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QUESTION 142
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
A medium-sized network with a redundant topology that uses core and access switches is experiencing intermittent end-station accessibility. The root bridge is on one of the core switches. It is determined that the problem occurs during STP convergence and that accessibility issues depend on the STP state of the individual switch port. What is the best way to decrease STP convergence time in this situation?
A. Enable PortFast on the core switches to accelerate the choice of a new root port.
B. Enable UplinkFast on the VLAN that is having the most accessibility problems.
C. Enable UplinkFast on the wiring closet switches at the edge of the network.
D. Enable PortFast on all IOS based switches that have been configured for bridge priority.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)
A. forwarding information base
B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Refer to the exhibit. All switches are connected using FastEthernet links. Given the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Switch S1 is the root bridge.
B. Switch S2 is the root bridge.
C. Switch S3 is the root bridge.
D. Port 1/2 on switch S1 is a nondesignated port.
E. Port 1/2 on switch S2 is a nondesignated port.
F. Port 1/2 on switch S3 is a nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F.     DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to prevent VLAN attacks. Ports 0/20 – 24 are not currently used on switch Cat2. VLAN 50 is an unused VLAN. How does the configuration in the exhibit improve security on the switch Cat2?

A. The native VLAN is different from any data VLAN.
B. Trunking is negotiated rather than on.
C. DTP is turned off.
D. The ports have been configured as a primary PVLAN.
E. The ports have been configured as a secondary PVLAN.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 150
Which three IP addresses are valid multicast addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 169.254.23.59
B. 223.254.255.254
C. 225.1.1.1
D. 227.43.34.2
E. 238.3.3.3
F. 249.1.2.3

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 151
When IP multicast is enabled via PIM, which mode uses the flood and prune method?
A. PIM sparse-dense
B. Bidir-PIM
C. PIM-RP
D. PIM-DM
E. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of a debug ip mrouting command, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. This router received an IGMP host report from a group member or a PIM join message.
B. The reverse path forwarding (RPF) for the route 224.2.0.1 failed to find the interface on which the multicast packet was received.
C. Multicast route to 10.16.0.0/16 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
D. Multicast route to 224.69.15.0/24 was added to the mroute table and created by a source directly connected to the router.
E. The route to 224.69.15.0/24 will be out Ethernet 0.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment?
A. VMPS server lookup
B. easy to configure
C. ease of adds, moves, and changes
D. based on MAC address of the connected device

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 158
Switch C is configured with UplinkFast. How much time will expire after a failure in L2 before switch C activates the port connected to L3?

A. 1-5 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 50 seconds

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true about the UplinkFast feature? (Choose two.)
A. It must be used with the PortFast feature enabled.
B. When enabled, it is enabled for the entire switch and all VLANs.
C. It should be configured on all switches, including the Root Bridge.
D. When the primary Root Port uplink fails, another blocked uplink can be immediately brought up for use.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 161
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F.     The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F.     process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F.     protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
Which three statements are true of the Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)? (Choose three.)
A. PAgP is a standards-based protocol defined in IEEE 802.3ad.
B. PAgP is used to connect to non-Cisco devices.
C. PAgP packets are sent with the command channel-group 1 mode desirable.
D. PAgP does not require the STP costs to be the same in order to form an EtherChannel.
E. An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as active and the other end as passive mode.
F.     An Etherchannel link will form if one end of the channel is configured as auto and the other end as desirable mode.

Correct Answer: CDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which command will ensure that External_B will be the primary router for traffic using the gateway address of 172.16.15.20?

A. On External_B add the command standby 1 priority 80.
B. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 110.
C. On External_A add the command standby 1 priority 80.
D. On External_B remove the command standby 1 preempt

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which two statements characterize VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same broadcast domain.
B. All hosts in the same VLAN are in the same collision domain.
C. VLAN membership is based upon port membership or assigned dynamically based on MAC.
D. It is a physical network segment.
E. They must be created in the vlan database mode on all IOS and Cat OS based Catalyst Switches.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What must be configured on a Cisco switch in order to advertise VLAN information?
A. VTP password
B. VTP domain name
C. VTP revision number
D. VTP mode
E. VTP pruning
Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 168
Which statement about VTP is false?
A. Switches in VTP transparent mode will simply forward advertisements without processing them.
B. VTP reduces administrative overhead.
C. VTP pruning reduces overall network traffic.
D. VTP pruning is on by default.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 169
Which two statements are true about Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) operation? (Choose two.)
A. CEF supports per packet load balancing.
B. The CEF switching process can perform packet fragmentation.
C. CEF processed packets forwarded to a tunnel interface create separate lookup table entries.
D. access control lists should be avoided when utilizing CEF because they cause the forwarding decision to bypass CEF and use process switching.
E. CEF can be used to forward packets when an ACL is involved since CEF tables include access control list information.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
How does 802.1q trunking keep track of multiple VLAN’s?
A. modifies the port index of a data frame to indicate the VLAN
B. adds a new header containing the VLAN ID to the data frame
C. encapsulates the data frame with a new header and frame check sequence
D. tags the data frame with VLAN information and recalculates the CRC value

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Which Cisco IOS command assigns a Catalyst switch port to VLAN 10?
A. switchport mode vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native 10
C. switchport access vlan 10
D. switchport mode access vlan 10

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 173
Which statement correctly describes the extended system ID?
A. It is the 2-bit number of the MSTP instance.
B. It is the VLAN identifier value and allows for 4096 BIDs to be uniquely identified.
C. It is a bridge MAC address which is allocated from a pool of MAC addresses that are factory assigned.
D. It is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.

Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.
B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 176
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 177
Assuming that VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 traffic is enabled on the above network, what effect will the following command have when entered on port 0/2 on Switch Aspanning-tree vlan 1 port-priority 16

A. VLAN 1 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
B. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch B port 1/1.
C. VLAN 2 traffic will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.
D. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/1.
E. VLANs 1 and 2 will be blocked on Switch A port 0/2.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
Which message type was added to IGMPv2?
A. heartbeat
B. join request
C. leave report
D. status report
E. membership report

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 179
Frames from Workstation 1 are given the proper priority through Switch A, but Switch B handles Workstation 1 frames as if they have no precedence. Which of the following actions will allow traffic from Workstation 1 to be given the proper priority?

A. configure qos all command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
B. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
C. configure mls qos trust cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
D. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch B fa0/1 interface
E. configure mls qos trust cos command under Switch A fa0/1 interface
F. configure qos cos 5 command under Switch A fa0/1 interface

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
Which two multicast IP addresses can be represented by the multicast MAC address 0100.5e0A.0A07? (Choose two.)
A. 228.10.10.7
B. 228.10.10.8
C. 228.10.138.7
D. 229.11.10.7
E. 229.138.10.7
F. 229.138.10.8

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 181
Which two statements about the various implementations of STP are true? (Choose two.)
A. Common Spanning Tree maintains a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network.
B. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is an evolution of the IEEE 802.1w standard.
C. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) supports 802.1Q trunking.
D. Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus(PVST+) is an enhancement to 802.1Q specification and is supported only on Cisco devices.
E. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) includes features equivalent to Cisco PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast for faster network reconvergence.
F.     Multiple Spanning Tree (MST) assumes one spanning-tree instance for the entire Layer 2 network, regardless of the multiple number of VLANs.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
Examine the diagram. A network administrator has recently installed the above switched network using 3550s and would like to control the selection of the root bridge. Which switch should the administrator configure as the root bridge and which configuration command must the administrator enter to accomplish this?

A. DSW11(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
B. DSW12(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
C. ASW13(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. DSW11(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096
E. DSW12(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
F.     ASW13(config)# set spanning-tree priority 4096

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host?

e
A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 185
What can be determined about the HSRP relationship from the displayed debug output?

A. The preempt feature is not enabled on the 172.16.11.111 router.
B. The nonpreempt feature is enabled on the 172.16.11.112 router.
C. Router 172.16.11.111 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.112.
D. Router 172.16.11.112 will be the active router because its HSRP priority is preferred over router
172.16.11.111.
E. The IP address 172.16.11.111 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.
F. The IP address 172.16.11.112 is the virtual HSRP router IP address.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 186
Refer to the exhibit. The Gateway Load Balancing Protocol has been configured on routers R1 and R2,
and hosts A and B have been configured as shown. Which statement
can be derived from the exhibit?

A. The GLBP weighted load balancing mode has been configured.
B. The GLBP host-dependent, load-balancing mode has been configured.
C. The GLBP round-robin, load-balancing mode has been configured.
D. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.1/24.
E. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.4/24.
F. The host A default gateway has been configured as 10.88.1.10/24.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 187
Which two statements are true about CEF switching? (Choose two.)
A. The CEF data plane is responsible for the fragmentation of outgoing packets.
B. The CEF control plane builds the FIB table. The data plane builds the adjacency table and forwards traffic.
C. The CEF control plane builds the FIB and adjacency tables. The data plane forwards IP unicast traffic.
D. IP packets with the IP header options set are process switched.
E. Packets with the TCP header options set are process switched.
F. The adjacency table is derived from next hop IP addresses in the routing table.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 188
On a 3550 EMI switch, which three types of interfaces can be used to configure HSRP? (Choose three.)
A. loopback interface
B. SVI interface
C. routed port
D. access port
E. EtherChannel port channel
F. BVI interface

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
A switch sends BPDUs with which destination address upon initial bootup?
A. a well-known STP multicast address
B. the IP address of its default gateway
C. the MAC addresses stored in the CAM table
D. the MAC address of neighbors discovered via CDP

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 190
Refer to the exhibit. Switch A is initially the root bridge. Switch D with bridge priority of 0 is added to the network. Which port should the Root Guard feature be configured on to prevent Switch D from becoming the root?

A. Switch A fa0/2
B. Switch C fa0/1
C. Switch C fa0/3
D. Switch D fa0/1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which licensing feature enables customers to better manage their software assets and optimize their IT spending?
A. Cisco ONE
B. Smart Accounts
C. Enterprise License Agreements
D. License Bundling

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which Cisco network security solution helps protect against threats by monitoring and responding to any network anomalies, continually analyzing for potential threats and reacting to them in real time?
A. Cisco Security Manager
B. Cisco ASA Firewall Services
C. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
D. Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
E. Cisco Web Security Appliance
F. Cisco Email Security Appliance
G. Cisco Identity Services Engine
H. Cisco Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Upon which component are security solutions directly built in the Cisco future solutions architecture framework?
A. Security intelligence operations
B. Third-party applications
C. Management and intelligence capabilities
D. Cisco security platforms

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
At which point during the attack continuum does a customer experience limited remediation tools?
A. Across the entire continuum
B. During
C. Before
D. After

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which technology solution can resolve the inability of a customer to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco Secure Data Center
B. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Utilizing the Cisco software lifecycle generates which two benefits for partners? (Choose two.)
A. Adaptable deployment
B. Software portability
C. Improved sales performance
D. Cisco incentives
E. Increased efficiencies
F. Sales promotions
G. Customer support
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
Which Cisco security benefit is a differentiator that allows partners to plan and model their businesses?
A. Comprehensive vision for security
B. One solution to fit every need
C. Unparalleled commitment
D. Lowest price points
E. Best-in-class technologies

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is the primary customer challenge that is created by the wide variety of security solution providers on the market?
A. Choosing the right provider
B. Contacting all providers for information
C. Finding a low-cost option
D. Determining the single best security product

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Automatic updates and post-attack guidance are features that demonstrate which Cisco business value?
A. Completeness
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Flexibility
D. Control
E. Protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
End-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum are features that demonstrate which two Cisco business values? (Choose two.)
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Protection
C. Control
D. Flexibility
E. Completeness

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
The unmatched security that Cisco offers is demonstrated by its long-standing experience in which two options? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile solutions
B. Networks
C. Software
D. Security
E. Devices
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

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Cisco, Cisco Specialist

Cisco 646-365 Cert Exam, Sale Latest Cisco 646-365 Exam Collection Is Your Best Choice

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All know that our products can help you master Cisco 646-365 Management points, clearly shows that you need a key point in the exam. Learning we offer Cisco 646-365 exam sample questions you will learn better without having to participate in other expensive courses. Since the competitiveness of the IT world has been increased recent years, IT certifications become the basic necessities if you want to have a boost in your career path. Passing Cisco 646-365 exam is treated as the most crucial way to get the Cisco 646-365 certification. The Cisco 646-365 strengthens the employment prospects and opens up myriads of opportunities for them. FLYDUMPS Cisco 646-365 exam sample questions provide the useful information about the Cisco 646-365 exam.

QUESTION 1
Which three are major trends that fuel the demand for routing and switching? (Choose three.)
A. Mobility
B. Video
C. Bandwidth optimization
D. Cloud
E. IT standardization

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
Which two statements best describe the challenges that customers have to face when providing services in a borderless world? (Choose two.)
A. How do you control energy consumption of devices that are owned by employees?
B. How can you support video in the whole network?
C. How can you integrate cloud services seamlessly in your network?
D. Which type of firewall should you deploy?

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which statement does not correctly describe the impact of business video applications to the network?
A. Video applications rapidly increase the traffic within the network.
B. In order to ensure business quality video, video traffic needs to be prioritized.
C. Various devices with different capabilities need to be able to join video conferences.
D. Video conferences reduce the network load by eliminating the need to exchange files over the network in order to share information.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the strategic importance of the network?
A. The network is most important for internal applications.
B. The network is most important for providing customers with access to company services.
C. The network supports business processes by integrating people and devices with applications.
D. The network integrates internal and external users and their devices.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two other architectures is the Cisco Borderless Network Architecture linked to? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MediaNet Architecture
B. Cisco Security Architecture
C. Cisco TrustSec Architecture
D. Cisco Collaboration Architecture
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding IPv6?
A. IPv6 support on network devices eliminates the need for additional security devices and applications in the network.
B. IPv6 is applicable in service provider networks but is an overhead item in smaller networks.
C. All devices currently support IPv6 and IPv4.
D. The Cisco Transformative Networking initiative provides an analysis of the network regarding the capabilities of devices to support IPv6.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which statement correctly describes the importance and role of business processes?
A. Business processes are built on company operations.
B. Operations and, consequently, business processes define the company strategy.
C. Changes in company strategy cause changes in business processes and, consequently, in operations.
D. Tasks in business processes require interaction of various users using the same type of device.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two statements accurately describe the evolution of the workplace and the importance of the network? (Choose two.)
A. Mobility causes location borders to shift.
B. Cloud services cause end-user locations to shift.
C. Cloud services cause application borders to shift.
D. IT consumerization causes location borders to shift.
E. Mobility causes devices to become centralized.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
Which statement accurately describes the evolution of the workplace and its impact on security?
A. Mobility causes location borders to shift.
B. Cloud services cause end-user locations to shift.
C. Mobility causes devices to become centralized.
D. IT consumerization causes location borders to shift.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are the two business benefits of a BYOD solution? (Choose two.)
A. reduced OpEx
B. less IT effort to support and secure different devices
C. less IT effort to support and secure different operating systems
D. reduced network complexity
E. increased productivity using own devices
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
Which statement accurately describes the impact of BYOD to the network?
A. TCO is reduced because employees use their privately owned devices.
B. BYOD decreases productivity, and IT must find ways to integrate the utilized devices seamlessly with

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10g DBA, Oracle

Oracle 1Z0-047 Certification, High Success Rate Oracle 1Z0-047 Question Description Guaranteed Success

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Oracle 1Z0-047 exam is a Cisco certification. When wanting to pass Oracle 1Z0-047 exam, you need to choose some study material and practice tests for helping. With the complete collection of Oracle 1Z0-047 exam sample questions, you will cover every field and category in Oracle 1Z0-047 helping to ready you for your successful Riverbed Certification. FLYDUMPS provide you with by far the most upgrades product to organize for any assessments all the Oracle 1Z0-047 exam sample questions can be purchased once your there.

 

QUESTION 1
Which three possible values can be set for the TIME_ZONE session parameter by using the ALTER SESSION command? (Choose three.)
A. ‘os’
B. local
C. -8:00′
D. dbtimezone Li
E. ‘Australia’

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2
EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME. Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
A. UPDATE empdet SET ename = ‘Amit’ WHERE empno = 1234;
B. DELETE FROM empdet WHERE ename LIKE ‘J%’;
C. CREATE VIEW empvu ASSELECT* FROM empdept;
D. CREATE INDEX empdet_dx ON empdet(empno);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which three tasks can be performed using regular expression support in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose three.)
A. it can be used to concatenate two strings.
B. it can be used to find out the total length of the string.
C. it can be used for string manipulation and searching operations.
D. it can be used to format the output for a column or expression having string data.
E. it can be used to find and replace operations for a column or expression having string data.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT oi.order_id, product_jd, order_date FROM order_items oi JOIN orders o USING(order_id);
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?

A. The statement would not execute because table aliases are not allowed in the JOIN clause.
B. The statement would not execute because the table alias prefix is not used in the USING clause.
C. The statement would not execute because all the columns in the SELECT clause are not prefixed with table aliases.
D. The statement would not execute because the column part of the USING clause cannot have a qualifier in the SELECT list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 7
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));
Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?

A. It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D. It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT INFORMATION table.

Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
B. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the product status orderable
E. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Evaluate the following statement: INSERT ALL WHEN order_total < 10000 THEN INTO small_orders WHEN order_total > 10000 AND order_total < 20000 THEN INTO medium_orders WHEN order_total > 2000000 THEN INTO large_orders SELECT order_id, order_total, customer_id FROM orders; Which statement is true regarding the evaluation of rows returned by the subquery in the INSERT statement?
A. They are evaluated by all the three WHEN clauses regardless of the results of the evaluation of any other WHEN clause.
B. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is true, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
C. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is false, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
D. The INSERT statement would give an error because the ELSE clause is not present for support in case none of the WHEN clauses are true.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.

Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o USING monthly_orders m ON (o.order_id = m.order_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
The user SCOTT who is the owner of ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables issues the following GRANT command:
GRANT ALL ON orders, order_items TO PUBLIC;
What correction needs to be done to the above statement?
A. PUBLIC should be replaced with specific usernames.
B. ALL should be replaced with a list of specific privileges.
C. WITH GRANT OPTION should be added to the statement.
D. Separate GRANT statements are required for ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You executed the following command to add a primary key to the EMP table:

ALTER TABLE emp
ADD CONSTRAINT emp_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (emp_id)
USING INDEX emp_id_idx;

Which statement is true regarding the effect of the command?

A. The PRIMARY KEY is created along with a new index.
B. The PRIMARY KEY is created and it would use an existing unique index.
C. The PRIMARY KEY would be created in a disabled state because it is using an existing index.
D. The statement produces an error because the USING clause is permitted only in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true regarding roles? (Choose two.)
A. A role can be granted to itself.
B. A role can be granted to PUBLIC.
C. A user can be granted only one role at any point of time.
D. The REVOKE command can be used to remove privileges but not roles from other users.
E. Roles are named groups of related privileges that can be granted to users or other roles.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 15
Which statement is true regarding Flashback Version Query?
A. It returns versions of rows only within a transaction.
B. It can be used in subqueries contained only in a SELECT statement.
C. It will return an error if the undo retention time is less than the lower bound time or SCN specified.
D. It retrieves all versions including the deleted as well as subsequently reinserted versions of the rows.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Evaluate the following SQL statements that are issued in the given order:
CREATE TABLE emp
(emp_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk PRIMARY KEY, enameVARCHAR2(15),
salary NUMBER(8,2),
mgr_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_mgr_fk REFERENCES emp);

ALTER TABLE emp
DISABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk CASCADE;

ALTER TABLE emp
ENABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk;

What would be the status of the foreign key EMP_MGR_FK?

A. It would be automatically enabled and deferred.
B. It would be automatically enabled and immediate.
C. It would remain disabled and has to be enabled manually using the ALTER TABLE command.
D. It would remain disabled and can be enabled only by dropping the foreign key constraint and re-creating it.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. Which task would require subqueries?

A. displaying the total order value for sales representatives 161 and 163
B. displaying the order total for sales representative 161 in the year 1999
C. displaying the number of orders that have order mode online and order date in 1999
D. displaying the number of orders whose order total is more than the average order total for all online orders
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

SELECT phone_number,
REGEXP_REPLACE(phone_number,'([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{4})’, ,(\1)\2-\3′) “PHONE
NUMBER”
FROM employees;

The query was written to format the PHONE_NUMBER for the employees. Which option would be the
correct format in the output?

A. xxx-xxx-xxxx
B. (xxx) xxxxxxx
C. (xxx) xxx-xxxx
D. xxx-(xxx)-xxxx

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
The details of the order ID, order date, order total, and customer ID are obtained from the ORDERS table. If the order value is more than 30000, the details have to be added to the LARGEjDRDERS table. The order ID, order date, and order total should be added to the ORDERJHISTORY table, and order ID and customer ID should be added to the CUSTJHISTORY table. Which multitable INSERT statement would you use?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the LOCATIONS table.

Evaluate the following SOL statement:
SELECT street_address FROM locations WHERE REGEXP_INSTR(street_address,'[^[: alpha:]]’) = 1;
Which statement is true regarding the output of this SOL statement?
A. It would display all the street addresses that do not have a substring ‘alpha’.
B. It would display all the street addresses where the first character is a special character.
C. It would display all the street addresses where the first character is a letter of the alphabet.
D. It would display all the street addresses where the first character is not a letter of the alphabet.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which statement is true regarding the ROLLUP operator specified in the GROUP BY clause of a SQL statement?
A. It produces only the subtotals for the groups specified in the GROUP BY clause.
B. It produces only the grand totals for the groups specified in the GROUP BY clause.
C. It produces higher-level subtotals, moving from right to left through the list of grouping columns specified in the GROUP BY clause.
D. It produces higher-level subtotals, moving in all the directions through the list of grouping columns specified in the GROUP BY clause.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUST_DET table.

You executed the following multitable INSERT statement:
INSERT FIRST WHEN credit_limit >= 5000 THEN
INTO cust_1 VALUES(cust_id, credit_limit, grade, gender) WHEN grade = THE INTO cust_2 VALUES(cust_id, credit_limit, grade, gender) WHEN gender = THE INTO cust_3 VALUES(cust_id, credit_limit, grade, gender) INTO cust_4 VALUES(cust_id, credit_limit, grade, gender) ELSE INTO cust_5 VALUES(cust_id, credit_limit, grade, gender) SELECT * FROM cust_det;
The row will be inserted in________.
A. CUST_1 table only because CREDIT_LIMIT condition is satisfied
B. CUST_1 and CUST_2 tables because CREDIT_LIMIT and GRADE conditions are satisfied
C. CUST_1 ,CUST_2 and CUST_5 tables because CREDIT_LIMIT and GRADE conditions are satisfied but GENDER condition is not satisfied
D. CUST 1, CUST 2 and CUST 4 tables because CREDIT LIMIT and GRADE conditions are satisfied for CUST 1 and CUST 2, and CUST 4 has no condition on it

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
You executed the following SQL statements in the given order:

CREATE TABLE orders
(order_id NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY,
order_date DATE,
customer_id number(3));

INSERT INTO orders VALUES (100,’10-mar-2007,,222);
ALTER TABLE orders MODIFY order_date NOT NULL;
UPDATE orders SET customer_id=333;
DELETE FROM order;

The DELETE statement results in the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-00942: table or view does not exist

What would be the outcome?

A. All the statements before the DELETE statement would be rolled back.
B. All the statements before the DELETE statement would be implicitly committed within the session.
C. All the statements up to the ALTER TABLE statement would be committed and the outcome of UPDATE statement would be rolled back.
D. All the statements up to the ALTER TABLE statement would be committed and the outcome of the UPDATE statement is retained uncommitted within the session.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Evaluate the following statements:
CREATE TABLE digits
(id NUMBER(2),
description VARCHAR2(15));

INSERT INTO digits VALUES (1,’ONE);
UPDATE digits SET description =’TWO’WHERE id=1;
INSERT INTO digits VALUES (2 .’TWO’);
COMMIT;
DELETE FROM digits;
SELECT description FROM digits
VERSIONS BETWEEN TIMESTAMP MINVALUE AND MAXVALUE;

What would be the outcome of the above query?

A. It would not display any values.
B. It would display the value TWO once.
C. It would display the value TWO twice.
D. It would display the values ONE, TWO, and TWO.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
A non-correlated subquery can be defined as________ .
A. a set of sequential queries, all of which must always return a single value
B. a set of sequential queries, all of which must return values from the same table
C. a SELECT statement that can be embedded in a clause of another SELECT statement only
D. a set of one or more sequential queries in which generally the result of the inner query is used as the search value in the outer query
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLY_ORDERS tables.

Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o USING monthly_orders m ON (o.order_id = m.order_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDER_IDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDER_IDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDER_IDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date date NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details(ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL,item_no NUMBER(3),ord_date date DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3),ord_date date DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3),ord_date date DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Evaluate the following CREATE SEQUENCE statement:
CREATE SEQUENCE seql START WITH 100 INCREMENT BY 10 MAXVALUE 200 CYCLE NOCACHE;
The sequence SEQ1 has generated numbers up to the maximum limit of 200. You issue the following SQL statement:
SELECT seql.nextval FROM dual;
What is displayed by the SELECT statement?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. an error
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the descriptions of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.

The following SQL statement was executed:
SELECT e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id, sum(e.salary) total, GROUPING(e. department_id)
GRP_DEPT,
GROUPING(e.job_id) GRPJOB,
GROUPING(d. location_id) GRP_LOC
FROM employees e JOIN departments d
ON e.department_id = d.department_id
GROUP BY ROLLUP (e.department_id, e.job_id, d.location_id);

View the Exhibit2 and examine the output of the command.
Which two statements are true regarding the output? (Choose two.)
A. The value 1 in GRP_LOC means that the LOCATION_ID column is taken into account to generate the subtotal.
B. The value 1 in GRPJOB and GRP_LOC means that JOB_ID and LOCATION_ID columns are not taken into account to generate the subtotal.
C. The value 1 in GRPJOB and GRP_LOC means that the NULL value in JOBJD and LOCATIONJD columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal.
D. The value 0 in GRP_DEPT, GRPJOB, and GRP_LOC means that DEPARTMENT_ID, JOB_ID, and LOCATION_ID columns are taken into account to generate the subtotal

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
View the Exhibit and examine the description of EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables. You want to display the EMPLOYEE_ID, LAST_NAME, and SALARY for the employees who get the maximum salary in their respective departments. The following SQL statement was written:

WITH
SELECT employee_id, last_name, salary
FROM employees
WHERE (department_id, salary) = ANY (SELECT*
FROM dept_max)

dept_max as (SELECT d.department_id, max(salary)
FROM departments d JOIN employees j
ON (d. department_id = j. department_id)
GROUP BY d. department_id);

Which statement is true regarding the execution and the output of this statement?

A. The statement would execute and give the desired results.
B. The statement would not execute because the = ANY comparison operator is used instead of=.
C. The statement would not execute because the main query block uses the query name before it is even created.
D. The statement would not execute because the comma is missing between the main query block and the query name.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created for tables but not views.
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user.
C. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table.
D. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym, and the status of the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which two statements are true regarding the EXISTS operator used in the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The outer query stops evaluating the result set of the inner query when the first value is found.
B. It is used to test whether the values retrieved by the inner query exist in the result of the outer query.
C. It is used to test whether the values retrieved by the outer query exist in the result set of the inner query.
D. The outer query continues evaluating the result set of the inner query until all the values in the result set are processed.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding multiple-row subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. They can contain group functions.
B. They always contain a subquery within a subquery.
C. They use the < ALL operator to imply less than the maximum.
D. They can be used to retrieve multiple rows from a single table only.
E. They should not be used with the NOT IN operator in the main query if NULL is likely to be a part of the result of the subquery.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the EMPLOYEES table.

Your company decided to give a monthly bonus of $50 to all the employees who have completed five years in the company. The following statement is written to display the LAST_NAME, DEPARTMENT_ID, and the total annual salary:
SELECT last_name, department_id, salary+50*12 “Annual Compensation” FROM employees WHERE MONTHS_BETWEEN(SYSDATE, hire_date)/12 >= 5;
When you execute the statement, the “Annual Compensation” is not computed correctly. What changes would you make to the query to calculate the annual compensation correctly?
A. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, salary*12+50 “Annual Compensation”.
B. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, salary+(50*12) “Annual Compensation”.
C. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, (salary +50)*12 “Annual Compensation”.
D. Change the SELECT clause to SELECT last_name, department_id, (salary*12)+50 “Annual Compensation”.

Correct Answer: C

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10g DBA, Oracle

Oracle 1Z0-043 Cert Exam, Up To Date Oracle 1Z0-043 Dumps PDF Will Be More Popular

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QUESTION 1
Your database is open and running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You take RMAN full backups every Sunday night. On Monday morning, while querying the user1.employees table, you receive the following error message:
01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 5, block # 51) ORA-01110: data file 5: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/example01.dbf’
You need to rectify the corruption while ensuring the following:
The data file should remain online.
The mean time to recover (MTTR) should be minimal.
You are not using a backup control file, and all the archived logs are accessible. Which option would you choose?
A. flash back the corrupted blocks
B. use the DBMS_REPAIR package
C. use the RMAN TSPITR command
D. use the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
E. use the RESTORE DATABASE and RECOVER DATABASE commands
F. investigate the time at which the corruption occurred and perform a point-in-time recovery

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
A database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. It has two online redo log groups and each group has one member. A LGWR I/O fails due to permanent media failure that has resulted in the loss of a redo log file and the LGWR terminates causing the instance to crash.
Which method should be used to efficiently recover from this loss of the current group member?
A. Restart the database; it would automatically re-create the corrupted redo log member.
B. Restore the corrupted redo log group, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
C. Restore the corrupted redo log member, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
D. Restore whole database backup, perform incomplete recovery, relocate by renaming the member of the damaged online redo log group to a new location, and then open the database with the RESETLOGS option.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
There was media failure and you need to check the data files for any block corruption. Which option would you use to create a report on any corruptions found within the database?
A. the DBNEWID utility
B. the DBVERIFY utility
C. the ANALYZE command
D. the RMAN REPORT command
E. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
F. the CHECK_OBJECT procedure of the DBMS_REPAIR package

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
You are using Oracle Database 10g. Which statement regarding an incomplete recovery is true?
A. You do not need to restore all the data files.
B. You do not need to open the database with the RESETLOGS operation.
C. You do not need to perform a full backup after the RESETLOGS operation.
D. You do not need to recover all the data files to the same system change number (SCN).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
You set the value for the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME initialization parameter to 7. Which two records in the control file of the database are circularly reused for storage because of using this parameter? (Choose two.)
A. backup records
B. data file records
C. archive log records
D. tablespace records
E. redo thread records

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 6
You executed the following command at the command prompt:
$ rman TARGET sys/oracle@ad10g CATALOG rmanusr/rmanusr@as10g SCRIPT backup_whole
Which three statements are true regarding this command? (Choose three.)

A. The backup_whole script is stored in the target database.
B. The backup_whole is a stored script in the recovery catalog.
C. The RMAN session terminates automatically after the execution of the command.
D. The backup_whole script is executed automatically after the successful connection to the recovery catalog only.
E. The command produces an error because the RMAN script cannot be executed from the command line.
F. The backup_whole script is executed automatically after the successful connection to target and catalog database.

Correct Answer: BCF QUESTION 7
You have configured and registered your target database in a recovery catalog. Because the application needs it, you created a new tablespace in the target database. Then you executed the following command from an RMAN session after connecting to the target and catalog databases, both:
RMAN> REPORT SCHEMA;
Which statement describes the operation performed?
A. The target database instance transfers the updated information to the recovery catalog.
B. The command shows the information from the control file of the target database and recovery catalog is synchronized with the target database after the command is executed.
C. The media manager transfers the schema details from the control file of the target database to the recovery catalog.
D. The recovery catalog will be updated by RMAN with the updated information in the control file of the target database and displays information about the database files.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Your database is functioning in ARCHIVELOG mode. In which two situations would you perform a cancel-based recovery? (Choose two.)
A. You find that one of the redo log members in each redo log group is lost.
B. You find that a data file that belongs to the USERS tablespace is damaged.
C. You find that a data file that belongs to the SYSTEM tablespace is damaged.
D. You find that the current redo log group is damaged and is not available for recovery.
E. You realized while performing a recovery that an archived redo log file needed for recovery is lost.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 9
Users in your production database complain that they are getting the following error message while trying to insert rows into the ORDERS table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01654: unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8 in tablespace INDEXES

While investigating, you find that the INDEXES tablespace has run out of space and there is no more free space on the disk where the data files are available.
Which two actions could you perform to overcome this error without affecting the queries that are currently being executed? (Choose two.)
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the ORDERS_IND index
C. coalesce the INDEXES tablespace
D. drop and re-create the ORDERS table
E. rebuild the index online and move it to another tablespace

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 10
You lost the index tablespace in your database. You are not able to use tablespace point-in-time recovery on the index tablespace. What could be the reason for this?
A. The index tablespace contains bitmap indexes.
B. The index tablespace contains more than one data file.
C. The index tablespace supports only complete recovery.
D. The index tablespace is not a dictionary-managed tablespace.
E. There is a dependency relationship between a table and its indexes.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 11
Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two things may happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)
A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database gets mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
You executed the following query:
SELECT operation, undo_sql, table_name FROM flashback_transaction_query;
Which statement is correct regarding the query output?
A. It would return information regarding only the last committed transaction.
B. It would return only the active transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
C. It would return only the committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
D. It would return both active and committed transactions in all the undo segments in the database.
E. It would return information regarding the transactions that began and were committed in the last 30 minutes.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
You are working in an online transaction processing (OLTP) environment. You used the FLASHBACK TABLE command to flash back the CUSTOMERS table. Before executing the FLASHBACK TABLE command, the System Change Number (SCN) was 663571. After flashing back the CUSTOMERS table, you realize that the table is not in the correct state and the resultant changes are not what you had desired. So, you need to reverse the effects of the FLASHBACK TABLE command while ensuring that:
A. No other user data in the database is affected.
B. The operation takes the minimum possible time.
Which option would you choose?
A. use the ROLLBACK command with SCN 663571
B. perform Flashback Transaction Query with SCN 663571
C. execute the FLASHBACK DATABASE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571
D. execute another FLASHBACK TABLE statement to retrieve the CUSTOMERS table as it was at SCN 663571

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 14
You have created a resource plan, PROD_DB_PLAN, that uses the RATIO policy. The following consumer groups and their respective plan directives have been assigned to this resource plan:
Consumer group HIGH_CG with CPU_P1 as 10. Consumer group MEDIUM_CG with CPU_P1 as 5. Consumer group LOW_CG with CPU_P1 as 2. Consumer group OTHER_GROUPS with CPU_P1 as 1.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. The plan PROD_DB_PLAN can have subplans.
B. The members of the HIGH_CG consumer group would get 10% of the CPU.
C. The CPU allocation for the consumer groups would be based on the ratio defined for the CPU_P1.
D. The CPU allocation would be equal between the HIGH_CG and MEDIUM_CG consumer groups if there are no sessions existing for the LOW_CG and OTHER_GROUPS consumer groups.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
You want to create a consumer group, GROUP1, and you execute the following command in the command-line interface:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER.CREATE_CONSUMER_GROUP (CONSUMER_GROUP =>’group1′, COMMENT => ‘New Group’);
This command errors out displaying the following message:
ERROR at line 1: ORA-29371: pending area is not active ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RMIN”, line 115 ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER”, line 108 ORA-06512: at line 1
What action would you take to overcome this error?
A. create the Pending Area before creating the consumer group
B. activate the Pending Area before creating the consumer group
C. increase the size of the large pool to accommodate the Pending Area
D. increase the size of the shared pool to accommodate the Pending Area
E. increase the size of the database buffer cache to accommodate the Pending Area

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
You are working on an Oracle Database 10g database. You enabled the Flashback Database feature. Which two statements regarding flashback logs are true? (Choose two.)
A. Flashback logs are not archived.
B. Flashback logs are maintained in redo log files.
C. Flashback logs are maintained in the Flash Recovery Area.
D. Flashback logs are used to maintain Flashback Databaserelated errors.
E. Flashback logs need to be cleared manually after you disable Flashback Database.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 17
You are connected to Recovery Manager (RMAN) without a recovery catalog. There is no copy of the control file available. You want to restore the control file from an autobackup. To retrieve the autobackup, you need the database ID (DBID). In which two sources would you find the DBID? (Choose two.)
A. the trace file
B. the alert log file
C. an RMAN session log file
D. the server parameter file
E. the formatted name of a control file autobackup

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 18
You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:
RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3;
What would be the output of this command?

A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
You have created a job class, CUST_JOB_1, with two jobs, CUST_JOB_1_A and CUST_JOB_1_B. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Both the jobs would be executed concurrently.
B. Jobs in the job class must have been assigned the same priority.
C. The member jobs would get dropped when the job class is dropped.
D. The member jobs would get disabled when the job class is dropped.
E. The attributes defined at the class level would be applied to both the jobs.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 20
When you start the database instance, it does not open after reaching the mount state. The initialization parameter DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE is set to 2 GB. The archive destination for the database is set to USE_DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST. While opening the database by using the ALTER DATABASE command, you receive the following error:
ERROR at line 1: ORA-16038: log 1 sequence# 1535 cannot be archived ORA-19809: limit exceeded for recovery files
Which is the operation after which you can open the database successfully?
A. Delete the obsolete files in RMAN after running the CROSSCHECK command.
B. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command.
C. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command, and then use RMAN to delete the expired files after running the CROSSCHECK command.
D. Delete unnecessary files from the Flash Recovery Area by using an OS command, and then run the RESYNC command in RMAN.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
In which two situations would you prefer to use a hash cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Evenly distributed key values are present in the table.
B. The applications occasionally use queries joining tables.
C. The data retrieval has to be in the order in which it was inserted.
D. The applications frequently modify a cluster key value in a constantly growing table.
E. The application frequently uses queries with an equality predicate on the cluster key.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 22
The warning and critical threshold values have been set to 85% and 97%, respectively, for one of the tablespaces. The current tablespace space usage is 54%. You modify the warning threshold to be 50% and critical threshold to be 53% in Database Control. Which statement is true?
A. The new setting would be applied but no alerts would be raised immediately.
B. The new setting would be applied and an alert would be raised immediately.
C. The new setting would be ignored because the tablespace space usage is more than the specified threshold value.
D. The new setting would cause an error because the tablespace space usage is more than the specified threshold value.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
You have decided to perform a full database export to check the consistency of a database. Which two statements are true regarding the limitations of this method in detecting database corruption?(Choose two.)
A. It does not detect index block corruptions.
B. It detects block corruptions in used as well as free extents.
C. It does not detect all the block corruptions in the SYSTEM tablespace.
D. It detects logical and physical block corruptions only when Direct path export is used.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 24
You decided to use the Flashback Drop feature to recover a dropped table called EMPLOYEES. There is no other table with the same name existing in the schema. You query the RECYCLEBIN and get the query output as displayed below:
SQL> SELECT OBJECT_NAME, ORIGINAL_NAME, DROPTIME FROM RECYCLEBIN;
OBJECT_NAME ORIGINAL_NAME DROPTIME ————————————————— ———————– —————————— BIN$/ m0DrBV9RFGOAA53dC+FPw==$0 EMPLOYEES 2007-04-09:11:08:55 BIN$2DeIssLeQTqgH/ n80Rm2JQ==$0 EMPLOYEES 2007-04-09:11:11:38 BIN$UuqroNodQy6ouDtaA+XOVw==$0 EMPLOYEES 2007-04-09:11:08:18
You then issue the following statement to recover the table:
SQL> FLASHBACK TABLE EMPLOYEES TO BEFORE DROP; What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. It retrieves the latest version of the table from the RECYCLEBIN.
B. It retrieves the oldest version of the table from the RECYCLEBIN.
C. It returns an error because the system-generated table name in the OBJECT_NAME column should have been specified as the table name.
D. It returns an error because the RENAME option should have been specified to convert the system-generated name of the retrieved table to the original name.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
You want an ASM instance to manage the files of your database. To achieve this objective, you specify the following parameters in the parameter file of the database:
INSTANCE_TYPE = RDBMS DB_NAME = PROD LARGE_POOL_SIZE = 8MB DB_BLOCK_SIZE = 4K LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST = +dgroupA LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = “$ORACLE_SID_%s_%t.%t” DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST = +dgroupA COMPATIBLE = 10.1.0.2.0 CONTROL_FILES = +dgroupA
Which parameter would be ignored while starting up the instance for the database PROD?
A. DB_BLOCK_SIZE
B. CONTROL_FILES
C. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
D. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST
E. LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT
F. DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 27
View the Exhibit.
You have more than one table in the recycle bin having the same original name, DEPT2. You do not have any table with the name DEPT2 in your schema. You executed the following command:
PURGE TABLE dept2;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. All the tables having the same original name as DEPT2 will be purged from the recycle bin.
B. The table with dropscn = 1928151 (oldest dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
C. The table with dropscn = 1937123 (most recent dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
D. None of the tables will be purged because there are multiple entries with the same original name in the recycle bin.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
You are working on an Oracle Database 10g database that operates in the ARCHIVELOG mode. At
06:00
p.m., you discovered that a table in the SYSTEM tablespace that does not belong to the data dictionary was dropped at 03:00 p.m. What would you do to recover the table?

A.
perform point-in-time recovery to recover the table

B.
recover the table by using the Flashback Table feature

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Question: 1
Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A – A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches the age of 21. B – Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without charging a fee. C – The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for $3,000 per month on a rent-free basis. D – A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago.

Answer: D
Question: 2
The following are facts concerning a decedent’s estate:
Taxable estate $1.700, 000 Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200, 000 Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50, 000 Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified charity 100, 000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A – $1,700,000 B – $1,750,000 C – $1,850,000 D – $1,900,000

Answer: B
Question: 3
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death. Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is correct?
A – An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is
includible at the date of death value. B – Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date. C – Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of
death if the executor so elects. D – Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death.

Answer: A
Question: 4
A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his death, the father was offered $1200, 000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center. The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father’s estate at its current use value. Additional facts are:
1.
Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.

2.
Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $6,000.

3.
The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Sank is 8 percent.

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for the farm of
A – $500,000 B – $600,000 C – $700,000 D – $820,000

Answer: B
Question: 5
Which of the following types of real properly ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common?
A – Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is real property. B – Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real properly, with each brother being able to divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will. C – Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the partnership business. D – Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.

Answer: B
Question: 6
Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in
a community-property state is correct?

A – All property owned by the couple is community property.
B – Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state

to a common-law state. C – Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property D – Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D
Question: 7
Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?

A – Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charily.
B – It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C – Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D – It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
Answer: B
Question: 8
On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A – The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during life time and at death.

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

B – The value of Betsy and John’s GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death rather than during life time.
C – The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the grandchildren.
D – Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.

Answer: D
Question: 9
The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
Gross estate Marital deduction Charitable deduction Funeral & administration expenses Gifts made after 1976 State death taxes payable $3,400,000 0 600,000 00,000 170,000 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A – $2,138,000 B – $2,358,000 C – $2,528,000 D – $2,720,000
Answer: C
Question: 10

On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy on his life. Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992 Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3200 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000
What is the value of the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A – $ 21,600 B – $23,200 C – $23,600 D – $200,000

Answer: C
Question: 11
A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists entirely of probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will receive all estate income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass equally to their two sons. He wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal estate taxes as possible. To best accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of the following estate plans in his will?
A – Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife B – Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

place the remainder in a QTIP trust C – Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of
his estate in a QTIP trust D – Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate

Answer: C
Question: 12
Among the assets in a decedent’s gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left to a nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes and expenses. The relevant facts about this estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000 Fair market value of stock in the closely held corporation 500,000 Administration and funeral expenses 25,000 State inheritance taxes 40,000 Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that the redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A – 0 B – $ 65,000 C – $225,000 D – $500,000

Answer: C
Question: 13
A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning his estate are:
Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000 Marital deduction 1,200,000 Applicable credit amount (2005) 555,800 Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000 State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which the tentative tax to be computed is over$1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is $345,800, plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over $1,250,000 but not over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over $2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800 plus 45% of the excess of such amount over $1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax payable is
A – 0 B – $103,320 C – $123,720 D – $128,280
Answer: B Question: 14

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A – Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B – Both come into being by operation of law.
C – Both are monitored by the courts.
D – Both are required to file income tax returns.
Answer: D
Question: 15
A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year:
Donee Amount of Gift A qualified charity $40000 A close friend 30,000 Her sister 5,000 Her daughter 15,000 Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A – $23,000 B – $45,000 C – $52,000 D – $95,000

Answer: A
Question: 16
A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons, aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint of providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best choice of trustee?
A – The grantor of the trust B – The grantor’s 70-year-old father C – The grantor’s 22-year-old son D – A bank or trust company

Answer: D
Question: 17
A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value Gift of listed stock to a qualified charity $100,000 Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000 Gift of a boat to his son 10,000 Gift of a sports car to his daughter 10,000 What amount must be brought back to the man’s estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the calculation of his federal estate taxes?

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

A – 0 B – $ 90,000 C – $280,000 D – $320,000

Answer: A
Question: 18
A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his descendants are as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children; A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower’s will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his children, per stripes, which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will receive?
A – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne B – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry C – $ 75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne D – $ 60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry

Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate planner?
A – Contracts B – Compatibility C – Consistency D – Compensation

Answer: D
Question: 20
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his death. He died this year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift was made in 1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for $200,000. She had a gain of
A – 0 B – $130,000 C – $160,000 D – $200,000

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400
Answer: A
Question: 21
The Decedent, T, died this year. The facts concerning T estate are:
Gross estate Marital deduction Charitable deductionGifts made after 1976 State death taxes payable $2,700,000 900,000 110,000 130,000 165,000
What is T taxable estate?
A – $1,285,000 B – $1,395,000 C – $1,525,000 D – $1,655,000
Answer: C
Question: 22

When the owner of a closely held business dies, the payment of a portion of the federal estate tax may be deferred for a period of several years if the estate otherwise qualifies under the provisions of IPC Section 6166. Which of the following statements concerning this deferral of federal estate tax is correct?
A – The interest rate on the deferred tax is determined by the prime rate in effect on the date of death. B – The interest on the unpaid estate tax is payable over the first 10 years, after which the tax plus interest on the balance is payable in equal installments for the last 5 years. C – To qualify for the tax deferral, the closely held business must represent more than 50 percent of the value of the decedent’s adjusted gross estate. D – Under certain circumstances, the estate will forfeit its right to tax deferral, and all the remaining unpaid estate tax will become due and payable immediately.

Answer: D
Question: 23
Which of the following statements concerning property is correct?

A – A mortgage on real estate is real property.
B – A tree growing on land is tangible personal property.
C – Any property that is not real property is personal property.
D – A bond issue secured solely by a corporation asset is tangible personal property.
Answer: C
Question: 24
Mr. Allen died early this year survived by his spouse Mrs. Allen. Among the items of family property are:
1.
A $300,000 life insurance policy on Mr. Allen’s life with Mrs. Allen designated as beneficiary. Mrs. Allen has been the owner of the policy ever since it was issued 4 years ago.

2.
The family residence with a fair market value of $400,000. Mr. and Mrs. Allen own the residence jointly with the right of survivorship even though Mr. Allen purchased it with his

separate funds.

3.
A$40,000 bank account. Mr. and Mrs. Allen own the account jointly with the right of

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

survivorship even though Mrs. Allen made all the deposits.
What amount of the family property will be included in Mr. Allen’s gross estate for federal estate tax purposes?
A – $220,000 B – $400,000 C – $500,000 D – $520,000

Answer: A
Question: 25
Under the terms of his will, a man left his residuary estate to a testamentary trust for the benefit of his wife. Which of the following powers with respect to the trust will cause the entire trust principal to be includible in the gross estate of the widow for federal estate tax purposes?
A – The power of the widow each year to direct the trustee to pay her the greater of 5 percent of the trust principal or $5,000 B – The power of the trustee in its sole discretion to distribute trust assets to the widow for any
reason satisfactory to the trustee C – The power of the widow to direct the trustee to use trust assets to pay her personal debts D – The testamentary limited or special power of the widow to direct the trustee to distribute trust
assets to her heirs.

Answer: C
Question: 26
Mr. Barlow died early this year. Under the terms of his will he left all his real estate and tangible personal property to his son. All the remainder of his probate estate was left to his wife, Mrs. Barlow. The following is a list of Mr. Barlow’s probate assets and their fair market values at the
time of his death:
Commercial real estate $200,000
Furniture and fixtures 100,000
Listed common stock 150,000
Notes receivable 250,000

In addition, Mrs. Barlow owned a $400,000 life insurance policy on Mr. Barlow’s life with Mr. Barlow’s estate designated as beneficiary. Based on this information, what is the amount of property in Mr. Barlow’s estate qualifying for the federal estate tax marital deduction?
A – $150,000 B – $400,000 C – $800,000 D – $1,100,000

Answer: C
Question: 27

Exam Name: Fundamentals of Estate Planning test
Exam Type: American College
Exam Code: HS330 Total Questions: 400

A married man died intestate, in addition to his wife, he was survived by two minor children and both his parents. Which of the following statements describes the typical intestate distribution in this situation?
A – The widow receives at least one-third of the estate and the children divide the remainder of the estate equally. B – The widow receives one-third of the estate and the remainder is divided equally among the two children and the parents of the decedent. C – The widow receives the entire probate estate as trustee for the benefit of the two minor children. D – The widow receives half the estate and the remaining halt is divided equally between the decedent’s parents.

Answer: A
Question: 28
It a grantor establishes an irrevocable trust; the income of the trust will be taxed to the grantor if it is used to pay premiums for life insurance on the life of
A – a child of the grantor B – the spouse of the grantor C – a grandchild of the grantor D – the father of the grantor

Answer: B
Question: 29
Which of the following statements concerning ownership of property under a tenancy by the
entirety is correct?

A – One tenant can freely transfer his or her property interest to a third person.
B – It is a form of property ownership available only to married persons.
C – The property will be in the probate estate of the first joint tenant to die.
D – It is a form of property ownership that applies only to personal property.

Answer: B

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HP, HP ExpertONE Certification

HP HP5-K03D Real Exam Questions And Answers, Provide Discount HP HP5-K03D Practice Exam On Our Store

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QUESTION NO: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

You are installing an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with an additional M6720 drive enclosure. Where should you install four LFF NL disks and four LFF SSDs in the new enclosure for a supported configuration’?
A. SSD drives in Slot 0, 4, 8, and 12; NL drives in Slot 16, 20, 1, and 5
B. SSD drives in Slot 0, 4, 8, and 12; NL drives in Slot 3, 7, 11, and 15
C. NL drives in Slot 0, 1, 2, and 3; SSD drives in Slot 4, 5, 6, and 7
D. NL drives in Slot 0, 3, 20, and 23; SSD drives in Slot 4, 16, 7, and 19
Answer: B Explanation:
LFF drives must be loaded in pairs of identical drives starting at the bottom of a column, leaving no empty slots between drives in the column. Columns of drives in the M6720 enclosure must be of the same type (SSD or NL) and, for HDDs, the same rotational speed. Drives of differenttypes may not be mixed in a single column. It is permitted to have empty columns between columns containing drives. Different columns do not have to contain the same number of drives
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has tested an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 in a try-and-buy scenario and now wants to buy the system. During the initial setup, the customer decides against a connection to HP 3PAR Central. The customer wants you to enable the connection in Secure Network Mode (SNM).
Which port should you enable on the customer’s firewall?

A. 20 (FTP)
B. 161 (SNMP)
C. 389 (LDAP)
D. 443 (HTTPS)
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the procedure change when you use HP 3PAR SmartStart during an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 installation?
A. A default password is no longer generated for the 3paradm account.
B. The serial ports on the system are disabled.
C. All hosts accessing LUNs on the system must be configured using HP 3PAR SmartStart.
D. The Virtual Service Processor must be used
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Your customer has a two-node HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 with two additional drive shelves. They have just purchased an additional 16 SFF drives. What must the customer do when adding the drives to the enclosures’?
A. Perform an autonomic rebalance after adding the drives,
B. Run System Tuner on the CPGs using the new drives.
C. Add a minimum of two drives to each enclosure
D. Attach the same number and type of drives to each node pair.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A customer has two HP 3PAR T800 systems with Inform OS v2.3.1 in two separate locations Data is being replicated between systems using Remote Copy. The customer wants you to develop a plan for upgrading the environment to the HP 3PAR OS v3.12.
What should you consider in your planning?
A. All participating systems must be upgraded to the same major OS within 5 weeks.
B. It is not necessary to stop the Remote Copy groups for online updates.
C. Downtime must be scheduled because you cannot upgrade online from v2.3 1 to v3.1 2 directly.
D. Necessary updates to the hosts as required in the Interoperability Matrix can be installed after the Inform OS update.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
To troubleshoot the storage system installation failure of an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000, HP support requests that you collect some logfiles. Which logfiles do you need to collect? (Select two.)
A. SPOCC log files
B. SP log files
C. SP audit log files
D. node boot messages log file
E. SmartStart log files
Answer: B,E
Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03607506/c0360750 6.pdf(see page 53, troubleshooting storage system setup)
QUESTION NO: 7
You support a leading provider with two new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 systems. Which statements concerning the disk drive configuration are true? (Select two.)
A. The DP1 of the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 is limited to three expansion drive enclosures.

B. The disk drives in the node enclosure are connected internally through DP2.
C. The combined total node and drive enclosure for the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 is nine
D. The DP2 of the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 is limited to three expansion drive enclosures.
E. The minimum addition to a two-node system without expansion drive enclosures is two identical disk drives.
Answer: B,D
Reference:http://vmfocus.com/2013/03/18/3par-storeserv-7000-hardware-part-3/(see driver enclosure expansion)
QUESTION NO: 8
Your customer has an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with an all-SSD configuration. They have a requirement for a second tier of higher capacity 300GB 15K drives You need to add the new FC class drives. What is the minimum number of disks you should include in your solution?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
You are performing an upgrade for a customer who has an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 with two nodes. The upgrade must fulfill the customer’s following needs
-more capacity and performance
-second node pair added to the system
–
capability for the system to use iSCSI and in the future FCoE

A.
that the storage system is rebalanced before the upgrade
What should you verify before and during the upgrade? (Select two.)

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HP, HP Technical Certified I - Workstations [2015]

HP HP5-H08D Study Guides, Help To Pass HP HP5-H08D Real Exam Covers All Key Points

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which products make up the current family of HP Mobile Z workstations?
A. HP ZBook 14. HP ZBook 17. and HP ZBook 18 mobile workstations
B. HP ZBook 12, HP ZBook. 15, and HP ZBook 17 mobile workstations
C. HP ZBook 15, HP ZBook 17. and HP Z8ook 18 mobile workstations
D. HP ZBook 14, HP ZBook 15, and HP ZBook 17 mobile workstations

Answer: C Explanation:
Reference:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA5-4926ENW.pdf

QUESTION NO: 2
What can the new HP zbook15 G2 MoDiie workstation host?
A. up to 4 processor cores and a choice of 6 professional graphics cards
B. up to 4 processor cores and a choice of 2 professional graphics cards
C. up to 6 processor cores and a choice of 2 professional graphics cards
D. up to 4 processor cores and a choice of 4 professional graphics cards

Answer: B Explanation:
Reference:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA5-4884ENW.pdf

QUESTION NO: 3
For value-conscious enterprise customers, what do the HP Desktop Z Workstations offer?
A. a7200 rpm spinning orlve that has siightry more capacity but slower performance
B. a 10K rpm spinning drive that has slightr>- less capacity hut faster performance
C. an HP Z Turbo Drive
D. a SATA SSD drive from 128 to 512 GB

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

Cisco 642-980 Question Description, 50% OFF Cisco 642-980 Study Material Are Based On The Real Exam

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QUESTION 1
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true regarding LACP configuration?
A. With LACP, you can bundle up to 16 interfaces in a channel group.
B. LACP configuration is global and can be only configured by admin.
C. After removing LACP configuration, you need to reboot the device.
D. You can disable LACP while any LACP configurations are present.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding vPC configuration? (Choose two.)
A. With vPC, there are no blocked ports.
B. vPC uses hash-based EtherChannel load balancing.
C. There are STP-blocked redundant links.
D. There is VLAN-based load balancing.
E. There is higher oversubscription.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Refer to exhibit.

Customer has a pair of Cisco Nexus7010s switches and connected to a single Cisco Nexus5548 switch via vPC. Customer has a combination of M1 and F1 I/O Modules in Cisco Nexus7010s.
Why is the design described not supported?
A. Mixing I/O Modules on the Same Side of a Peer Link is not supported
B. vPC does not support split control plane
C. You can not configure a vPC peer link to configure two devices as vPCs
D. Need to add another Cisco Nexus5548 switch to the topology to make this work. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding Cisco FabricPath?
A. It is necessary to first install the Cisco FabricPath feature set in the default VDC.
B. Cisco FabricPath is only available on Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches with the Supervisor 2 engine.
C. Cisco FabricPath cannot be disabled explicitly for a specific VDC.
D. If the Cisco FabricPath feature is not installed, the fabricpath keyword will be available in the feature-set command.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Your customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concerns are focused on using up the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP addresses, and IP address management. Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP addresses
D. use PVLANs, which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding STP?
A. When the spanning-tree topology is calculated based on default parameters, the path between the source and destination end stations in a switched network might not be ideal.
B. The path between the source and the destination end stations is always ideal with the default spanning-tree parameter.
C. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the speed of the link; the slowest link speed will become the root port during the election.
D. The path between the source and the destination end stations is determined by the lowest MAC address; the lowest MAC address will become the root port during the election.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
On the secondary vPC switch, under which circumstance does the vPC autorecovery feature not bring up the vPC member ports?
A. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the peer-keepalive link fails.
B. Peer link is up, and the peer-keepalive link fails.
C. Both vPC peers are reloaded, and the primary does not come back up.
D. Peer link fails, and subsequently, the primary switch fails.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying FCoE in its networ and has found that the connected host does not support FIP. Which command will be useful in troubleshooting this issue?
A. show platform fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
B. show platform fcoe_mgr info software interface vfc id
C. show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc id
D. show platform software interface fcoe_mgr info vfc id

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When configuring LLDP on Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, what is the purpose of LLDP hold time global configuration command?
A. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in milliseconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
B. LLDP holdtime option is to set the length of time in seconds that a device should save LLDP information received before discarding it
C. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in milliseconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface
D. LLDP holdtime option to is the length of time in seconds to wait before performing LLDP initialization on any interface

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network and sees pause counters increasing when it runs the command show interface eth1/5. What is the cause of this?
A. The CNA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
B. The HBA connected to the switch is sending Xon or Xoff PFC frames.
C. Pause counters increase regularly; there is nothing to be concerned about.
D. A firmware upgrade on the Fibre Channel adapter that is connected to the switch will fix this issue.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
On a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch, the VFC is stuck in the initializing state. Which QoS statements must be configured for FCoE to operate?
A. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy
B. system qos service-policy type qos input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input fcoe-default-in-policy service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
C. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos default-nq-policy
D. system qos service-policy type qos input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing input default-in-policy service-policy type queuing output fcoe-default-out-policy service-policy type network-qos fcoe-default-nq-policy

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
One of your Cisco Nexus Series interfaces has become errdisabled with the error message “DCX-No ACK in 100 PDUs”. How often are these acknowledgements exchanged?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

What command should you execute next in resolving a lock failure?
A. ntp execute
B. ntp commit
C. ntp lock
D. ntp help
E. ntp detail
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

The customer informs you of a problem they are encountering. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core upstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
B. The downstream switch does not have NPIV enabled.
C. NPIV has been disabled on all switches.
D. NPIV has been configured but not enabled on the uplink port.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having difficulty getting NPV working. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The core NPV device is not enabled.
B. The core NPV device is not a switch.
C. The core NPV device is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV device is not configured on the upstream port.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem getting NPV to work. What is causing the problem?
A. The core NPV switch port is not an F port.
B. The core NPV switch port is in a shutdown state.
C. The core NPV switch port is not configured on both ends.
D. The core NPV switch port is not configured on the other end.
E. The core NPV switch ports are in the wrong domain.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is having problems with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
D. VSANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.
E. VLANs are misconfigured on the upstream ports.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit.

When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

During a VSAN outage, you come across this configuration. Please select two possible causes? (Choose two)
A. no common VSANs on both switches
B. no common trunks
C. no common VSAN members in the same trunk
D. VSANs in trunk are the same, but the trunk is not up

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.

Correct Answer: A

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CCNP Service Provider, Cisco

Cisco 642-887 Cert Exam, Most Important Cisco 642-887 Practice Test With High Quality

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal class-map FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp exit policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit

B. configure terminal class-map FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp exit policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS bandwidth 2000000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy input POLICY_1 end commit
C. configure terminal access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21 policy-map POLICY_1 match ip access-list 100 bandwidth 2000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy output POLICY_1 end commit
D. configure terminal policy-map POLICY_1 class FTP_CLASS match protocol ftp bandwidth 2000000 exit exit interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 service-policy input POLICY_1 end commit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress,
classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
B. mpls ldp graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
C. mpls ldp nsr graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !
D. mpls ldp nsr graceful-restart graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5 graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 !

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 10000 exceed-action drop exit priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit

B. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS priority percent 10 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
C. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 1000 exceed-action drop exit priority level 1 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
D. configure policy-map VOICE_POLICY class VOICE_CLASS police rate 10 Mbps exceed-action shape exit priority level 1 exit exit interface FastEthernet 0/0/1 service-policy output VOICE_POLICY commit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 16
On the Cisco IOS XR, when using the match protocol command within a class-map to classify traffic, you noticed that the match protocol option on the Cisco IOS XR shows much fewer protocol options than on the Cisco IOS or IOS XE, like there is no option such as the match protocol yahoo-messenger command on the Cisco IOS XR. Why is this?
A. because the Cisco IOS XR router does not have the correct software packages installed
B. because when defining the class-map, the class-map type should be set to type inspect: class-map type inspect class-map-name command
C. because NBAR is not supported on the Cisco IOS XR

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