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Cisco 640-916 Exam, Most Important Cisco 640-916 Dump Test Online Store

July 21, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 1
Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.)
A. complexity
B. scalability
C. ease of management
D. resilience
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.)
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. services layer
E. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath?
A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface.
C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN.
D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI.
E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures.
F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces.
Correct Answer: F QUESTION 6

Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.)
A. control plane-based MAC learning
B. dynamic encapsulation
C. MAC address learning based on flooding
D. pseudo wires and tunnels
E. complex dual-homing
F. native automated multihoming
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 7
Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts?
A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch
B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches
C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch
D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.)
A. few devices to manage
B. deterministic latency
C. lower oversubscription
D. fewer ISLs
E. easy to analyze and tune performance
F. cost-effective for large SANs

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7010
B. Cisco Nexus 5020
C. Cisco Nexus 5548
D. Cisco Nexus 2248
E. Cisco Nexus 2232
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1?
A. ping -m 10.10.1.1
B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m
C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management
D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre
Channel Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. Zone port distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13
Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS
D. SCSI
E. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.)
A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
C. zone port distribution
D. reduced cabling
E. SNMPv3 strong authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 15
Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 18
Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX?
A. HIF (host interface)
B. LIF (logical interface)
C. connected Ethernet
D. SIF (satellite interface)
E. VIF (virtual interface)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 19
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 22
Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.)
A. 2148T
B. 2224T
C. 2248T
D. 2248TP
E. 2232PP
F. 2232TM
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 23
What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
F. 180 days

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric?
A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb)
B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz)
C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax)
D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau)
E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. Fibre Channel fencing
B. LUN masking
C. zoning
D. access control list
E. port security

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 27
Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key?
A. MDS-A# show license version
B. MDS-A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS-A# show license serial-number
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show license host-id

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub?
A. H_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. NL_Port
E. NP_Port
F. FL-Port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 30
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS

F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

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Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-019 Dumps PDF, Most Popular Adobe 9A0-019 Certification Braindumps With The Knowledge And Skills

July 20, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 56
You want to save custom color setting in the Settings menu of the Color Setting dialog box.
Where should you save the color setting file?
A. the Color folder
B. the Required folder
C. the Setting folder
D. the Preferences folder

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 57
How do you apply a pattern a selection?
A. choose the pattern from the Color picker
B. choose the pattern from the Style palette
C. choose the pattern fro the Switches palette
D. choose Edit>Fill: select Pattern from the Use pull-down menu

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
How should you adjust the kerning between two characters?
A. highlight the characters and press the Right arrow key
B. click between the character and press the Right arrow key
C. highlight the characters and use the kerning control in the option bar
D. click between the character and use the kerning control in the Character palette

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
You select Color Management Off in the Settings pull-down menu of the Color Setting dialog box. What happens when you drag and drop a selection between images?
A. Color data is converted to the current working space.
B. Color data is aged with a profile to match the current working space.
C. The numeric values of the colors take precedence over the appearance.
D. Color appearance takes precedence over the numeric values of the colors.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
What should you use to make a pattern?
A. an elliptical selection
B. a rectangular selection
C. an object created with the pen tool
D. an object created with the custom shape tool

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Exhibit: Which statement could be made about the image represented by the histogram?

A. The image is low-key.
B. The image is high-key.
C. The image is average-key
D. The image has insufficient detail.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Which does the Allow Non-linear History option in History palette allow you to do?
A. clear states
B. rearrange states
C. undo the deletion of states
D. make changes to a selected state WITHOUT deleting the state that come later

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
You want to create a gradient that includes transparent areas. What should you do?
A. reduce the value for Smoothness
B. select Noise from the Gradient Type pull-down menu
C. click on a Color Stop in the Gradient Editor dialog box, and reduce the value for Opacity.
D. Click on an Opacity Stop in the Gradient Editor dialog box, and reduce the value for Opacity.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
What is the purpose of model control within an action?
A. It stops an action.
B. It accelerates the playback of an action.
C. It allows playback of the action by clicking on a button.
D. It pauses an action so that a user can specify values in a dialog box.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
You apply the Cloning Stamp to an image 27 times. You want to restore a option of the image the its original state by using the history brush too. What should you do?
A. Click on the name of the first snapshot and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
B. Click to set the source of the name of the first snapshot and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
C. Click on the name of the first history state called Clone Stamp in the History palette and paint over the area with the history brush tool.
D. Click to set the source of the first history state called Clone Stamp in the History palette and paint over the area with the history brush tool.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
Which adjustment allows you to use a gamma value to set midtones?
A. Levels
B. Curves
C. Color Balance
D. Hue/Saturation

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 67
To add a set of actions to an existing Actions palette chose _____ from the Actions palette menu.
A. New Action
B. Load Actions
C. Clear Actions
D. Reset Actions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
How do you turn off Thumbnails in the Layers palette?
A. select Layer Properties from the Layers palette menu.
B. choose Edit>Preferences>General, and deselect Thumbnails
C. click the Show/hide button next to each layer in the Layer palette
D. select Palette Options from the Layers Palette menu, and choose None for Thumbnail Size

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 69
What is an advantage of making a Curves adjustment by using an adjustment layer?
A. It will permanently alter pixels in the image.
B. The resolution of the layer can be adjusted.
C. The file size of the image will remain unchanged.
D. The changes will reside only in the adjustment layer.

Correct Answer: D

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Certification, Valid and updated 3Com 3M0-331 Exam Is Your Best Choice

July 20, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 93
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 95
Which two are security features supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Access Control Lists (ACL)
B. De-militarized Zone (DMZ) Firewall
C. IPSec with MD5, SHA1, 3DES and AES
D. Session Security Synchronization (SSS)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Which three Quality of Service (QoS) features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. Last in First Out (LIFO)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
E. Weighted random early detect (WRED)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What are two features of the Backup Center function on the Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a console port to be configured as a failover backup
B. Allows any WAN interface to be configured as a failover backup
C. Can provide additional bandwidth via load sharing on the primary link interface
D. Can automatically reconfigure an unused-physical interface to dynamically backup a link
E. Allows two Router 5000 units in the same physical location to provide backup in case one router fails

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 99
Which two commands are required to output RIP debugging information to the 3COM router (software version 2.x) console? (Choose two.)
A. [Router] Rip debug start
B. <Router>terminal debugging
C. <Router> debugging rip packet
D. <Router-console> debug enable
E. <Router> enable debugging channel 1

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 100
Which four protocols are supported by the Router 3000 family? (Choose four.)
A. IP
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
D. Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
F. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 101
With software version 2.x, which command enables multicast routing for the entire router?
A. <RTA> igmp version 1
B. <RTA> PIM DM enable
C. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] PIM DM
D. [RTA] multicast routing-enable
E. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] igmp version 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which three are IP Multicasting advantages? (Choose three.)
A. Provides network congestion control for timely delivery of data
B. Optimizes performance and eliminates redundant network traffic
C. Uses TCP connection-oriented transmissions for reliable packet delivery
D. Makes efficient use of network bandwidth as the number of participants expands
E. Enables simultaneous delivery of information to many receivers without producing multiple copies of the same data

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 103
Which protocol, supported on the 3Com Router 5000/6000 series, should be used when the router has to send heavy amounts of traffic to different multicast groups?
A. MOSPF
B. IP Unicast
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 105
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 106
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Certificate, Help To Pass 3Com 3M0-331 Test Software Guaranteed Success

July 20, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE

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CCNP Voice, Cisco

Cisco 642-427 Cert, First-hand Cisco 642-427 Study Material For Download

July 19, 2016 No Comments

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information.

QUESTION 1
Where does an IP phone obtain the extension number and speed-dial settings from?
A. the settings that are configured on the physical phone
B. the registration file that the phone receives from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. the device and line configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, during the registration process
D. the default device profile that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications, Manager

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which web-based application that is accessed via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration GUI generates reports for troubleshooting or inspecting cluster data?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability alarms
B. Cisco Unified RTMT Trace and Log Central
C. Cisco Unified RTMT Monitor
D. Cisco Unified Reporting tool

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which statement about device mobility is true?
A. When local route groups are used, there is no need to configure device mobility groups or phone device CSSs as long as phone line CSSs are used.
B. When local route groups are used, you must configure device mobility groups and phone device CSSs.
C. When the device mobility group at the home device pool and roaming device pool are not the same, the Phone will keep the home region.
D. When device mobility groups at the home device pool and roaming device pool are the same, the phone will keep the home MRGL setting. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Refer to the SDI trace in the exhibit A PSTN call arrived at the MGCP gateway that is shown in the SDI trace. If the caller ID that is displayed on the IP phone is 087071 222 and the HQ_clng pty_CSS contains the HQ_cing_pty_Pt partition, which exhibit shows the correct gateway digit manipulation”?

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A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
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When a Cisco IP Communicator phone roams from San Jose (SJ) to RTP, the Cisco IP Communicator physical location and the device mobility group change from SJ to RTP All route patterns are assigned a route list that points to the local route group All device pools are configured to use the local route group Which statement is true when the roaming phone places an AAR call?
A. Since globalized call routing is not configured, then the SJ gateway will be used in this case
B. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ gateway
C. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the SJ gateway
D. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the SJ_PSTN partition. The call will egress at the RTP gateway.
E. The phone will use the AAR CSS that contains the RTP_PSTN partition The call will egress at the RTP gateway

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibits.

Low latency queuing has been implemented on the HO and BR1 routers to allow five G.729 calls. Callers are still experiencing poor audio, in particular choppy and
delayed audio during traffic congestion. This problem occurs even with just one active call.
Which two actions will solve the issue?

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A. Change the codec type to G 711. J
B. Configure RSVP call admission control
C. Configure L ink Fragmentation and Interleave on the WAN links
D. Configure RTP header compression on the WAN links
E. Increase the priority queue bandwidth to 80 Kb/s
F. Configure location settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager to 1 20 Kb/s
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

When calling 911, which gateway/route list is defined in the route pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and used to route matched digits to the PSTN?
A. SEP002290BA361B
B. standardLocalRG
C. RouteListCdrc
D. LRG_RL
E. nodeld = 1
F. BRANCH
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Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager troubleshooting tool can be used to look at detailed specific events, such as dial plan digit analysis, as they die happening?
A. traceroutes
B. RTMT real-time trace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
D. Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
E. RTMT performance log viewer
F. syslog output
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibits.

MOH has been configured to run from flash at the BR1 site. The HQ phones and MOH server are placed in the Default region through the Default device pool. The
BR1 phones are placed in the BR1 region through the BR1
device pool. The region configuration between Default and BR1 only permits 729 codec.
When an IP phone user at the HQ site places a BR1 caller on hold, the BR1 caller hears tone on hold.
Which of the following can cause this issue?

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A. Multicast routing is not enabled on the BR1 router.
B. The command ip pim separate-dense-mode is missing from interface VLAN 120 at the SRST router in BR1.
C. The MOH server is unable to stream MOH using G.711 codec because of the regions configuration.
D. The command route 10.1.120.1 must be added to the multicast moh 239.1.1.1 port 16384 command at the SRST router in BR1.
E. The Max Hops is too small in the MOH configuration
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Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which step in the problem-solving model is important to accurately interview end users to get all the pertinent details of the problem?
A. Implement Action Plan
B. Define the Problem
C. Consider the Possibilities
D. Create Action Plan
E. Gather Facts
F. Observe Results
G. Restart Problem-Solving Process
H. Problem Resolved
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the output of debug isdn q931. An inbound PSTN call was received by a SIP gateway that is reachable via a SIP trunk that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The call failed to ring extension 3001. If the phone at extension 3001 is registered and reachable through the gateway inbound CSS, which three actions can resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Change the significant digits for inbound calls to 4 on the SIP trunk configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. Configure the digit strip 4 on the SIP trunk under Incoming Called Party Settings in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Configure a translation pattern in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that can be accessed by the trunk CSS to truncate the called number to four digits.
D. Configure a called-party transformation CSS on the gateway in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that includes a pattern that transforms the number from ten digits to four digits.
E. Configure a voice translation profile in the SIP Cisco IOS gateway with a voice translation rule that truncates the number from ten digits to four digits.
F. Configure the Cisco IOS command num-exp 2288223001 3001 on the gateway ISDN interface.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Which of these is used by the Cisco IP phone to relay to the switch the information regarding how much power is needed?
A. the Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. IEEE 802.10 protocol
C. Cisco IP phones always use a fixed power consumption hased on the resistor, which is specific to the model
D. The switch model determines how much power is consumed by the different phone models
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
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Assume a centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager topology with the headquarters at RTP and remote located at the U.K.
All route patterns are assigned a route list that contains a route group pointing to the local gateway. RTP route patterns use the RTP
gateway, and U.K. route patterns use the K. gateway.
When a U.K. user logs into an RTP phone using the Cisco Extension Mobility feature and places an emergency call to 0000, which statement about the
emergency call is true?

A. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
B. The call will match the U.K_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K. gateway.
C. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the RTP gateway.
D. The call will match the RTP_Emergency route pattern partition and will egress at the U.K. gateway.
E. The call will fail.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-13 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibits.

The HG_MRG that is shown in the exhibit is assigned to an MRGL, which is configured at the HQ phones.
A call exists between two HQ phones that use G.711 codec. When one of the HQ users attempts to conference a BR phone across the WAN, the conference fails.
The SDI trace shows an error “No transcoder device configured.”
Which statement indicates the correct resolution or reason for the issue?

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D:\job\TestKing\Cisco\642-427\HYPERLINK
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A. The BR phone does not have access to the HO_Conf bridge
B. The BR phone does not have access to the CFB_2 bridge
C. The BR phone does not have access to a transcoder
D. The CFB_2 bridge should be removed from the HQ_MRG and assigned to an MRG that is not assigned to an MRGL
E. The CFB_2 bridge should be listed last in the HO_MRG
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibits.

When a remote Cisco Unified Communications Manager learns the advertised patterns that are shown in the exhibit, which patterns would be shown in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool?
A. 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:+498950555
B. 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0+498953121
C. +4989505552XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:
D. +498953121 2XXX and the ToDiD will be 0:
E. Both +4989505552XXX and +4989531 21 2XXX will be advertised with ToDID of 0:
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibits.
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When the IP phone 2001 places a call to 9011 49403021 56001, the call is sent to the Cisco Unified Border Element as 40302156001 which is what the ITSP expects to receive. The ITSP support personnel claim that they never saw the call. Issuing the debug CCSIP message command on the Cisco Unified Border Element results in the message “SIP/2 0 404 Not Found”.
Refer to the Cisco Unified Border Element configuration, debug voice dial and ccsip messages exhibits. Which situation can cause this issued?
A. The Cisco Unified Bolder Element is configured as an MGCP gateway also so that the call is attempted via the PSTN
B. The command allow-connections sip to h323 is missing
C. SIP error 404 means that a codec mismatch occurred Cisco Unified Communications Manager is sending the call as an early offer with G.711 codec.
D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager is rnisconfigured. The SIP invite should be sent to the ITSP at 10.1.2.1.2. The debug ccsip message shows the SIP invite being sent to 10.12.1.2.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 86
You are configuring an LDAP connection on a Mac OS X computer, you created a custom mapping between Open Directory and LDAP attributes. Where does Mac OS X v10.5 store the custom mapping that the LDAP plug-in uses?
A. /Library/Preferences/com.apple.directoryservices.plist
B. /Library/Preferences/SystemConfiguration/preferences.plist
C. /Library/Preferences/DirectoryServices/DSLDAPv3PlugInConfig.plist
D. /Library/Application Support/Directory Access/LDAPv3/Templates/mappings.plist

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
How to create an Open Directory replica on a server named “mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company”?
A. You should use the command dscl localhost -createreplica /LDAPv3/mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company
B. You should use the command dscl localhost -startreplicator /LDAPv3/mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company
C. You should use the command slapconfig -createreplica mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company diradmin ‘Directory Administrator’ 1000
D. You should use the command slapconfig -startreplicator mainserver.Real-Exams.net Company diradmin ‘Directory Administrator’ 1000

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
You can use____ to map an Open Directory record to an LDAP record?
A. Directory Utility

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Please point out which keys are stored in a Kerberos service principal?
A. The public keys used to encrypt the TGT
B. The public keys used to initiate an SSL connection
C. The secret keys use to authenticate the user with the KDC
D. The secret keys used to authenticate a server with the KDC

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
You have started up a Mac OS X v10.5 computer in single-user mode. In this mode, How to edit a user in the /Local/Default directory domain?
A. You should use the command-line tool vi
B. You should use the command-line tool ls
C. You should use the command-line tool plutil
D. You should use the command-line tool slapadd

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
You are reviewing the Directory Service log file on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer, you see error number -14002 listed. How to discover the meaning of this error number?
A. You should enter the command dserr -14002 in Terminal
B. You should enter the command dscl -e 14002 in Terminal
C. You should enter the command cat /var/db/err | grep 14002 in Terminal
D. You should enter the command DirectoryService -error 14002 in Terminal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
Mike logs into a Mac OS X v10.5 computer using a non-administrator network user account hosted on a Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer. The user account is configured to use an Open Directory password. When Mike tries to connect to an AFP server that is configured to use only Kerberos authentication, an “Authenticate to Kerberos” dialog appears, requesting a name, realm, and password. Mike enters a valid user account name, realm, and password, and clicks OK. The same dialog reappears. How should a local system administrator resolve this issue?
A. Delete the System keychain on the Mac OS X client computer.
B. Use Directory Access on the Mac OS X client computer to enable the Kerberosv5 plug-in.
C. Run kdestroy on the Mac OS X client computer to destroy any existing tickets in the client computer’s cache.
D. Use Date & Time Preferences on the Mac OS X client computer to set the client’s date, time, and time zone to match the KDC.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
In Mac OS X v10.5, dscl makes requests through DirectoryService.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 94
In Mac OS X v10.5, dscl can edit BSD flat files.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
In Mac OS X v10.5, dscl shows native data types.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
In Mac OS X v10.5, dscl edits the local directory data store without starting another process.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
You are configuring a Mac OS X v10.5 computer to use an LDAP server for login window authentication. Which Open Directory user attribute must you map to an LDAP user attribute?
A. You must map GID to an LDAP user attribute
B. You must map MCXFlags to an LDAP user attribute
C. You must map RecordName to an LDAP user attribute
D. You must map AuthenticationAuthority to an LDAP user attribute

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
Which log file can you use to troubleshoot directory service promotion issues?
A. slapd.log
B. slurpd.log
C. slapconfig.log
D. ldapaccess.log

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which process provides directory services in Mac OS X v10.5?
A. slapd
B. lookupd
C. OpenDirectory
D. DirectoryService

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
What happens when you make changes to the LDAP and Password Server databases on a Mac OS X v10.5 Open Directory replica using Workgroup Manager?
A. Changes to the LDAP and Password Server databases on the replica are redirected to the Open Directory master.
B. Changes to the LDAP and Password Server databases on the replica are stored on the replica’s LDAP database and are forwarded on to the master.
C. Changes to the LDAP database on the replica are stored in the local LDAP database and are forwarded on to the master; password changes are simply redirected to the master.
D. Changes to the LDAP database on the replica are redirected to the Open Directory master; password changes are stored in the local Password Server database and are forwarded on to the master.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
A Mac OS X v10.5 client computer is bound to an Active Directory server providing user records and an Open Directory server providing user augment records. Which statement is true about this configuration?
A. The augment records can provide additional attributes to the user records provided by the Active Directory server.
B. The augment records can provide additional record types to the user records provided by the Active Directory server.
C. Attributes in the augment records on the Open Directory server will override conflicting attributes in the user records on the Active Directory server.
D. When an augment record has the same name as an Active Directory user record, Mac OS X uses the augment record in place of the Active Directory record.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
On a Mac OS X v10.5 computer, which file is consulted by the BSD plugin for user authentication?
A. /etc/groups
B. /etc/master.passwd
C. /var/db/dslocal/nodes/BSD/Users/root.plist
D. /var/db/dslocal/nodes/Default/Users/root.plist

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 103
Please point out which keys are stored in a Kerberos service principal?
A. The public keys used to encrypt the TGT
B. The public keys used to initiate an SSL connection
C. The secret keys use to authenticate the user with the KDC
D. The secret keys used to authenticate a server with the KDC

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 104
You are reviewing the Directory Service log file on your Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer, you see error number -14002 listed. How to discover the meaning of this error number?
A. You should enter the command dserr -14002 in Terminal
B. You should enter the command dscl -e 14002 in Terminal
C. You should enter the command cat /var/db/err | grep 14002 in Terminal
D. You should enter the command DirectoryService -error 14002 in Terminal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 105
In Mac OS X v10.5, dscl shows native data types.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 60
Array-based virtualization allows ________.
A. data to be saved redundantly to multiple drives
B. hosts to access storage devices located in distant sites
C. multiple physical drives to be represented as a single LUN
D. each disk drive in an array to be mirrored by a backup drive
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 61
In which of these files is the metadata controller priority setting stored?
A. acfs.plist
B. role.plist
C. mdc.plist
D. priority.plist

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62
You want to use access control lists (ACLs) on your Xsan volumes. What minimum version of Xsan must be running on the SAN controller for you to do so?
A. version 1.1
B. version 1.2
C. version 1.3
D. version 1.4

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
You are configuring an Apple Fibre Channel PCI-X card. What topology setting does Apple recommend?
A. Automatic
B. Point-to-Point
C. Arbitrated Loop
D. Switched Fabric

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
What should an Xsan volume’s configuration status be, when you enable access control lists (ACLs) on that volume?
A. The Xsan volume configuration should not have been saved yet.
B. Affinities should have been defined for the Xsan volume, and the volume should be started.
C. All clients and controllers in your Xsan environment should have the Xsan volume mounted, and the volume should be started.
D. No clients and controllers in your Xsan environment should have the Xsan volume mounted, and the volume should be stopped.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
World Wide Node Names (WWNNs) and World Wide Port Names (WWPNs) are assigned to devices by ________.
A. Xsan Admin, during configuration
B. RAID Admin, during configuration
C. the factory, during manufacturing
D. the Fibre Channel switch, during initialization

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
You have created a storage pool with three LUNs, each on a separate Xserve RAID controller. Assume that each RAID controller has a bandwidth of 200 MB/s. What is the theoretical bandwidth of this storage
pool?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 66 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 600 MB/s
E. 900 MB/s

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
When a client accesses files on an Xsan volume, which THREE types of information are transferred across the metadata controller’s private Ethernet network?
A. file icons
B. file names
C. file contents
D. file permissions
E. file creation dates
F. Spotlight comments

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 68
Which parameter defines the number of file allocation blocks that a client writes to a LUN before moving on to the next LUN within a storage pool?
A. stripe breadth
B. number of LUNs
C. block allocation size
D. RAID level configuration

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 69
A metadata controller in your Xsan environment has 4 gigabytes of RAM installed. What is the maximum
number of Xsan volumes that Apple recommends you host on this controller to ensure good performance?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

E. 8 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
What component(s) MUST be present for a SAN to be considered a Fibre Channel fabric?
A. at least one Fibre Channel hub
B. at least one Fibre Channel switch
C. at least two Fibre Channel host bus adapters
D. at least two initiator nodes and one target node, connected via the FC-AL protocol

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
When setting up user quotas in Xsan, you should ensure that each user account ________.
A. is a member of the xsanadmin group
B. resides on an Open Directory LDAP server
C. has disk quotas enabled in Workgroup Manager
D. has either a unique UID (User ID) or a unique GUID (Generated Unique ID)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
In a switched fabric, Fibre Channel IDs are resolved to World Wide Names (WWNs) by ________.
A. the SFP
B. the switch
C. the N_Ports
D. the metadata controller

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
You have created a storage pool with two LUNs that share the same RAID controller. Assume that the
RAID controller has a bandwidth of 200 MB/s. What is the theoretical bandwidth of the storage pool?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 25 MB/s
B. 50 MB/s
C. 100 MB/s
D. 200 MB/s
E. 400 MB/s

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 74
Which TWO types of SAN client can recognize and use access control lists (ACLs) on an Xsan volume?
A. Xsan 1.2
B. Xsan 1.3
C. Xsan 1.4
D. compatible versions of Unix
E. compatible versions of Windows StorNext Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
What is the largest Xsan volume you can create on Mac OS X v10.4.x clients that are running Xsan 1.3 or later?
A. 16 terabytes
B. 64 terabytes
C. 128 terabytes
D. 2 petabytes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76
How is file system metadata transported between clients and the metadata controller?
A. over an iSCSI bus
B. over an 802.1x network
C. over an Ethernet network
D. over a Fibre Channel network

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
You want to host three SAN volumes on an Xsan controller. What is the minimum amount of RAM that
Apple recommends you install in the controller?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 512 megabytes
B. 1.5 gigabyte
C. 2 gigabytes
D. 3 gigabytes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 78
Which file contains the IP addresses of all metadata controllers?
A. fsmlist
B. fsname
C. fsmservers
D. fsnameservers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 79
You have created a storage pool with three LUNs, each on a separate Xserve RAID controller. Assume that each RAID controller has a bandwidth of 200 MB/s. What is the theoretical bandwidth of this storage pool?
Click the Calculator button below to display a calculator for use with this question.
The C button on the Calculator clears all previous entries.
The CE button clears the last entry only.

A. 66 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 600 MB/s
E. 900 MB/s

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
When setting up user quotas in Xsan, you should ensure that each user account ________.
A. is a member of the xsanadmin group
B. resides on an Open Directory LDAP server
C. has disk quotas enabled in Workgroup Manager
D. has either a unique UID (User ID) or a unique GUID (Generated Unique ID)
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two benefits are achieved through database sharding within the Cisco APIC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. active-standby high availability
B. scalability
C. compression
D. reliability
E. load balancing

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
Which overlay protocol does Cisco AVS for vSphere use to allow the ACI fabric to extend over an existing network infrastructure?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. NVGRE
D. VXLAN
E. OTV

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which three main problems was a host overlay system designed to address? (Choose three.)
A. workload mobility
B. simplified and automated workload provisioning
C. multitenancy at scale
D. integrate physical and virtual networking
E. increase visibility to traffic flows
F. better root cause analysis capabilities
G. consolidate IT infrastructure teams
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4
Which two benefits of ACI help improve the time required to deploy an application? (Choose two.)
A. enabling software developers to create development environments similar to production
B. eliminating the need for expensive Layer 4 to Layer 7 service appliances
C. eliminating IP addressing from software stacks
D. evolving the IT model from manual workflows to an application model that automates deployment, operations, and visibility
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
Which two ACI features assist with application service-level assurance? (Choose two.)
A. tenant health scores
B. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service integration
C. Cisco APIC database sharding
D. fabric health scores
E. QoS

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which ACI construct provides the policy-based definition that comprises the communication, performance, and security needs of an application?
A. service profile
B. endpoint group
C. application service profile
D. application network profile

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The use of the Cisco Bi-Di 40G transceiver provides cost effective transition to a 40G ACI fabric through transmission over which cabling plant?
A. Category 6a copper
B. single pair of OM3/OM4 MM fiber
C. single pair of SM fiber
D. Twinax copper

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which method does ACI fabric dynamic load balancing use to provide optimal balancing of flows across the fabric?
A. Flows are dynamically allocated according to congestion at the leaf.
B. Flows are dynamically allocated according to hop-by-hop congestion in the fabric.
C. Flows are dynamically allocated according to link BER.
D. Flows are distributed in per packet round-robin.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which four benefits are provided by ACI services to achieve business and technical objectives? (Choose four.)
A. Identify and address technical and operational readiness to effectively deploy this architecture to support your target use cases.
B. Simplify operations through integration at the infrastructure, systems, and management levels.
C. Protect capital and operational investments while gaining a simple transition path from existing environments to architecture based on Cisco ACI.
D. Allow centralized application-based policy automation, programmability, and visibility into physical and virtual networks from a single point of management.
E. Allow centralized management and control over all Cisco platforms and non Cisco platforms.
F. Simplify and reduce the number of applications for better DevOps support.
G. Ability to design, install, and manage access/aggregation/core networks.
H. Emphasize technical objectives to best meet business requirements.
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 10
Which three options are major components of the Cisco ACI fabric? (Choose three.)
A. spine switches
B. application network profiles
C. leaf switches
D. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
E. OpenFlow controller
F. Layer 4 to Layer 7 service devices

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 11
Which four options are important functions offered by the Cisco APIC? (Choose four.)
A. fault and event management
B. hypervisor, storage, and computing management
C. Layer 3 through 5 services integration
D. statistical collection and analysis
E. performance management
F. nonblocking data plane
G. 1.5:1 oversubscribed ports
H. BGP and OSPF routing protocol support

Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 12
Before you design an ACI fabric, it is important to understand existing application interactions. If you do not understand them entirely, which approach can you use?
A. Design a classic routing configuration in which everybody can talk to anybody as the equivalent to a contract called “anyany” that all EPGs provide and consume.
B. Design around the Cisco ACI whitelist model using the common tenant, where, by default, two EPGs can communicate to each other in the absence of a contract.
C. Map each EPG to familiar constructs such as VLANs that provide segmentation and will apply policy application interactions.
D. Leverage advanced orchestration tools like Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud or Cisco UCS Director to document existing application interactions.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You want to satisfy the business, risk, and customer requirements. Which option is a consideration when you select and design an ACI fabric?
A. the requirement for meaningful services (such as traffic load balancing, segmentation, filtering, traffic insertion, and monitoring) for workloads provided by virtual Layer 4 to Layer 7 servers
B. virtual machine mobility because moving from one server to another one would have to occur on the same leaf so that ACI can preserve virtual machine visibility and policy enforcement
C. the breakdown of virtual versus physical workloads because virtual workloads are treated preferentially in ACI
D. the requirement for a central point of management, but no centralized control plane
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 65
As the administrator, placing a check in the Fwd to Auto Attendant box sends a caller to the default system Auto Attendant. This overrides Voice Mail access, if the user has selected Voice Mail for call handling.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which three are features of the NBX Offsite Notification? (Choose three.)
A. Up to five different call numbers/options can be setup for a user offsite notification
B. Offsite notification privileges and options are defined in the User Configuration menu
C. Only messages tagged as “urgent” will be forwarded by the offsite notification feature
D. Offsite Notification must be enabled in the NBX Messaging, as well as, in the Class of Service (CoS)
E. Only the NBX system administrator or users with administrator privileges can use offsite notification
F. Users can be notified of voice messages to another internal extension, an external phone, a pager or via email

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 67
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Calling Group?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 68
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Hunt Group?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 69
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 70
Which four are features of the NBX Auto Attendant (AA)? (Choose four.)
A. Supports up to 100 AA
B. Can answer with or without a live attendant
C. Only answers when no live attendant is available
D. Any NBX user can create an AA for their extension
E. Can configure different AA based on time of day and day of week
F. Each AA can be configured when to time out and whether to hang up or forward the call
G. AA message can be recorded via an NBX phone or be an imported .wav or an MP3 file

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 71
Which four are attributes of the second generation NBX T1 Digital Line Card (3C10116D) and the E1 Digital Line Card (3C10165D)? (Choose four.)
A. Embedded CSU with CSU statistics
B. Requires NBX software Release 4.3 or higher
C. Provides both T1 and E1 support on the same card
D. Can be configured with up to 17 different IP addresses for Fractional Channel support
E. Includes a 100/1000 Mbps LAN port for improved packet throughput and reduced latency
F. Can be configured for G.729 audio compression and silence suppression for bandwidth efficiency
G. Has one Power Failure Transfer Port that can be used to make an outbound call in case of a power failure
H. Has remote Layer 3 support for communicating with a Network Call Processor (NCP) across a routed network

Correct Answer: ABFH
QUESTION 72
The NBX Communication System provides E911 (emergency) connectivity when the Digital Line Card is configured for T1 signaling.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Each time a new Dial Plan is imported or modified, the system performs a consistency check.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
Which four are functions of the NBX Dial Plans? (Choose four.)
A. Dictates how calls are handled
B. Translates dialed digits into a specific destination
C. Forwards voice mail messages to internal extensions
D. Determines the route a call will take to its destination
E. Defines a set of destinations that can be reached by the NBX system
F. Translates single digit speed dial codes into full extension or outbound telephone numbers
G. Verifies if a user has the authorization to make the call, for example, long distance or trunk-to-trunk
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 75
Which three are features of the NBX Pretranslator function? (Choose three.)
A. Pretranslation is not available on Analog Line Cards
B. Each Pretranslation is used for either incoming or outgoing traffic
C. Each Pretranslation is used for both incoming and outgoing traffic
D. Outbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) supported by the Digital Line Card
E. A single outbound or inbound Pretranslation definition contains all the required translations defined in order from lowest-to-highest extension
F. Inbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) or Direct Inward Dial (DID) supported by the Digital Line Card

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 76
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan timed routes? (Choose three.)
A. Can designate a specific destination route for each time period
B. Can create route plans based on specific time-of-day or day-of-week
C. Can group time periods and point them to a specific route destination
D. Can disable specific routes for any time period, for example, holiday, night, etc.
E. Can create route plans based on pre-configured business hours – open, closed, lunch etc.
F. Can create route plans based on a specific date, for example, business, state or country holiday

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 77
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
Which three bandwidth reduction methods are supported by the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
B. Adaptive Transform Encoding (ATE)
C. ITU-T G.723 bandwidth compression
D. ITU-T G.729 bandwidth compression
E. Silence suppression on a per-device basis only
F. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)
G. Silence suppression on a system-wide or per-device basis
Correct Answer: DFG
QUESTION 79
Which three are NBX IP licensing features or requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Every NBX device requires a fixed IP address
B. A DHCP server is required to use IP On-the-Fly
C. IP On-the-Fly is included with all new NBX base systems
D. Companies can upgrade their license from IP On-the-Fly to Standard IP
E. IP addresses can be supplied via static or DHCP addressing when using Standard IP
F. An NBX phone can operate as a Layer 3 “IP Phone” on a per-call basis when using IP-on-the-Fly

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 80
Which three are important considerations when configuring/calling a remote NBX phone connected via a cable modem or DSL link? (Choose three.)
A. Enable silence suppression and low bandwidth options in the NBX
B. Fixed or DHCP IP address can be assigned to remote NBX phones
C. An NBX gateway is required to support remote users without an NBX
D. All phone calls between the central and remote sites use Layer 2 IP packets
E. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can provide the remote phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
F. Network Address Translation (NAT) should be configured for the central site but NAT should not be used at the remote site
G. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can be configured to provide the local phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user

Correct Answer: ABG
QUESTION 81
Which three are requirements for conference call support across Virtual Tie Lines (VTL)? (Choose three.)
A. Requires Standard IP license for each participating NBX system
B. Must use same range of multicast addresses on all NBX systems
C. WAN routers must support Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP)
D. Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP) addresses must be defined
E. Music on Hold (MOH) and internal page initiation must be done from NetSet
F. Requires Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration on Virtual Tie Lines

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 82
Virtual Tie Lines allow NBX Communication Systems and legacy PBX equipment to place calls between one another without using Analog or Digital connections.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Which four are features/requirements of the NBX Desktop Call Assistant (DCA) application? (Choose four.)
A. Requires Microsoft Windows 2000 or Windows XP
B. Requires one 3Com SKU and license per NBX system
C. Supports point and click dialing to any phone in the user directory
D. Provides personal inbound/outbound call logs with caller ID information
E. Uses Microsoft Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) to manage calls
F. Computer with NBXTSP software must have a physical connection to an NBX phone
G. Users can manage all their calls from a single on-screen computer interface, for example, call transfer, conferencing, call park

Correct Answer: CDEG
QUESTION 84
Inbound NBX Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) calls support directory dialing, on-screen dialing and call processing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85

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QUESTION 55
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)

Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 59
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response,i.e;right priority queues per port,weighted Random Early Diction (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 64
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508) Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone.
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic.
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 4070 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
D. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the wiring-closet switches in Building 9 to the data center switch?
A. The 12-or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module
B. The 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
C. The 12- or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers ( 3CSFP91)
D. The 12- or 24-port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-LHSFP Transceivers (3CSFP97) Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which solution would you recommend to the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) to support its wiring closet, end-user switch requirements?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 FX
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 SE with a 1000BASE-SX Module
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-T Module
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-SX Module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which two 3Com solution would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 70
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduce network outages, i.e, hot-swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support.
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggregation creates hih-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 71
If you chose either the 3Com Switch 8810 or Switch 8814 for Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center solution, which interface Modules would you use to connect the four distribution centers and the nine satellite buildings?
A. Option A -One 24-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17514) with -Four 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -Nine 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
B. Option B -Two 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
C. Option C -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) and One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
D. Option D -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514)with Eight 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -18 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which two 3 Com solutions would you recommend to Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) for each of the four distribution centers in Buildings 16,20,35 and 38, to connect them to the campus backbone? (Choose two)
A. Option A -Two Switch 4050 each with -One 1000BASE-SX GBIC
B. Option B -Two Switch 4060 each with -One 1000BASE-LX GBIC
C. Option C -One switch 7700 7-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CBIC91)
D. Option D Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing -One switch 7700R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
E. Option E -One switch 7700 R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Four 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduces network outages, i,e hot -swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggreation creates high-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings
F. IEEE802.1Xnetwork Login and Authentication Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by eastablishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 74
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Fundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
Which solution would you recommend as the distribution-layer switch for each of
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
the Bantry Bay four main buildings that connect to the data center and to the smaller buildings on campus?
A. Two Switch 4050
B. Two Switch 4060
C. Two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924
D. Two SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
If you choose the SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 to support the Bantry Bay server farm, which three customer benefits are attained from using an XRN interconnection Kit with the two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 server-farm switches? (Choose three)
A. The Fabric Interconnect has an 8-Gbps (16-Gbps full duplex)switching limit
B. The two switches would share one IP address and be managed as a single entity
C. Any number of ports can join a Link Aggregation trunk with all ports active and transporting data
D. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) uses a “Master Router” to perform all the routing across the Fabric.
E. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) allows switches in the Fabric to act as a single logical router, which provides router resiliency in the event of a unit failure in the Fabric
F. XRN Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) guarantees high levels of resiliency, because a failure in one of the member links results in automatic redistribution of traffic across the remaining links

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 78
If you reocommend a single Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis to create the hihly-resilient backbone, which three switch components would Bantry Bay require for the data center’s backbone-core switch? (Choose three)
A. One Switch 7700R Starter Kit (3C16852)
B. One Switch 7700 AC Power Supply (3C 16854)
C. Three Switch 7700 AC Power Supplies (3C 16854)
D. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Fan Assembly (3C 16855)
E. One Switch 7700R Gigabit Ethernet Redundant Switching Fabric (3C 16857R)

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 79
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Bantry Bay data center, backbone core? (Choose two)
A. Two Router 6040
B. One Router 6080
C. Two Switch 7700 4-Slot Chassis
D. Two switch 7700 7-s;ot chassis
E. One switch 7700R 8-slot Chassis

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 80
If you recommend a Switch 7700 for the data center backbone-core solution, which three modules/ interfaces would the customer require for each of the two data center backbone-core switches? (Choose three)
A. Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Eight 1000BASE-LH70 GBICs (3CGBIC97)
C. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
D. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
E. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
F. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
Correct Answer: ACD
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