transportable tablespaces is true?
A. They can be used reorganize table in a tablespace.
B. The name of the tablespace can be changed during transportation.
C. The data in the tablespace is copied using the SQL*Loader utility.
D. The name of the schema that owns the objects in the tablespace can be changed during transportation.

Answer: D
Question: 15
Which three steps should you complete before attempting a manual upgrade from Oracle8, version 8.0, to Oracle *I, release 1 or 2? (Choose three)
A. Ensure you do not have a role or user called OUTLN in your database.
B. Make a backup.
C. Drop all rollback segments with unlimited extents.
D. Ensure you have free space in your SYSTEM tablespace.

Answer: A, B, D
Question: 16
Which type of statement specifies whose schema should be used when resolving object names?
A. DEFINE
B. AUTHID
C. PRAGMA
D. EXECUTE
E. SET USER

Answer: B
Question: 17
Examine this statement:
SELECT *
FROM (SELECT class_id, crs_id
FROM classes
ORDER BY start_date DESC)
WHERE ROWNUM < 11;
What will happen when this executes?

A. The ten rows with the latest start date will be returned.
B. The ten rows with the earliest start date will be returned.
C. An error is returned citing an ORDER BY embedded within a subquery.
D. An error is returned citing an ORDER BY clause reference to a column that is not selected.

Answer: A
Question: 18
What happens during query rewrites of materialized views?
A. The user rewrites the SELECT statement without the GROUP BY clause.
B. The user rewrites the SELECT statement to use the table instead of the materialized view.
C. The optimizer the SELECT statement to use the table instead of the materialized view.
D. The optimizer rewrites the SELECT statement to use the materialized view instead of the table.

Answer: D
Question: 19
Which two initialization parameters are used to create the default value for the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter when it is not specified? (Choose two)
A. DB_NAMES
B. DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT
C. DB_DOMAIN
D. MTS_SERVICE
E. INSTANCE_NAME
Answer: A, C

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QUESTION 37
You have just completed replacing a logic board in an iMac (Flat Panel) and are reassembling the computer. Which of the following special tools is recommended during this reassembly?
A. CRT discharge tool
B. Torque screwdriver
C. Spring tensioning tool
D. Jumper adjustment tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by _________.
A. Visually inspecting them for damage.
B. Replacing them with known-good parts in any order.
C. Adding more known-good parts in a specified order.
D. Replacing them with known-good parts in specified order.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Doors)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. Logic Board
E. Power Cable
F. Power Supply
G. Front Panel Board
H. Processor with Heatsink

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of ______ within computers.
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to_____.
A. Boot the system into Mac OS 9.
B. Boot the system into Mac OS X.
C. Boot the system into Open Firmware diagnostics.
D. Hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
You are using component isolation to troubleshoot a Power Mac G4 (Quicksilver). You have already reduced the computer to the appropriate minimal configuration. You have just installed a known-good video card and have attached a known-good external VGA display to it. Upon startup, you see a flashing question mark on the VGA display, but you hear no startup chime. What signals or power could be missing to cause this problem?
A. Timing signals to the processor through the logic board.
B. Power to the memory subsystem through the logic board.
C. Backup battery voltage to the PMU through the logic board.
D. Audio signals to the speaker through the front panel board.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wriest strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 75%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which FOUR of the following actions helps reduce the risk of damage from ESD? (Choose four)
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ABDE

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QUESTION 37
Which should you choose to turn off typographer’s quotes for your document?
A. Type > Glyphs
B. Type > Smart Punctuation
C. File > Document Setup > Type
D. Edit > Preferences (Windows) or Illustrator > Preferences (Mac OS)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
You create a new Transparency Flattener Preset. Where do you select that preset so that it is used when you print your document?
A. Transparency palette
B. Flattener Preview palette
C. General Settings in the Print dialog box
D. Advanced Settings in the Print dialog box

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
You are saving irregular shaped objects that have transparent areas as JPEG images for the Web. Which option in the Save for Web dialog box allows you to set the color for transparent areas?
A. Blur
B. Matte
C. Quality
D. ICC Profile

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which two actions can you perform by using the Control palette? (Choose two.)
A. rotate an object
B. change the fill color of a path
C. proportionally scale an object
D. change the shear angle of a path
E. select objects with similar attributes

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 41
Which should you use to have only quotation marks outside the margin of your area text object?
A. Optical Kerning
B. Optical Margin Alignment
C. Roman Hanging Punctuation
D. Adobe Every-Line Composer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
Which Illustrator Legacy Option Version setting allows you to turn off compression?
A. Illustrator 3
B. Illustrator 8
C. Illustrator 9
D. Illustrator 10

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
Which Illustrator feature allows you to export Illustrator layers to HTML with absolute positioning and with the ability to overlap each other?
A. Slices
B. Guides
C. Symbols
D. CSS Layers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which must be displayed to create a guide in Illustrator?
A. grids
B. rulers
C. toolbox
D. Control palette
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
You apply an Outer Glow effect to an object. Which should you choose to set the resolution for the raster effect?
A. Print Presets
B. Pixel Preview
C. Transparency Flattener Presets
D. Document Raster Effects Settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit.
Which method allows you to create the graphic shown in the exhibit as a single object? Exhibit: 1-40.gif

A. Merge
B. Add New Stroke
C. Compound Path
D. Add to Shape Area

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
You draw several overlapping paths. You now want to convert all of them to a Live Paint group. What should you do?
A. click on each individual object with the Live Paintbucket tool
B. click on each individual object with the Live Paint Selection tool
C. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paintbucket tool
D. select the objects and click on them with the Live Paint Selection tool

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
Which type of font can offer additional, alternate glyphs?
A. Type 1
B. Type 3
C. TrueType
D. OpenType

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
Which tool allows you to select objects that have the same stroke weight?
A. Lasso tool
B. Magic Wand
C. Selection tool
D. Direct selection tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
You want to make your image interactive when it is viewed in a Web browser. You want to add a JavaScript that will be triggered when the user moves the mouse into a certain area of the image. Which should you choose from the SVG Interactivity palette?
A. onmouseup
B. onmouseout
C. onmouseover
D. onmousedown

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
You are creating a graphic that will be used on the Web. You want to ensure maximum compatibility with the largest number of users, the smallest possible file size, and the highest fidelity to the original graphic. The graphic uses few colors.
Which file format should you use?
A. GIF
B. TIFF
C. SVG
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 52
You create an extruded object by choosing 3D > Extrude & Bevel. Which should you choose to make modifications to the 3D effects?
A. Window > Attributes
B. Window > Appearance
C. Effect > 3D > Extrude & Bevel
D. Object > Transform > Transform Again

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
Which is part of a color managed workflow in Adobe Illustrator?
A. color profiles
B. color swatches
C. symbol libraries
D. graphic style libraries

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 54
You have been using paragraph styles in your text. You click in a paragraph and notice that there’s a plus sign next to the style name in the Paragraph Styles palette.
What does the plus sign indicate?
A. Additional text exists but is not visible.
B. The text has been converted to outline.
C. A character style has been applied to the text.
D. The text formatting does not match the paragraph style definition. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.
In the Control palette shown in the exhibit, what is the function of the highlighted icon? Exhibit:
A. groups objects
B. shows center point
C. aligns objects vertically
D. isolates selected group

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.
Which shape mode in the Pathfinder palette was applied to all the objects in Exhibit A to create the image in Exhibit B? Exhibit:

A. Add to Shape Area
B. Intersect Shape Areas
C. Subtract from Shape Area
D. Exclude Overlapping Shape Areas

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You have made a text selection. Where can you access the strikethrough text attribute?
A. Type menu
B. Character palette
C. OpenType palette
D. Character palette menu

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
You want to assign an identical set of stroke, fill, and effects attributes to objects as you create them. Which method should you choose?
A. Fill and Stroke
B. Filter > Stylize
C. Graphic Styles
D. Effects > Stylize

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 32
You have drawn a patch in your image. In the Paths palette, the path name is Work Path. What happens if you deselect Work Path and draw and new path?
A. The new path is added to Work Path.
B. A new path called Work Path 2 is created.
C. A single path component is created from all overlapping components.
D. The original Work Path is deleted, and the new path becomes Work Path.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
You have selected several anchor points of a shape layer. You want to rotate them an arbitrary amount. Which command should you use?
A. Filter >Liquify
B. Edit > Free Transform Path
C. Edit > Free Transform Points
D. Layer > Change Layer Content

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
Which file format can preserve vector data?
A. BMP
B. PICT
C. Photoshop PDF
D. Photoshop RAW

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
Exhibit.

You are using Camera RAW to import an image. You want the leftmost data in the histogram to be farther to the left with little effect on the right.
Which slider under the Adjust tab should you use?
A. Contrast
B. Shadows
C. Exposure
D. Brightness

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
You are creating a graphic that is to be used in anAnamorphic(2:1) video product. You use the Ellipse tool while holding down the Shift key. Pixel Aspect Ratio Correction preview is disabled.
How does the result appear in Photoshop?
A. a circle with pixels twice as tall as they are wide
B. a circle with pixels twice as wide as they are tall
C. all ellipse twice as tall as it is wide with square pixels
D. an ellipse twice as wide as it is tall with square pixels

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
While opening a Camera Raw image, you notice that the image has a slight color cast. Which setting in the Camera Raw dialog box should you adjust to eliminate the color cast?
A. Calibrate
B. Color Space
C. White Balance
D. Chromatic Aberration R/C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
What is the purpose of setting a pixel aspect ratio for an image?
A. to draw perfect squares or circles with the Marquee tool
B. to constrain the proportions of an image when it is scaled
C. to ensure that the resolution of the image is appropriate for printing
D. to compensate for scaling when the image is incorporatedintovideo

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
You are using theUnsharpMask filter on a portrait. You want to avoid sharpening imperfections in the skin tone.
What should you do?
A. increase the Amount setting
B. decrease the Amount setting
C. increase the Threshold setting
D. decrease the Threshold setting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40
Using Filter Gallery, you want to preview the effect of applying several distortion and artistic filters. Which statement is true?
A. You can adjust the opacity of each filter layer.
B. You can preview the filters’ effect on more than one layer at a time.
C. You can add more filters in those categories with the Preset Manager.
D. You can change the order in which the filters will be applied before applying the gallery.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
Which tool should you sue to repair a portion of an image so that texture detail from one area of an image merges with the color and brightness values from another?
A. Clone Stamp
B. History Brush
C. Healing Brush
D. Color Replacement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
You have made a selection of an area of an image you need to repair. Using the Patch tool, you want to drag the selection to the area that will serve as a patch.
Which Patch tool option should you choose?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 43
You foreground swatch is red, you background swatch is orange. Wherever you paint, you want to replace only orange with red. You do NOT want to affect luminosity values.
Which tool should you use?
A. Brush tool
B. Magic Eraser tool
C. Art History Brush tool
D. Color Replacement tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
An image with a correctly assigned input profile has been converted to Adobe RGB (1998). Which statement is true?
A. The colors look different, but the color numbers are identical.
B. The colors look different and the color numbers are different.
C. The colors look the same, but the color numbers are different.
D. The colors look the same and the color numbers are identical.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a valid precaution you should take when replacing a processor in a Mac Pro (8x)?
A. Avoid touching the silver coating on the underside of the heat sink and the top of the processor.
B. Leave the heat sinks removed for atleast thirty minutes before replacing the processor.
C. Remove both heat sinks before replacing either processor.
D. Avoid touching the cables near the processor.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built in display. You have already checked user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect external display to the eMac’s VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the external display. Which of the following service modules would mostly likely be the cause of symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard Drive
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
When discharging a CTR, what part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?
A. anode aperture
B. high voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. yoke connector/cable
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (original) with 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which part or parts of a CRT should NOT be touched until after the display is disconnected from its power source and the CRT is properly discharged?( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Yoke assembly
B. Anode aperture
C. Flyback transformer
D. Front of CRT display
E. Outer plastic housing
F. Yoke cable/connector
Correct Answer: ABCF QUESTION 6
What is the first step to take if you have a Mac that constantly ejects any CD/DVD that is inserted?
A. Replace the logic board.
B. Replace the optical drive.
C. Replace the optical drive cable
D. Disconnect all peripheral devices, especially the mouse
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting Airport issues? ( Select three )
A. Are just wireless computers affected.
B. What is the computer’s processor speed.
C. Can the customer print to a networked printer
D. Are both wired and wireless computers affected
E. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network
F. What is the URL of the website the customer is attempting to access
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 8
Which of the following Apple diagnostic utilities is the most appropriate for a service technician to test a Mac mini after it is repaired?
A. Mac Test Pro
B. Tech Tool Deluxe
C. Apple Hardware Test
D. Apple Service Diagnostic
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9

Examine the exhibit. Which of these is a valid memory configuration for a Mac Pro?
A. Configuration A: Two DIMMs on top riser card, four DIMMS on bottom riser card.
B. Configuration B: Four DIMMs on top riser card, two DIMMs on bottom riser card.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
To ensure proper fan and temperature control in the Power Mac G5 you must run the thermal calibration routine found on the __________ disc whenever you replace a processor or logic board with a new processor or logic board?
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Fan Control Installer
D. Mac OS X Installer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an undertanding of ____________ and __________ within computers.? ( Select two )
A. network flow
B. coolant flow
C. power flow
D. fan air flow
E. signal flow
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT one of the steps of the Apple recommended troubleshooting process?
A. Vertify repair
B. Vertify problem
C. Clean plastics
D. Try quick fixes
E. Run diagnostics
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Is your MAC connected to a network?
C. Can you open other Apple Work Files?
D. What version of Apple Works are you using?
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer’s Mac. Which one of the following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User’s manual
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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You want to create a hanging indent, where the first line is set farther to the left than the rest of the paragraph. Which two options should you adjust? (Choose two.)
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
You are importing a Microsoft Word document. The paragraph styles in the Word document have different names than the styles in the InDesign document. How should you convert the Word styles to the corresponding InDesign styles so that the proper formatting is applied?
A. After placing the Word document, select the styles in the Paragraph Styles panel, choose Redefine Style from the panel menu, then choose Load Paragraph styles from the panel menu.
B. After placing the Word document, choose Edit > Find/Change and replace each Word style with the corresponding InDesign style.
C. In the Place dialog box enable Show Import Options, and in the Import Options dialog box select Use InDesign Style Definition from the Paragraph Style Conflicts pop-up menu.
D. In the Place dialog box enable Show Import Options, and in the Import Options dialog box click Customize Style Import and Style Mapping.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You want text to be kept away from all sides of a frame by the same amount, as shown in the exhibit. How should you do this?
A. Select the frame, choose Object > Text Frame Options, then enter the same Inset Spacing value for Top, Bottom, Left, and Right.
B. Select the frame, choose Layout > Margins and Columns, then enter the same Margins value for Top, Bottom, Left, and Right.
C. Select the text, then in the Paragraph panel enter the same value for Left Indent, Right Indent, Space Before, and Space After.
D. Select the text, then in the Text Wrap panel select Wrap Around Bounding Box and enter the same value for Top Offset, Bottom Offset, Left Offset, and Right Offset.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You have placed a colored frame over part of an image and set the blending mode of this frame to Multiply. In this exhibit, how would you describe what you see?
A. The Ink Limit is on in the Separations panel and the red areas exceed maximum ink limits.
B. Overprint Preview is on in the View menu and the red areas warn of overprinting exceptions,
C. Proof Colors is on in the View menu and the red areas warn of colors that are out of gamut.
D. Rasterized Complex Regions is selected in the Highlight menu of the Flattener Preview panel.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Why would you want to use the Gradient panel instead of the Swatches panel when applying a gradient to a frame?
A. You want to apply the gradient to a single word in a text frame.
B. You want to use a radial gradient.
C. You want to control the midpoint of the gradient.
D. You want to control the angle of the gradient.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You want to set up tabular content as shown. Which option will let you align the fractions to the slash?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You have an InDesign document with several linked PDF and AI files that contain spot color inks. When you export a PDF, the PDF also contains those spot color inks. You would like to convert all the spot color inks to CMYK. Which feature in InDesign lets you do this?
A. Object > Image Color Settings
B. Link Options in the Links panel menu
C. Ink Manager in the Swatches panel menu
D. Swatch Options in the Swatches panel menu
E. Edit > Color Settings

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8
You are creating a PDF document that will be viewed on iOS and Android tablet devices. Which interactive feature is most likely to work correctly when viewed on these devices?
A. Multi-State Objects
B. Buttons
C. Hyperlinks
D. Video
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You want to wrap text around the irregular outline of this transparent Photoshop PSD image. In the Text Wrap panel, which option will wrap text around the shape most efficiently?
A. Set the Contour Options Type pop-up menu to Alpha Channel
B. Set the Wrap To pop-up menu to Image
C. Set the Contour Options Type pop-up menu to Graphics Frame
D. Enable the Include Inside Edges checkbox

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.

You have selected a placed Adobe Illustrator graphic because you want to edit the original file by starting Illustrator from InDesign. Which button should you click?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit tab to see the exhibit.
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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which question about capturing analog video in Adobe Premiere Pro is true?
A. A single capture card can only capture either analog or digital video.
B. Analog video must be converted to a digital signal before capturing it in Premiere Pro.
C. Premiere Pro removes timecode from analog video so it can be used by the application.
D. A stand-alone analog-to-video converter is necessary to batch capture analog video in Premiere Pro.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
You have been give a Premiere Pro project file and source tapes. When you open the project, you discover that the entry for Media Type for all clips is listed as Offline. What should you do?
A. Select the clips in the Project window and choose File > Batch Capture.
B. Select the clips in the Project window, and choose Project > Link Media.
C. Choose File > Capture and in the Capture window, click the Tape button.
D. Select the clips in the Project window, drag them to the Capture window, and click the Record button.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
You are using device control with a non-DV device. You want to control this device direclty from Adobe Premiere Pro. Which is required?
A. a high speed hard drive with fast data access times
B. a USB cable connecting the device to your computer
C. a source videotape that was not recorded with its own timecode
D. a software plug-in for Premiere Pro from manufacturere of the non-DV device

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
When is digital audio conformed to the project settings?
A. when the audio is imported
B. when the audio is edited in Premiere Pro
C. when the project is exported to its final format
D. when the project is completely previewed in Premiere Pro

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
You are working in a project that is 720 by 480 pixels. You import a still image that is 1024 pixels by 768 pixels. What happens to the still image in your project?
A. It imports at 1024 pixels by 786 pixels using the project’s pixel aspect ratio.
B. It imports at 1024 pixels by 786 pixels using the still image’s pixel aspect ratio.
C. It automatically resizes to 720 pixels by 480 pixels with the project’s pixel aspect ratio.
D. It automatically resizes to 720 pixels by 480 pixels with the still image’s pixel aspect ratio

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
For which type of project would it be acceptable to ignore or turn off the Title Safe function in the Title Designer?
A. a project that will be output for web streaming
B. a project that will be used for PAL broadcast TV
C. a project that will be used for NTSC broadcast TV
D. a project where color safe levels are not important

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You want text in a title to follow a circular path. What should you do?
A. Draw the path with the Path Type tool, then start typing to add the text
B. Draw the path with the Ellipse tool, then add the text using the Type tool.
C. Draw the path with the Ellipse tool, then add the text using the Path Type tool
D. Draw the path with the Path Type tool, then click on the path a second time with the Path Type tool, and then start typing to add the text

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which statement about a static title created in the Adobe Title Designer is true?
A. The title is saved with a .ppj file extension.
B. Logos added to a static title cannot be resized.
C. You must apply transparency to a title before bringing it into the timeline.
D. If you are creating a static title in content for the Web or for a CD, the safe title and safe action zones do not apply since you can see the entire video.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Where does a saved static title created in the Adobe Title Designer automatically appear?
A. at the current time in the Timeline
B. in the active bin in the Project window
C. at the end of the currently selected clip in the Timeline
D. in a separate file that needs to be imported to the current project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which setting determines the speed of a rolling or crawling title?
A. font size used in the title
B. number of complex graphics in the title
C. length of the title in the Timeline window
D. the X position and Y Position in the Adobe Title Designer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which roll/crawl option specifies the number of frames that will play before the title begins?
A. Pre-Roll
B. Post-Roll
C. Ease-In
D. Ease-Out

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
You are creating a title in the Title Designer. You can see some video behind your title in the Title Designer window. You want to match the display to the video frame at the edit line in the Timeline window. What should you do?
A. select the Show Video check box
B. choose Title > View > Safe Title Margin
C. click the Sync to Timeline Timecode button
D. click the Send Frame to External Monitor button

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which audio processing step occurs first when you import a project?
A. Premiere Pro applies effects to clips.
B. Premiere Pro processes track settings such as prefade effects, prefade sends, mute, etc.
C. Premiere Pro conforms its audio to the audio settings specified in the New Project dialog box.
D. Premiere Pro applies gain adjustments applied to clips by using the command Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
What is the default crossfade between two audio tracks when you choose Sequence > Add Audio Transition?
A. Invert
B. Highpass
C. Constant Gain
D. Constant Power

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
How do you increase the volume of a clip?
A. boost the gain on your audio card
B. re-conform the audio and re-place the clip in the timeline
C. select Meter Inputs Only from the Audio Mixer palette menu
D. select a clip and then choose Clip > Audio Options > Audio Gain

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which automation mode in the Audio Mixer window should you use if you want automation to start only when you begin to adjust a value, and the value to remain where it is when you stop adjusting it.
A. Read
B. Write
C. Latch

D. Touch Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Which task can be accomplished from the Audio Mixer window?
A. adding an audio effect
B. adding a clip from a bin
C. adding a cross-fade to two audio clips
D. adding a split edit between two audio clips

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which options in the Export Movies dialog box will allow you to open and edit the original project from within another Adobe Premiere Pro project or from another application that supports the command.?
A. File Type set to Targa and Embedding Options set to Project
B. File Type set to QuickTime and Embedding Options set to None
C. File Type set to Animated GIF and Embedding Options set to None
D. File Type set to Microsoft AVI and Embedding Options set to Project

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
You are working with a sequence that will be exported to a movie for streaming Web playback. Which three encoding formats should you choose? (Choose three)
A. MPEG2
B. MPEG1
C. RealMedia
D. QuickTime
E. Microsoft DV
F. Windows Media

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 20
Which set of options in the Transcode Settings dialog box of the Adobe Media Encoder will allow you to store information about the media?
A. Metadata
B. Audience
C. Multiplexer
D. Bitrate Encoding
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 43
How can a variable in Flash movie be dynamically set at the time the movie loads?
A. Use the #include directive
B. Append the variable in URL encoded form (myMovie.swf?foo=bar)
C. Can’t dynamically set at the time of load
D. Use the loadAtRun() function

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
What are correct statements concerning text fields?(Chose two.)
A. Font outlines for dynamic text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
B. Embedded font outlines are shared by text fields using the same font
C. Font outlines for static for static text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
D. Font outlines for input text fields are embedded in the SWF file by default
E. Individual font outlines are embedded into the SWF file for each text field in the FLA file.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 45
What assigns the my_mc MovieClip’s height to the value of 100 if the variable myProperty=”_height”;?
A. my_mc.”myProperty” = 100;
B. my_mc[“myProperty”] = 100;
C. my_mc[myProperty] = 100;
D. my_mc.myProperty = 100;

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
What statement creates a local variable that is destroyed after the function has completed execution?
A. set myValue=5;
B. var myValue=5;
C. dim myValue=5;
D. local myValue=5;

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
What property of myMC is referenced to rotate a MovieClip instance named myMC using ActionScript?
A. myMC.offset
B. myMC._degrees
C. myMC._rotation
D. myMC.rotate
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct?(Choose two.)
A. The Hit State of a Button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
B. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the Main Timeline or parent MovieClip Symbol instance
C. Graphic symbol instances may be directly controlled using ActionScript
D. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main Timeline
E. If a fill Color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that graphic symbol are changed
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 49
What is true when using the duplicateMovieClip() Method?
A. Duplicated movie clip can have a different parent than the source movie clip
B. _visible property of a movie clip is set to true upon duplication
C. Tow movie clips can exists at the same depth and have the same parent provided they have unique instance names
D. Movie clip that is at a depth of 4 will appear to be in front (or on top of) a moview clip that has a depth of 7

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50
What video format is NOT supported?
A. .MOV
B. .MPEG
C. .DivX
D. .AVI

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct?(Choose two.)
A. The Hit State of a Button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
B. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main Timeline
C. Graphic symbol instances may be directly controlled using ActionScript
D. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the Main Timeline or parent MovieClip Symbol instance
E. If a fill Color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that graphic symbol are changed

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 52
A Button instance is named circle_btn. ActionScript is placed on the main Timeline so that when the button is clicked a movie clip instance named rec_mc’s width is changed to 100. What is the code to perform this action?
A. circle_btn.onRelease=function() { this.width=100;}
B. circle_btn.onRelease=function() { rec_mc.width=100;}
C. circle_btn.onRelease { rec_mc._width=100;}
D. circle_btn.onRelease=function { rec_mc.width=100;}

Correct Answer: QUESTION 53
Which methods returns an unused depth value within a MovieClip Object?
A. getNewDepth
B. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the main Timeline or parent MovieClip symbol instance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What native object allows two separate flash movies to communicate with each other?
A. LocalObject
B. SharedConnection
C. LocalConnection

D. SharedObject Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
What methods are used to pass variables out of flash to a server side solution? (Choose three.)
A. LoadVars
B. GotoAndStop
C. #include
D. getURL
E. LoadMovie

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 56
Which statements concerning symbol instance statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Graphic symbol instances my be directly controlled using ActionScript
B. A MovieClip symbol instance may have a different frame rate than the main timeline
C. The Hit state of a button symbol instance is invisible at runtime
D. If a fill color in a Graphic symbol is changed, all instances of that Graphic symbol are changed
E. The X/Y placement of a symbol instance is calculated from the lower left hand corner of the main Timeline or parent MovieClip symbol instance.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 57
What is the advantage of the progressive video download?
A. Delivery of media is more secure than streaming video, because media does not get saved to the client’s cache when streamed
B. The frame rate of the video file can be different from the frame rate of the SWF file
C. To play the progressively downloaded video, the entire movie must be downloaded before the video will start to play
D. It uses less of the client’s memory and disk space than the streaming video download

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
What class is used to access the video of a web-cam?
A. InputOutput Class
B. Camera Class
C. Display Class
D. Video Class
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 42
You have retrieved this XML file using an HTTPService object with an id of myData:
<?xml version=1.0?> <employees> <dept name=Marketing><employee>Joe</employee><employee>Mary</employee> </dept> <dept name=Shipping><employee>Alice</employee><employee>Harry</employee> </dept></employees>
The resultFormat property of the HTTPService object is set to e4x. You want to extract all <employee> elements into an XMLList object regardless of which <dept> element is their parent.
Which two E4X expressions will return the desired data? (Choose two)
A. ..employee
B. myData..employee
C. myData.dept.employee
D. myData.employees..employee
E. myData.employees.dept.employee

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 43
Which line of code correctly binds the text property of a label to the selectedValue of a RadioButtonGroup with an id of cardType?
A. <mx:Label text=cardType.selectedValue />
B. <mx:Label text=[cardType.selectedValue] />
C. <mx:Label text={cardType.selectedValue} />
D. <mx:Label text={cardType.selectedValue} /> Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which two statements about using custom components are true? (Choose two.)
A. Custom components do NOT need to be in a separate file.
B. Custom components can be written in either MXML or ActionScript.
C. Custom components do NOT need to define the mx namespace if it has been defined in the main application.
D. There must be a file with an <mx:Application> tag that loads the individual components.
E. Custom components do NOT require that namespaces be redefined if they are already defined in the main application.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 45
What is created when you write the following statement? var myBirthday:Date = new Date();
A. a class called myBirthday
B. an Object class called myBirthday
C. an instance of the Date class called myBirthday
D. an instance of theObject class called myBirthday

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which IViewCursor interface method moves the cursor to a bookmark?
A. seek()
B. insert()
C. findLast()
D. moveNext()

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
You are sorting or filtering a collection view Which method should you use to update any control or container bound to the data?
A. sort()
B. refresh()
C. initialized()
D. itemUpdated()
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Your want to add your companys stock information to your Web site.
Which two types of charts are best suited to display this financial information? (Choose two.)
A. Pie
B. Plot
C. Area
D. HLOC
E. Bubble
F. Candlestick

Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 49
Which keyword declares a property that is only available to references inside the same class?
A. class
B. public
C. internal
D. private

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50
Which line of code correctly creates a String property named firstName in ActionScript 3.0?
A. String firstName;
B. private String firstName;
C. var firstName:String private;
D. private var firstName:String;

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
Which line of code represents a valid constructor for the class Vehicle?
A. public function init(){ }
B. public function Vehicle(){ }
C. private function Vehicle(){ }
D. public function VehicleConstructor(){ }

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two Flex UI controls are displayed (choose two)?
A. Grid
B. Label
C. TextLabel
D. DataGrid
E. LabelField
F. DataHolder

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 53
You want to display a CheckBox control on every row of a DataGrid and have it both reflect and change the value of a Boolean property of each data item named isSelected.
Which is the correct syntax for the DataGridColumn in which the CheckBox should appear?
A. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=isSelected itemRenderer=mx.controls.CheckBox editorDataField=value />
B. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=isSelected itemEditor=mx.controls.CheckBox editorDataField=value/>
C. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=isSelected itemEditor=mx.controls.CheckBox editorDataField=selected/>
D. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=isSelected itemRenderer=mx.controls.CheckBox editorDataField=selected rendererAsEditor=true/>

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 54
Which two containers provide navigation for a ViewStack container? (Choose two.)
A. Panel
B. TabBar
C. LinkBar
D. Accordion
E. TabNavigator

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 55
What is the maximum width of the Button control?
A. 300 pixels
B. The width of the button is unlimited
C. Twice the width of the label of the button
D. The same width as the container of the button
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Which style declaration has the lowest precedence?
A. Inline style
B. Type selector
C. Class selector
D. Global selector
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which line of code correctly adds a column to a DataGrid component?
A. <mx:DataColumn dataField=name headerText=Name />
B. <mx:DataColumn dataField=name headerText=Name />
C. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=name headerText=Name />
D. <mx:DataGridColumn dataField=name headerText=Name />
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which CSS selector will affect the styles for all components in the application?
A. type
B. global
C. class
D. source

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59
Which code will create the same transition to and from every state in the application?
A. <mx:Transition fromState=”” toState=””>
B. <mx:Transition fromState=” ” toState=” “>
C. <mx:Transition fromState=”*” toState=”*”>
D. <mx:Transition fromState=”” toState=””>

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
Which container controls layout and positioning?
A. VBox
B. Accordion
C. ViewStack
D. TabNavigator

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
You want an effect to play for two seconds. Which effect declaration setting should you use?
A. duration=2
B. duration=20
C. duration=200
D. duration=2000

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
Which two Flex UI controls can be used to display multi-line wrapped text?
A. Text
B. Label
C. Legend
D. TextInput
E. TextArea

Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 63
You have created an ArrayCollection, a DataGrid, and a List. The dataProvider properties of both the
DataGrid and the List are set to the same bindable ArrayCollection.
At runtime, the user clicks on a column header of one of the columns of the DataGrid to sort the data.
What happens to the appearance of the List control?

A. The List changes height to match the DataGrid
B. Nothing happens to the appearance of the List control
C. The List scrolls to display the currently selected row of the DataGrid
D. The List sort order changes to show the same sort order as the DataGrid

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
Which is NOT an acceptable MXML style attribute for use in the <mx:Label> MXML tag?
A. fontSize
B. font-family
C. fontFamily
D. fontWeight

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Your application has a ViewStack with three nested containers. The id property of the ViewStack is set to myViewStack. Which two statements will make the last container visible? (Choose two)
A. myViewStack.selectedIndex=1;
B. myViewStack.selectedIndex=2;
C. myViewStack.selectedIndex=3;
D. myViewStack.selectedIndex=myViewStack.numChildren;
E. myViewStack.selectedIndex=myViewStack.numChildren-1;

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 66
Which two containers support constraint-based layout properties to position objects relative to the anchors of the container (Choose two)
A. HBox
B. Canvas
C. Panel with layout=absolute
D. Panel with layout=horizontal
E. Application with layout=vertical
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 67
Which MXML tag is used to create composite effects?
A. Move
B. Zoom
C. Sequence
D. AnimateProperty
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IP-based storage devices, hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes.
B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot.
C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path.
D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0.
E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 11
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?
A. on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C. on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D. on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?
A. Amber
B. Red
C. Blinking amber
D. Blinking red

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24

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