300-920 Exam Dumps [New] Benefit Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX Study Material

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Abbreviation: 300-920 DEVWBX
Full Name: Develop Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Test language: English
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Cost: $300
Relevant certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Topics:
Webex API Fundamentals, Webex Meetings, Webex Devices, Messaging, Embedding Webex, and Management and Compliance
Recommended Official Resource: Developing Apps for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Recommended study material: Pass4itSure 300-920 Exam Dumps

To earn the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional certification, you will need to pass two exams, one Core Exam (350-901 DEVCOR) and the Software Developer Intensive Exam of your choice (300-435 ENAUTO, 300-835 CLAUTO, 300-535 SPAUTO, 300-735 SAUTO, 300-910 DEVOPS, 300-920 DEVWBX). The 300-920 DEVWBX is one of them and the subject we’re talking about today, so you have to get through successfully.

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New 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions released [2022.6]:

QUESTION # 1

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.
B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.
C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.
D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

QUESTION # 2

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the expressions to create a Webex Teams widget that uses Guest Issuer to enable customers to chat
and meet with agents. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 3

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses Webex Teams extensively for communications involving customers and wants to
enforce a consistent messaging policy. Which code completes line 20 to send a notification when non-compliant
messages are detected?

A. events?resource=people
B. compliance?resource=messages
C. events?resource=messages
D. compliance?resource=people

Correct Answer: C
The function is to get messages. Then a request is made so they get to come into action and does
events?Resource=messages to get the data for the events.

QUESTION # 4

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on
the right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION # 5

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to construct the JavaScript to create a new meeting with the Webex Meetings
XML API. Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 6

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401
B. 403
C. 429
D. 501

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

QUESTION # 7

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over
a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.
B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.
C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.
D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.
E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boardscustomization-guide-ce98.pdf

QUESTION # 8

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording
file download links?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 9

Which two statements are true when comparing the SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces of a Cisco Collaboration
device? (Choose two.)

A. The SSH interface supports XML payloads only.
B. The SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces support JSON and XML payloads.
C. The HTTP interface supports JSON and XML payloads.
D. Communications can be encrypted for all SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces.
E. The WebSocket interface supports JSON payloads only.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION # 10

DRAG-DROP
The Express framework receives a Webex Teams webhook event when someone presses a button in an Adaptive
Card. Drag and drop the property names onto the code snippet to access the form field named “preference”. Not all
options are used.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://github.com/marchfederico/ciscospark-websocket-events

QUESTION # 11

Which list of API calls must be made to provision 50 new Webex Room devices for an organization?

A. POST to /places with `displayName\\’, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/
B. POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/activationCode
C. POST to /licenses, POST the returned `licneseId\\’ and a specified `displayName\\’ to /devices
D. POST to /licenses, POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST `licensed\\’ and placeId\\’ to /devices

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/devices/list-devices

QUESTION # 12

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the expressions from the right onto the Webex JavaScript SDK code on the left to create a Webex
Teams space, add a person to the space, and send a welcome message. Not all expressions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 13

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an
organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.
B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.
C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\\’s “” value to “TRUE”.
D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.
E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-TeamsSecurity-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

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300-720 Dumps [Updated] Perfect Cisco 300-720 SESA Preparation Material

When you prepare for the Cisco 300-720 exam, you must be equipped with an updated 300-720 dumps. Because the 300-720 dumps are your perfect 300-720 SESA preparation material.

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Cisco 300-720 exam details: 300-720 (SESA) wondering?

Introduction 300-720 (SESA):

Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Security
Exam Code: 300-720 SESA
Exam Title: Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
language: English
Cost: $300
This exam tests:
Learning Resources:
1 Cisco Learning Platform
2 Instructor-led training
3 Practice Tests – Pass4itSure 300-720 dumps
4 books

CCNP Security Certification 

To earn the CCNP Security credential, you need to pass two exams: a core exam 350-701 SCOR and an optional security concentration exam. 300-720 is a self-selected security concentration exam, and the necessity of passing it can be imagined.

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Where can I find the 300-720 exam questions? Share your 300-720 free dumps some exam questions below:

QUESTION # 1

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query
B. Update Frequency
C. Server Priority
D. Entity ID

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Ad
min_Guide_11_5/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5_chapter_01010.html

QUESTION # 2

A company has deployed a new mandate that requires all emails sent externally from the Sales Department to be
scanned by DLP for PCI-DSS compliance. A new DLP policy has been created on the Cisco ESA and needs to be
assigned to a mail policy named ‘Sales’ that has yet to be created. Which mail policy should be created to accomplish this task?

A. Outgoing Mail Policy
B. Preliminary Mail Policy
C. Incoming Mail Flow Policy
D. Outgoing Mail Flow Policy

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_010001.html#task_1409483

QUESTION # 3

What are two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject
B. workqueue
C. action
D. delivery
E. quarantine

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_12_1_chapter_011.pdf
(p.1)

QUESTION # 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?

A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all
B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all
C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all
D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 5

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy match using a specific sender, the
email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason of this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.
C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.
D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 6

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering
B. message exceptions
C. message detachment
D. message aggregation

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 7

Which feature utilizes sensor information obtained from Talos intelligence to filter email servers connecting into the
Cisco ESA?

A. SenderBase Reputation Filtering
B. Connection Reputation Filtering
C. Talos Reputation Filtering
D. SpamCop Reputation Filtering

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 8

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan
B. attachment scanning timeout
C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type
D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-onav/td-p/3923243

QUESTION # 9

Which method enables an engineer to deliver a flagged message to a specific virtual gateway address in the most
flexible way?

A. Set up the interface group with the flag.
B. Issue the altsrchost command.
C. Map the envelope sender address to the host.
D. Apply a filter on the message.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html#con_1133810

QUESTION # 10

What is a benefit of enabling external SPAM quarantine on Cisco SMA?

A. It provides access to the SPAM quarantine interface on which a user can release, duplicate, or delete.
B. It provides the ability to scan messages by using two engines to increase a catch rate.
C. It provides the ability to consolidate SPAM quarantine data from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.
D. It provides the ability to back up SPAM quarantine from multiple Cisco ESAs to one central console.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 11

When outbreak filters are configured, which two actions are used to protect users from outbreaks? (Choose two.)

A. redirect
B. return
C. drop
D. delay
E. abandon

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA
_Admin_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION # 12

Which process is skipped when an email is received from safedomain.com, which is on the safelist?

A. message filter
B. antivirus scanning
C. outbreak filter
D. antispam scanning

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/214269-filter-to-handlemessages-that-skipped-d.html

QUESTION # 13

What is the default behavior of any listener for TLS communication?

A. preferred-verify
B. off
C. preferred
D. required

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118954-config-esa-00.html

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500-560 Dumps [Updated] Valid Cisco 500-560 OCSE Exam Learning Materials

The 500-560 dumps update is the Cisco 500-560 OCSE exam learning materials valid for the Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions exams.

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Need help passing the Cisco 500-560 OCSE exam? help?

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Abbreviations: 500-560 OCSE
Full name: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions Exam
Number of questions: 45 – 55
Exam language: English
Exam duration: 60 minutes
Associated Certification: Cisco Express Specialization – Networking Track
Passing score: 700 (1-1000)
Cisco exam 500-560 topics:
Switching Overview and Features
Routing Overview and Features
Wireless Overview and Features
Meraki Overview and Products
Security Overview and Features
Recommended official resources: Cisco Networking: On-Premise and Cloud Solutions

Points to note 1. Arrange your exam reasonably 2. Be sure to understand the exam policy 3. Effective study materials for exam preparation

It is also important to overcome anxiety and fear of failure.

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Published latest 500-560 (learning materials) free dumps questions answers:

QUESTION # 1

Which Cisco product is the network management system,foundational controller,and analytics platform all the center of
……. network?

A. Cisco DNA Spaces
B. Cisco Meraki
C. Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco Wireless Solutions

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 2

What option or options can customers use for multi-site management with Mobility Express?

A. WebUl
B. Prime 3.4 or DNA Center
C. mobile app
D. WebUI or mobile app

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 3

What is one charlatanistic differentiating the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?

A. comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
B. instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. centralized single pane of glass for access and management

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 4

Which Catalyst 9800 series controller would you recommend for a small branch and campus deployments up to 200
APs?

A. Catalyst 9800-SW
B. Catalyst 9800-CL
C. Catalyst 9800-40
D. Catalyst 9800-80

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 5

Which statement is true about Cisco Mobility Express?

A. It must be connected to a separate physical wireless controller to provide full enterprise features.
B. It can be deployed in under 10 minutes with an easy 3-stepover-the-air configuration wizard.
C. It comes with a simple, easy-to-use vManage dashboard.
D. Customers must purchase a license to support more than 50 APs.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 6

What is the term given to cloud-brokered site-to-site VPN tunnels built using Cisco Meraki MX security Appliances?

A. Auto-provisioning IPsec VPN (Auto VPN)
B. Secure Shell tunneling (SSH)
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D. Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN)

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 7

Which product is considered part of the Cisco Meraki full stack?

A. UCS servers
B. MR wireless access points
C. Aironet wireless access points
D. Catalyst switches

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 8

Which combination of MS switch models is supported foe physical stacking with each other?

A. MS120-8 and MS120-24
B. MS350-48 and MS350-24X
C. MS225-48 and MS350-48
D. MS225-24 and MS425-16

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 9

Which three product capabilities allow Cisco DNA Spaces to deliver business value?

A. Sense, Act, and Partner
B. View, Interpret, and Act
C. See, Anticipate, and Respond
D. See, Act, and Extend

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 10

What is one-way Catalyst 9200 achieves IT simplicity?

A. view all network devices on a single pane of glass dashboard
B. remote wipe any device on the network
C. direct access devices wirelessly via OTA with Bluetooth
D. enable virtual stacking

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 11

What Cisco AirOS-based controller would you recommend to a customer who needs a physical controller tor a network
up to 150 APIs?

A. Mobility Express
B. Cisco 8540
C. Cisco 3504
D. Cisco WLC

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 12

What feature of the Catalyst 2960-L allows customers to get a small branch or office network running within minutes?

A. support for Cisco DNA center
B. on-box web interface for configuration
C. flexible deployments with Stackwise-160
D. complete CLI support

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 13

What is the key architectural component that allows Cisco Meraki\’s datacenters to be fully HIPAA and PCI compliant?

A. non-existent command line interface
B. controller and server-free design
C. Layer 7 application fingerprinting
D. out-of-band control plane

Correct Answer: D

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300-420 Dumps [Update]Most Useful Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks Online Resource

The only unavoidable online resource for successfully passing the Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam is the 300-420 dumps. Exactly, the updated 300-420 dumps are the most efficient online resource for you to learn Cisco Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks.

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What do you need to know most about the 300-420 exam?

Pick out the key points and talk about the next 300-420 exam

CCNP Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is one of the CCNP Enterprise certification intensive exams (300-410 ENARSI, 300-415 ENSDWI, 300-420 ENSLD, 300-425 ENWLSD, 300-430 ENWLSI, 300-435 ENAUTO). Passing the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam is also required to pass the core exam – 350-401 ENCOR in order for you to receive the CCNP Enterprise certification.

Speaking of CCNP Enterprise Certification, let me just say what are the points to note?

  • There are no formal prerequisites, but you should have a good understanding of the exam topics before taking the exam.
  • Candidates need to have three to five years of experience implementing enterprise networking solutions.

Some resource links to share:

CCNP Enterprise At-a-glance

Frequently asked questions

Legacy CCNP migration tools

Practice Cisco (ENSLD) 300-420 Free Dumps First:

QUESTION 1

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?

A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which two routing protocols allow for unequal cost load balancing? (Choose two.)

A. EIGRP
B. IS-IS
C. BGP
D. OSPF
E. RIPng

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

An ISP provides Layer 3 VPN service over MPLS to a customer with four branches and multiple CE routers at each
branch. To exchange the routes that are learned from the CE routers, which BGP address family should the ISP activate
among the PE routers?

A. address-family multicast
B. L2VPN EVPN
C. VPNv4 unicast
D. IPv4 unicast

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

An engineer must design a solution to connect a customer to the Internet. The solution will include a Layer 3 circuit with a CIR of 50 Mbps from the service provider. The hand-off from the provider\’s switch to the customer\’s router is 1Gbps. Which solution should the engineer include to prevent potential issues with choppy voice traffic?

A. Reduce the bandwidth of the connection to the router.
B. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent policing policy.
C. Implement hierarchical QoS with a parent shaping policy.
D. Add a bandwidth statement to the router interface.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning
B. primary authentication point
C. NAT traversal facilitation
D. Zero Touch Provisioning
E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the Yang model they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 7

The customer solution requires QoS to support streaming multimedia over a WAN. An architect chooses to use Per-Hop
Behavior. Which solution should the engineer use to classify and mark traffic traveling between branch sites?

A. CBWFQ with DSCP AF2
B. LLQ with DSCP EF
C. CBWFQ with DSCP AF3
D. LLQ with DSCP AF4

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

In the SD-WAN underlay network, which WAN Edge VPN ID is defined as the transport VPN and is used to carry control
traffic?

A. VPN 0
B. VPN 512
C. VPN 128
D. VPN 256

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application
between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?

A. AFT for public web presence
B. host-initiated tunnels
C. dual stack
D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11

An architect must address sustained congestion on the access and distribution uplink of network. QoS has already been
implemented and optimized, but it is no longer effective in ensuring optimal network performance. Which two solutions
should the architect use to improver network performance. (Choose two)

A. Reconfigure QoS based on the IntServ model
B. Utilize random early detection to manage queues
C. Implement higher-speed uplink interfaces
D. Bundle additional uplinks into logical EtherChannels
E. Configure selective packet discard to drop noncritical network traffic.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is running HSRP on the core routers. Over time the company has grown and requires more network
capacity. In the current environment, some of the downstream interfaces are almost fully utilized, but others are not.
Which solution improves the situation?

A. Make router R2 active for half of the VLANs.
B. Add more interfaces to R1 and R2.
C. Configure port channel toward downstream switches.
D. Enable RSTP on the downstream switches.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

What are two benefits of designing an SD-WAN network fabric with direct Internet access implemented at every site?
(Choose two.)

A. It decreases latency to applications hosted by public cloud service provider.
B. It decreases latency on Internet circuits.
C. It increases the speed of delivery of site deployments through zero-touch provisioning.
D. It increases the total available bandwidth on Internet circuits.
E. It alleviates network traffic on MPLS circuits.

Correct Answer: AE

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300-610 Dumps [Update] Most Useful 300-610 DCID Online Resource

Most of us are ordinary people, as ordinary people preparing for the Cisco CCNP certification 300-610 (DCID) exam, there is an urgent need to choose excellent 300-610 online resources as suitable preparation materials. The latest Cisco 300-610 dumps meet your needs and are available from Pass4itSure.

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What should you focus on for the 300-610 exam

Exam Information

Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure (DCID)

Abbreviation: 300-610 DCID
Exam duration: 90 minutes
Language: English
Exam fee: $300, plus tax or use Cisco Learning Credits

Associated certifications:

Two points of attention

  1. Be aware that certification exams are overdue.
    It is generally valid for three years from the date of adoption.
  2. Once certified, you will have the right to use the Cisco Certification logo that identifies you. Before using the logo, you must read and confirm the Cisco Certified Logo Protocol.
Cisco CCNP Data Center

Next, focus on this certification(CCNP Data Center):

To qualify for the Cisco CCNP Data Center, you need to pass two exams: the core exam and the optional data center concentration exam.

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Practice is also needed. Practice the latest Cisco 300-610 DCID exam Q&A daily. Next you may ask where to get the practice questions. Don’t worry, I’m sharing below with your free dumps practice Q&A 1-13.

QUESTION 1

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 2

A storage engineer requires a solution that achieves multiple paths between a server and storage array. The design
must support complete traffic isolation and support a 50% growth in the next year. Which FCoE solution meets these
requirements?

A. single switch with multiple links
B. at least two VSANs across the fabric
C. at least two FC zone sets with multiple zones
D. single VSAN across the fabric

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/dmm/dm
mcfg/toplgy.html

QUESTION 3

A company has several data centers around the world that must be interconnected over Layer2. The service provider
supports MPLS services to all the locations. The proposed solution must be vendor agnostic and scalable enough to
support the rapid growth of the company. Which data center technology is recommended to achieve this goal?

A. OTV
B. VXLAN EVPN
C. FabricPath
D. EoMPLS

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A network engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution based on these requirements:
two clusters in the main data center consisting of five HyperFlex nodes one edge node for the remote branch cluster
nodes that use one rack unit of space. Which two devices should be used in the remote branch cluster for this design? (Choose two.)

A. UCS B200
B. Gigabit Ethernet Switch
C. Fabric Interconnect 6300
D. HX240c
E. HX220c

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en_in/products/hyperconverged-infrastructure/hyperflex-hx240c-m4-nodes-ucsb200-blade-servers/index.html

QUESTION 5

Where does Cisco UCS handle Fibre Channel traffic failover?

A. on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect ASIC in Fibre Channel switching mode
B. on the host, by using multipathing software
C. in the hardware on the Cisco UCS VIC 12xx adapter or later
D. in the hardware on any Cisco UCS VIC adapter

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer needs an orchestration and monitoring tool that should be used for managing the storage networks and
VXLAN fabrics. The tool should also allow support built-in dashboard and real-time health summary for managed
devices. Which tool meets these requirements?

A. Cisco Intersight
B. Ansible
C. Puppet
D. Cisco DCNM

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

An engineer must design a Cisco HyperFlex solution to support a virtualized environment in a single data center
location. The design must consider these customer requirements:

1. a large-scale cluster with eight or more nodes
2. distributed high-performance file system for virtualized servers
3. high fault tolerance to multiple node failures Which action meets these objectives?
A. Configure data destaging and deduplication.
B. Implement a replication factor of four.
C. Enable logical availability zones.
D. Create multiple datastores for storage of VM.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

A database administrator experiences delay when performing storage replication between primary and secondary data
centers. The data centers are located 20 kilometers apart and are connected using a 500 Mbps link. The deployment
was implemented using an FCIP tunnel and a pair of Cisco MDS 9250 Series Switches. The network engineer decided
to enable QoS to prioritize replication traffic. Which QoS model must be used to resolve the performance issues?

A. Resource Reservation Protocol
B. weighted round robin
C. differentiated services
D. strict priority queuing

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the configurations from the left onto the correct policies on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Config
uration_Guide_2_2/configuring_network_related_policies.html#task_7F03A03C719A4A44B8ACFAD73AADC73C

QUESTION 10

An engineer must use OTV for Layer 2 connectivity between data centers to support virtual machine mobility between
the customer sites. To support this requirement, the engineer must ensure the existence of the same default gateway
on both sites. Additionally, the operations team reports high bandwidth utilization on site A and wants to optimize the
outbound traffic flows to use a local DC exit point. Which feature must be used to meet these requirements?

A. data group
B. FHRP filter
C. ARP filter
D. control group

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Which feature must be configured to connect a classical Ethernet network to a data center network so that the data
center network appears to be one large switch?

A. vPC+
B. UDLD
C. EVPN
D. OSPF

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Server 1 fails to connect to the storage array over the Storage Area Network (SAN) of the Cisco NDS 9000 Series
Switch. The requirements are to redesign the storage network and keep these considerations in mind:
The traffic from each of the server must be redundant and isolated.
The design must tolerate hardware and software failures and upgrades of SAN fabric devices.

Which action must be taken to meet these requirements?

A. Enable NPV and F-Port-channel on ports that face Server 1 on the Fibre Channel switch to create redundant paths.
B. Create a SAN port channel that faces the storage device to sustain a link failure.
C. Add an additional supervisor to the Fibre Channel switch to support nondisruptive upgrades.
D. Place an additional Fibre Channel switch to create two physically independent storage fabrics.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

An engineer is operating data center environment that hosts data-intensive financial applications. The applications are
mostly processing HTTP/HTTPS data with large data segments, which results in a CPU contention due to the significant
network processing. Which set of the Ethernet adapter policies must be selected to resolve the issue?

A. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 32 Ring Size field: 256
B. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Disabled Transmit Queues
field: 64 Ring Size field: 128
C. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Enabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 128 Ring Size field: 64
D. Receive Checksum Offload field set to Disabled TCP Segmentation Offload field set to Enabled Transmit Queues
field: 256 Ring Size field: 128

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/NetworkMgmt/4-0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0/b_UCSM_Network_Mgmt_Guide_4_0_chapter_01010.html

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820-605 Dumps [Updated] Online Real Exam Preparation Materials

Prepare for the highly competitive and challenging Cisco Customer Success Manager exam with the Cisco (DTCSM) 820-605 dumps update.

We have updated the 820-605 dumps with all valid questions and answers. You can rest assured that you can successfully pass the exam with the help of the real exam preparation material 820-605 dumps. Download Cisco 820-605 dumps now: https://www.pass4itsure.com/820-605.html PDF, VCE.

Update Free Dumps 820-605 Questions Released [2022]

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Q1#

Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with this RACI example?

A. Every task should have four people consulted.
B. No one has multiple roles.
C. More stakeholders should be involved.
D. Too many people are accountable for this task.

Correct Answer: D

Q2#

A client deployed a new collaboration solution six months ago. Utilization telemetry indicates only 60% of activated
users are engaging with the solution. Which two actions should the Customer Success Manager recommend to the
client? (Choose two.)

A. Have marketing write a blog post about the new solution.
B. Encourage the customer to purchase updated endpoints.
C. Block all alternative chat and video collaboration systems.
D. Conduct a survey to determine which collaboration solutions users are using.
E. Advertise additional user training sessions throughout the organization.

Correct Answer: DE

Q#3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken by Customer Success Manager?

A. Recommend expansion opportunities.
B. Review the financial index.
C. Develop a customer testimonial.
D. Identify the adoption barriers.

Correct Answer: D

Q4#

The customer wants to improve operational expenditure and reduce the C02 footprint of the organization. Which two
business outcomes are critical to the company\’s success? (Choose two.)

A. sustainability
B. credibility
C. time to market
D. business growth
E. cost efficiency

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.1080/17583004.2017.1386533

Q5#

What is the best method to measure customer consumption of technology?

A. telemetry and analytics
B. recurring revenue management
C. enterprise CRM and incident management
D. content management

Correct Answer: A

Q6#

Who does a Customer Success Manager work with to overcome a technical solution adoption barrier encountered by a
customer?

A. Customer Success Specialist
B. Technical Engineer
C. Sales Engineer
D. Solutions Product Manager

Correct Answer: B

Q7#

Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome?

A. milestones
B. key performance indicators
C. metrics
D. benchmarks

Correct Answer: D

Q#8

As a Customer Success Manager, what is the most important metric to uncover during onboarding?

A. cost
B. value
C. benefit
D. customer relationship

Correct Answer: B

Q9#

DRAG DROP
The Customer Success Manager is preparing for a review meeting. The customer has asked for a balance between
subjective and objective metrics. Drag and drop the inputs from the left onto the correct subjective and objective
categories on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Q10#

Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the
Customer Success Manager\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.)

A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress
B. successful contract renewal
C. green health scores over intermittent time periods
D. continuing results based on unexpected value
E. results that are not measurable

Correct Answer: AB

Q11#

Which two steps in the customer lifecycle approach are owned by the sales and marketing team? (Choose two.)

A. Experience
B. Evaluation
C. Awareness
D. Deployment
E. Adoption

Correct Answer: CE

Q12#

Which definition of customer success is true?

A. It is the business methodology of ensuring that customers achieve their expected and unexpected outcomes while
using your product or service.
B. It is a business methodology for increasing recurring revenues by minimizing the risk of churn while driving adoption
and expansion.
C. It is the business methodology of ensuring that customers are always on the latest software releases and
subscription contracts so that they can focus on the core business activities that make them successful.
D. It is a measure of the Net Promoter Score that results from a disciplined engagement of sales, services, marketing,
and customer success teams working seamlessly to deliver a positive experience for the customer.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/guides/the-essential-guide-to-customer-success/

Q13#

How are operating expenses (OpEx) different from capital expenses (CapEx)?

A. OpEx are investments a company pays for up-front, while CapEx are the on-going costs to run a business.
B. OpEx includes software licenses with contracts that have user rights in perpetuity, while CapEx includes software
services that are easily reconfigured.
C. OpEx is expenses for the day-to-day operation of a business, while CapEx is investments in assets.
D. OpEx has depreciation, while there is no deprecation with CapEx.

Correct Answer: C

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350-701 Dumps Updated Great Help In Passing The Cisco SCOR Exam

With the updated 350-701 dumps, you can successfully pass the Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR) exam.

We have updated the 350-701 dumps with 492+ new practice questions and answers to help you successfully prepare, pass exams and achieve high scores.

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1. Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)

A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol

Correct Answer: BC

2. Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

A. SDN controller and the network elements
B. management console and the SDN controller
C. management console and the cloud
D. SDN controller and the cloud

Correct Answer: A

The Southbound API is used to communicate between Controllers and network devices

3. Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A. transparent mode
B. routed mode
C. inline mode
D. active mode
E. passive monitor-only mode

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/asdm72/firewall/asa-firewall-asdm/modulessfr.html

4. Refer to the exhibit.
How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled, and allowed.
B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.
C. Traffic is proxied through the intelligent proxy.
D. Traffic is allowed but logged.

Correct Answer: B

5. In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

A. hypervisor
B. virtual machine
C. network
D. application

Correct Answer: D

6. What is the difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

A. GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub
B. GETVPN provides key management and security association management
C. GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1
D. GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Correct Answer: A

7. How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?

A. per policy
B. in the Reporting settings
C. in the Security Settings section
D. per network in the Deployments section

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/log-management

8. What is the capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

A. It filters NSEL events based on traffic
B. It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured
C. It logs all event types only to the same collector
D. It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active-standby failover pair

Correct Answer: A

9.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the Python script accomplish?

A. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username or said.
B. It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE.
C. It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.
D. It allows authentication with the TLSv1 SSL protocol.

Correct Answer: A

10. What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A. to register new laptops and mobile devices
B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device
C. to provision userless and agentless systems
D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-4/mydevices/b_mydevices_2x.html

11. Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

A. File Analysis
B. SafeSearch
C. SSL Decryption
D. Destination Lists

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://support.umbrella.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004564126-SSL-Decryption-in-the-IntelligentProxy

12. An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server
devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to
authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however, it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to
accept the server\’s authentication key?

A. ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1
B. ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1
C. ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1
D. ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

Correct Answer: B

To configure an NTP enabled router to require authentication when other devices connect to it, use the following
commands:
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Server(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Server(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
Then you must configure the same authentication key on the client router:
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authentication-key 2 md5 certbus
NTP_Client(config)#ntp authenticate
NTP_Client(config)#ntp trusted-key 2
NTP_Client(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1 key 2
Note: To configure a Cisco device as an NTP client, use the command NTP server.
For example:
Router(config)#ntp server 10.10.10.1.
This command will instruct the router to query 10.10.10.1 for the time.

13. An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent
the session during the initial TCP communication?

A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails
B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails
C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication
D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Correct Answer: A

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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-900.aspx

This exam is designed for candidates looking to demonstrate foundational level knowledge of cloud services and how those services are provided with Microsoft Azure. The exam is intended for candidates with non-technical backgrounds, such as those involved in selling or purchasing cloud based solutions and services or who have some involvement with cloud based solutions and services,as well as those with a technical background who have a need to validate their foundational level knowledge around cloud services.Technical IT experience is not required however some general IT knowledge or experience would be beneficial.

This exam can be taken as an optional first step in learning about cloud services and how those concepts are exemplified by Microsoft Azure.
It can be taken as a precursor to Microsoft Azure or Microsoft cloud services exams. While it would be a beneficial first step,
validating foundational level knowledge, taking this exam is not a pre-requisite before taking any other Azure-based certifications

Microsoft Certifications: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-list.aspx

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Latest effective Microsoft AZ-900 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure environment that contains 10 virtual networks and 100 virtual machines.
You need to limit the amount of inbound traffic to all the Azure virtual networks.
What should you create?
A. one network security group (NSG)
B. 10 virtual network gateways
C. 10 Azure ExpressRoute circuits
D. one Azure firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
A. dedicated hardware
B. unsecured connections
C. limited storage
D. metered pricing
E. self-service management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Linux and has the Azure CLI tools installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your Azure environment contains multiple Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 is accessible from the Internet over HTTP.
Solution: You modify a DDoS protection plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
To what should an application connect to retrieve security tokens?
A. an Azure Storage account
B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. a certificate store
D. an Azure key vault
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
When you are implementing a software as a service (SaaS) solution, you are responsible for configuring high
availability.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. defining scalability rules
C. installing the SaaS solution
D. configuring the SaaS solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure policies provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure and for implementing
consistency across the Azure environment.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Resource groups provide
C. Azure Resource Manager provides
D. Management groups provide
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs macOS and has PowerShell Core 6.0 installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which Azure service should you use to correlate events from multiple resources into a centralized repository?
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure Analysis Services
C. Azure Monitor
D. Azure Log Analytics
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to purchase Azure.
The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers
by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement.
Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Chrome OS and uses Azure Cloud Shell.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You have an on-premises network that contains several servers.
You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure data center goes
offline for an extended period.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. fault tolerance
B. elasticity
C. scalability
D. low latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company plans to purchase Azure.
The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers
by phone or email. You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement.
Solution: Recommend a Premier support plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

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Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

This exam measures your ability to understand the following concepts: cloud concepts; core Azure services; security, privacy, compliance, and trust; and Azure pricing and support.

[PDF] Free Microsoft AZ-900 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1hVWxot8NdpQFoi5h1M0Ni2541Nlr6FQB

[PDF] Free Full Microsoft pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1gdQrKIsiLyDEsZ24FxsyukNPYmpSUDDO

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2021 Microsoft new free dumps collection

We all know that Microsoft will add some certifications every year and eliminate a batch of old certifications. Of course, there will be a certain period of transition for the certifications obtained early, but you will definitely need to take a new exam to face the later work.

2019-2021 is the period where Microsoft has changed the most. Microsoft has eliminated many exam certifications, but these eliminated certifications have corresponding replacement exams. These are the progress of the times. We should not complain, we should Accept it, and this is also a very good opportunity. Let more people participate in new challenges.

exam expited

For certifications earned before June 30, 2021

Certifications earned prior to June 30, 2021 @12am GMT (June 29, 2021 @5pm PT) are valid for two (2) years from the date that all requirements for the certification are completed. Certifications earned after this date and time are valid for one (1) year. For more information, read the announcement about the policy change.

Hey, brothers, you heard it right. This is a very challenging one, especially when a person has a lot of certificates to re-verify.

My share:

Today I will share three very important Microsoft exams, Microsoft Certified: Azure Network Engineer Associate (AZ-700), Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Support Engineer Associate (MS-740), Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate (MB-340).

These three exams are released in 2021. Each of the three exams has its own professional knowledge.

AZ-700: Possess the subject expertise of planning, implementing, and maintaining Azure network solutions, including hybrid networks, connections, and routing Security, and private access to Azure services.

MS-740: Support engineers who use advanced troubleshooting methods to support the Microsoft Teams environment, analyze telemetry and log data, troubleshoot deployments, and adjust performance. Candidates should review logs and other data, infer the root cause of the problem, and provide repairs.

MB-340: Set up and use application functions in Dynamics 365 Commerce, and provide support for the application. These are the prerequisites for passing the exam.

All three exams require 700 points and a total score of 1000 points. It’s not that difficult, right? But if you need to take multiple exams, it must be a headache. I must smile badly here. Is it difficult again?

These are some of my collated information. Next, I will share AZ-700 Free Dumps, MS-740 Free Dumps, MB-340 Free Dumps. I will share them in order.

Here I have made an anchor list, you can click on the area you want to go to (and at the bottom of each area I will share an exam PDF and a complete Lead4Pass exam dumps)

Microsoft AZ-700 Free Dumps

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps

Microsoft free dumps

Microsoft AZ-700 Free Dumps

Question 1:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure environment shown in the following exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q1-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-peering-gateway-transit?toc=/azure/virtual-network/toc.json


Question 2:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure private DNS zone named contoso.com that is linked to the virtual networks shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2

You manually add the following entry to the contoso.com zone:

Name: VM1

IP address: 10.1.10.9

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q2-2

Explanation:

Box 1: No

The manual DNS record will overwrite the auto-registered DNS record so VM1 will resolve to 10.1.10.9.

Box 2: No

The DNS record for VM1 is now a manually created record rather than an auto-registered record. Only auto-registered DNS records are deleted when a VM is deleted.

Box 3: No

This answer depends on how the IP address is changed. To change the IP address of a VM manually, you would need to select ‘Static’ as the IP address assignment. In this case, the DNS record will not be updated because only DHCP

assigned IP addresses are auto-registered.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/dns/dns-faq-private


Question 3:

HOTSPOT

Your company has an Azure virtual network named Vnet1 that uses an IP address space of 192.168.0.0/20. Vnet1 contains a subnet named Subnet1 that uses an IP address space of 192.168.0.0/24.

You create an IPv6 address range to Vnet1 by using a CIDR suffix of /48.

You need to enable the virtual machines on Subnet1 to communicate with each other by using IPv6 addresses assigned by the company. The solution must minimize the number of additional IPv4 addresses.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q3

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q3-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/ipv6-overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/ipv6-add-to-existing-vnet-powershell


Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You plan to deploy Azure Virtual WAN.

You need to deploy a virtual WAN hub that meets the following requirements:

Supports 10 sites that will connect to the virtual WAN hub by using a Site-to-Site VPN connection

Supports 8 Gbps of ExpressRoute traffic

Minimizes costs

What should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q4

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-wan/virtual-wan-about


Question 5:

HOTSPOT You are planning an Azure solution that will contain the following types of resources in a single Azure region: Virtual machine

Azure App Service Virtual Network gateway Azure SQL Managed Instance

App Service and SQL Managed Instance will be delegated to create resources in virtual networks.

You need to identify how many virtual networks and subnets are required for the solution. The solution must minimize costs to transfer data between virtual networks.

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q5-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-for-azure-services#services-that-can-be-deployed-into-a-virtual-network


Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains the route tables and routes shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6

There is a Site-to-Site VPN connection to each local network gateway.

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q6-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udr-overview


Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure Traffic Manager parent profile named TM1. TM1 has two child profiles named TM2 and TM3.

TM1 uses the performance traffic-routing method and has the endpoints shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8

The App2, App4, and App6 endpoints have a degraded monitoring status.

To which endpoint is traffic directed? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q7-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/traffic-manager/traffic-manager-nested-profiles


Question 8:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure Front Door instance that provides access to a web app. The web app uses a hostname of www.contoso.com.

You have the routing rules shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8

Which rule will apply to each incoming request? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/frontdoor/front-door-route-matching


Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure virtual network named Vnet1 that contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2.

You have the NAT gateway shown in the NATgateway1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9

You have the virtual machine shown in the VM1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-1

Subnet1 is configured as shown in the Subnet1 exhibit.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-3

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q9-4

Explanation:

Box 1: No

VM1 is in Zone2 whereas the NAT Gateway is in Zone1. The VM would need to be in the same zone as the NAT Gateway to be able to use it. Therefore, VM1 cannot use the NAT gateway.

Box 2: Yes

NATgateway1 is configured in the settings for Subnet2.

Box 3: No

The NAT gateway does not have a single public IP address, it has an IP prefix which means more than one IP address. The VMs the use the NAT Gateway can use different public IP addresses contained within the IP prefix.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/nat-gateway/nat-gateway-resource


Question 10:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains the virtual machines shown in the following table.

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10

Subnet1 and Subnet2 are associated to a network security group (NSG) named NSG1 that has the following outbound rule:

Priority: 100 Port: Any Protocol: Any Source: Any Destination: Storage Action: Deny

You create a private endpoint that has the following settings:

Name: Private1 Resource type: Microsoft.Storage/storageAccounts Resource: storage1 Target sub-resource: blob Virtual network: Vnet1 Subnet: Subnet1

For each of the following statements, select Yes of the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft az-700 free dumps q10-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/disable-private-endpoint-network-policy

Microsoft AZ-700 Exam PDF

Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1DTZ5QcmrjD76CbO5Vj8QQy3lYOXP7pvP/view?usp=sharing

Microsoft AZ-700 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft AZ-700 certification dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/az-700.html

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps

Microsoft MS-740 Free Dumps is being sorted out and waiting for subsequent updates, of course, you can follow fulldumps.com for the first update

Microsoft MS-740 Exam PDF

Subsequent updates…

Microsoft MS-740 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft MS-740 certification dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/ms-740.html

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps

Microsoft MB-340 Free Dumps is being sorted out and waiting for subsequent updates, of course, you can follow fulldumps.com for the first update

Microsoft MB-340 Exam PDF

Subsequent updates…

Microsoft MB-340 Exam Dumps

Complete Microsoft MB-340 certification dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/mb-340.html

These three exams are all-new exams in 2021. Through data viewing, there are not many people participating in the exams. This is a process. Except for the expired replacement products of Microsoft, the new exams require a certain amount of time to observe. I know that these three exams will be very popular in the future, so I made a collection so that you can get them all at once.

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Getting Cisco 300-435 exam certification is a challenging task

Many IT professionals find it difficult to pass the Cisco CCNP 300-435 exam. This is a challenging task. The best choice is to prepare yourself for the reliable 300-435 dumps material to pass the 300-435 exam. Pass4itSure provides the best Cisco 300-435 dumps learning materials, these materials have been carefully crafted, two formats for you to choose PDF + VCE. Where can I get a valid 300-435 PDF and 300-435 VCE? Click https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-435.html (PDF + VCE) to get the latest 300-435 exam dumps pdf questions and answers!

Next, I will share 300-435 exam dumps pdf questions and answers to easily pass the exam!

The free Cisco 300-435 exam PDF is shared from Pass4itSure. You can download the practice online. To get the complete Cisco 300-435 exam questions and answers, please choose Pass4itSure.

Cisco 300-435 dumps pdf questions from Pass4itSure

Follow the link below for 300-435 Pdf: https://drive.google.com/file/d/12Psr9CWhAV841aob1uUGnhVEdC9fstGU/view?usp=sharing

Get free Cisco 300-435 practice test questions

QUESTION 1 #

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to construct a Python script to
automate the process of updating the site-to-site VPN settings of the network. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

correct Answer:

Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/meraki/api-v1/#!get-network-appliance-vpn-site-to-site-vpn

QUESTION 2 #

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct client method to use to collect the running configuration of a Cisco IOS XE device that uses NETCONF?

A. config=m.copy_config(source=\’running\’)
B. config=m.get(source=\’running\’)
C. config=m.collect_config(source=\’running\’)
D. config=m.get_config(source=\’running\’)
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://ncclient.readthedocs.io/en/latest/

QUESTION 3 #

What are two characteristics of REST API calls? (Choose two.)

A. unencrypted
B. non-cacheable
C. stateless
D. implemented over HTTP
E. parameters passed in the headers
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8-0/MSE_REST_API/Guide/Cisco_MSE_REST_API_G
uide/REST_Introduction.pdf

QUESTION 4 #

Which two API calls must be issued to attach a device template in Cisco SD-WAN? (Choose two.)

A. “monitor device action status” GET API request with the device ID to display the status of the attached action
B. “monitor device action status” GET API request with the process ID to display the status of the attached action
C. PUT call to initiate the attached action
D. POST call to initiate the attached action
E. GET call to initiate the attached action
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Device_Configuration_APIs/Device_Templates

QUESTION 5 #

Which two features are foundations of a software-defined network instead of a traditional network? (Choose two.)

A. control plane and data plane are tightly coupled
B. build upon a robust software stack
C. requires device by device-level configurations
D. automated through expressed intent to a software controller
E. requires significant physical hardware resources
Correct Answer: BD

In traditional networks, the control plane and data plane are coupled tightly. It also requires device-by-device configurations and of course, it uses physical hardware resources to function. Whereas, SDN is based on a software stack. In Cisco, SDNs are automated through expressed intent to a software controller.

QUESTION 6 #

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco SD-WAN deployment must be fixed using vManage APIs. A call to vEdge Hardware Health
API returns the data in the exhibit (only a portion is shown). If the JSON shown in the exhibit is converted to a Python
dictionary named “d”, how is the “status” property referenced?

A. d[‘data’][‘statusList’][‘status’]
B. nbvnbvvnbhg
C. d{‘data’}[0]{‘statusList’}[0]{‘status’}
D. d[data][0][statusList][0][status]
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7 #

What are two characteristics of RPC API calls? (Choose two.)

A. They can be used only on network devices.
B. They use only UDP for communications.
C. Parameters can be passed to the calls.
D. They must use SSL/TLS.
E. They call a single function or service.
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://pubs.opengroup.org/onlinepubs/9629399/chap6.htm

QUESTION 8 #

Refer to the exhibit. Which two parameters are mandatory when the Cisco Meraki API is used to create a network?
(Choose two.)

A. tags
B. timeZone
C. type
D. disableMyMerakiCom
E. name
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9 #

DRAG-DROP

Refer to the exhibit. A GET request is issued to the Cisco DNA Center REST API. Drag and drop the GET request URL
subpaths from the left onto the objectives on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_captive_portal.pdf

QUESTION 10 #

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank to complete the URL for an API call to Cisco SD-WAN to display the history of the Bidirectional
Forwarding Detection sessions that run on a vEdge router.

A. bfd/synced/sessions?

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://sdwan-docs.cisco.com/Product_Documentation/Command_Reference/Command_Reference/vMana
ge_REST_APIs/Real-Time_Monitoring_APIs/BFD

QUESTION 11 #

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is included in the payload resulting from the script?

A. ethernet 1
B. ethernet 100
C. ethernet 1/1
D. ethernet 0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

Which two statements are benefits of YANG-push telemetry data over traditional data collection methods? (Choose
two
.)

A. The subscription requests use less bandwidth than SNMP polls.
B. It uses UDP rather than TCP.
C. You can precisely define data subscriptions.
D. It scales better than SNMP.
E. It is supported on more devices than SNMP.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://tools.ietf.org/id/draft-song-ntf-01.html

QUESTION 13 #

Which function is available in NETCONF and unavailable in RESTCONF?

A. configuration changes are automatically activated
B. uses the YANG data models to communicate
C. supports JSON and data encoding
D. validates the content of a candidate datastore
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/169/b_169_programmability_cg/configuring_yang_datamodel.html

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