Cisco, VPN and Security

Cisco 642-541 Exam Practice, Valid and updated Cisco 642-541 Real Testing On Our Store

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QUESTION 136
Which are the functional areas in SAFE Enterprise Network? Choose two.
A. Enterprise Network VPN/Remote Access
B. Enterprise Network Campus
C. Enterprise Network Distribution
D. Enterprise Network Corporate Internet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
How are packet sniffer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network campus module?
A. host based virus scanning
B. the latest security fixes
C. the use of HIDS and application access control
D. switched infrastructure
E. HIDS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 138
What are private VLANs?
A. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
B. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning broadcast segments into non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments
C. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 2, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments
D. tools that allow segregating traffic at Layer 3, turning non-broadcast, multi-access-like segments into broadcast segments

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 139
Which IDS guideline should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use UDP resets more often than shunning, because UDP traffic is more difficult to spoof
B. use TCP resets more often than shunning, because TCP traffic is more difficult to spoof
C. use TCP resets no longer than 15 minutes
D. use UDP resets no longer than 15 minutes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 140
What IKE proposal should be chosen on the VPN Concentrator for the Unity Client?
A. any proposal that ends with DH7
B. any IKE proposal, except the IKE proposal that ends with DH7
C. any proposal that starts with Cisco VPN Client
D. any proposal that starts with DH7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 141
Which two Cisco components encompass secure management? Choose two.
A. Cisco VPN Concentrators
B. CiscoWorks
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco PIX Firewalls
E. Web Device Managers

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 142
What Radio Frequency (RF) band does the Home RF Shared Wireless Access Protocol (SWAP) specification use
A. 900 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 5.7 GHz
D. 900 MHz

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 143
What is the primary function of the IOS firewall in the SAFE SMR small network design?
A. provide connection state enforcement and detailed filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
B. provide remote site connectivity and general filtering for sessions initiated through the firewall
C. provide host DoS mitigation
D. authenticate IPSec tunnels
E. provide remote site authentication

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 144
How are virus and Trojan Horse attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. IDS at the host and network levels
C. mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall
F. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 145
What threats are expected for the SAFE SMR small network campus module? Choose two.
A. IP spoofing
B. packets sniffers
C. denial of service
D. applications layer attacks

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 146
Which type of attack is usually implemented using packet sniffers?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. DoS
C. brute force
D. IP spoofing

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 147
Which threats are expected in the SAFE SMR remote user network environment? Choose two.
A. trust exploitation
B. port redirection attacks
C. man in the middle attacks
D. network reconnaissance

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 148
Which is a design alternative in the SAFE SMR midsize network design campus module?
A. A NIDS appliance can be placed in front of the firewall.
B. A URL filtering server can be placed on the public services segment to filter the types of Web pages employees can access.
C. A separate router and Layer 2 switch can be used for the core and distribution rather than the higher-performing Layer 3 switch.
D. The router between the firewall and the campus module can be eliminated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 149
Drag Drop question A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 150
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 151
According to SAFE SMR guidelines, where do you implement the Cisco VPN 3000 Series Concentrator?
A. in front of the Internet access router
B. behind the PIX Firewall and parallel to the Internet access router
C. behind the Internet access router and parallel to the PIX Firewall
D. behind the corporate network module

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152
What services do extranet VPNs provide?
A. link corporate headquarters to remote offices
B. link telecommuters and mobile users to corporate network resources
C. link network resources with third-party vendors and business partners
D. link private networks to public networks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 153
Which vulnerability is not expected in a network design comprised of multiple security zones, multiple user groups, and a single physical switch?
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM table overflow
C. VTP attacks
D. VLAN hopping
E. private VLAN attacks

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 154
According to SAFE, which statement is true about IPSec tunneling protocols?
A. L2TP supports data encryption and packet integrity.
B. GRE is better suited for site-to-site VPNs.
C. IPSec standard supports IP unicast and multicast traffic.
D. GRE is better suited for remote-access VPNs.
E. GRE supports data encryption and packet integrity.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 155
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. Syslog hosts
B. corporate servers
C. Layer 3 switches
D. firewalls
E. VPN Concentrator
F. WAN router

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 156
Which routing protocol does not support the use of MD5 authentication?
A. BGP
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
E. IS-IS

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 157
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 158
What version of the Cisco PIX Firewall is required to use the VPN accelerator card?
A. version 2.3 or higher
B. version 3.3 or higher
C. version 4.3 or higher
D. version 5.3 or higher
E. version 6.3 or higher

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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ACMT, Apple

Apple 9L0-010 Preparation Materials, Helpful Apple 9L0-010 Exam Engine Online Shop

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QUESTION 51
Which THREE of the following are clues that may indicate a ‘no power’ condition? SELECT THREE
A. You do not hear a startup chime.
B. You cannot connect to the Internet.
C. You do not hear any fan or drive noise.
D. The cursor is frozen and the system is unresponsive.
E. The power button or power indicator does not light up at all.
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 52
What step is required before upgrading the RAM in a Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. Remove the processor tray.
B. Remove the hard drive carriers.
C. Remove the front inlet fan assembly.
D. Remove the Optical Drive and Carrier.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
The Mac Pro (Early 2009) has SMC functionality split between a primary SMC on the backplane board, and a secondary SMC on the processor board. What service issue should a technician be aware of when servicing the Mac Pro (Early 2009)?
A. SMC firmware must always match on both boards.
B. Three internal buttons must be pressed in order to reset both SMCs.
C. It is required to remove the memory riser card in order to reset the SMC.
D. Processor trays are interchangeable between similar Mac Pro (Early 2009) units.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 54
A computer service technician says “I don’t use ESD precautions and have never had a problem.” What (if anything) is wrong with this statement?
A. Nothing is wrong with this statement.
B. ESD damage may not appear immediately.
C. ESD happens only to inexperienced technicians.
D. ESD damage is really not as bad as everyone thinks.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You want to follow ESD prevention rules, but your work area is too small for you to be tethered with a wired wrist strap. What is one acceptable alternative solution to this issue?
A. Use a wireless wrist strap.
B. Use a grounded ESD heel strap.
C. Do not practice ESD prevention.
D. Work on the floor instead of a table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
When you work at a customer site, you do not need to take any precautions to avoid ESD damage.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
ESD causes damage to circuits by ________.
A. slowing the circuit down
B. blasting a hole in the circuit
C. cooling the circuit too quickly
D. increasing the circuit’s clock speed

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
You are preparing to service a MacBook. To reduce the risk of damage from ESD, you clear the area of plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene, and have static-shielding storage bags available for ESD-sensitive components. While you are working you should also remember to ________________ and _______________. SELECT TWO
A. ground yourself and the equipment you are working on
B. always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces
C. discharge the display to protect the other ESD-sensitive components
D. handle any ESD-sensitive components by the connectors, rather than by the edges
E. ask other technicians to avoid touching you when you are working on ESD-sensitive components

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 59
You are about to replace a MacBook Air (13-inch, Late 2010) logic board. Which of the following is the most important step you should take immediately after removing the bottom case?
A. Remove the thermal module.
B. Install the battery cover.
C. Remove the hard drive.
D. Remove the battery.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 60
Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to use Apple Service Diagnostic?
A. You want to check a Mac for accidental damage.
B. You want to verify product functionality after a repair.
C. Your customer wants to run diagnostics on his Mac Pro.
D. You need to verify that all installed applications have been updated.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
A customer asks if there is a diagnostic that he can use to help troubleshoot a hardware problem with his MacBook Pro. Which of the following solutions should you suggest?
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Terminal
D. Console

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
Apple Service Toolkit uses ____ to check Macs with Mac Resource Inspector and other diagnostic utilities.
A. NetBoot
B. Open Firmware
C. Target Disk Mode
D. Apple Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
Examine the exhibit.

Why is it necessary to use this Service Fixture when replacing the left fan or heat sink in a MacBook Pro (15-inch, Mid 2009)?
A. This tool is used to avoid flexing the logic board.
B. This tool is used to avoid ESD damage to the logic board.
C. It is impossible to remove these components without this tool.
D. This tool is used to properly align the processor with its socket.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
You are about to begin disassembly of an iMac (27-inch, Mid 2010) to replace the LCD display. Which TWO of the following tools are required to do this? SELECT TWO
A. Multimeter
B. Suction cups
C. Service stand
D. Anti-static, lint-free gloves
E. Torx T-15 driver with 5 inch shaft
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 65
Examine the exhibit.

This specialized tool is required for the removal of which component from the Mac mini (Mid 2010)?
A. Fan
B. Memory
C. Bottom Cover
D. Antenna Plate
E. Logic Board Assembly
Correct Answer: E

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Acpt, Apple

Apple 9L0-009 Cert Exam, Most Accurate Apple 9L0-009 exam questions Guaranteed Success

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QUESTION 55
Which safety issue applies to the iMac (Mid 2010)?
A. Liquid coolant spillage
B. Thermal grease toxicity
C. High voltage CRT discharge
D. Fragile glass panel breakage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
You are removing the main battery from a MacBook Pro (17-inch, Early 2009). Which of the following is a best practice when handling this battery?
A. Handle the battery with one hand, pressing between the soft side and the hard side.
B. Re-cover any punctures or tears in the soft mylar covering with Kapton tape.
C. Handle the battery any way; it does not matter.
D. Hold the battery carefully by its edges only.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
When discharging a CRT, what part do you touch with the tip of the discharge tool?
A. Anode aperture
B. High voltage cable
C. Flyback transformer
D. Yoke connector/cable
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
What precautions should be taken if a discharged CRT must remain exposed for any length of time?
A. You should reset the Power Manager Unit on the logic board.
B. You should perform a full set of video adjustments on the CRT.
C. You should remove the CRT from the computer or display assembly.
D. You should establish an ongoing lead between the CRT anode and ground.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59
Which of the following most accurately describes what happens during Safe Sleep activation in Mac portables?
A. The contents of RAM are written to NVRAM before sleep.
B. The contents of the hard disk are encrypted before sleep.
C. The contents of RAM are written to hard disk before sleep.
D. The contents of the hard disk are read into RAM before sleep.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60
Which of the following is NOT a valid power saving technique in recent Mac computers?
A. Disconnect all peripherals.
B. Activate automatic display sleep.
C. Activate automatic hard disk sleep.
D. Use wireless networks instead of wired networks.
E. Set up locations optimized for different environments.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 61
What is the proper way to calibrate the main battery in a MacBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box; no further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again.
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
You can use a higher wattage power adapter with an Apple portable computer, but you cannot use one with less wattage without potential operating issues.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 63
MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
Which of the following can permanently damage an LCD display?
A. Rubbing the display.
B. Using a screen saver.
C. Not using a screen saver.
D. Turning brightness up too high.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Examine the exhibit. What is the correct name for this type of pixel anomaly?

A. Dark dot defect
B. Stuck sub-pixel
C. Bright dot defect
D. Vertical TAB fault

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
Which of the following statements describes how CCFL backlighting is similar to LED backlighting when troubleshooting backlighting issues in Apple displays?
A. Both types of displays use fluorescent lights.
B. Both types of displays use light emitting diodes.
C. Both types of displays are diagnosed identically.
D. Both types of displays have components that are individually replaceable.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
You are attempting to power a Mac mini (Mid 2007) with an 85 Watt power adapter. Will this work?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 68
Which piece of information is best used to determine any Mac’s correct AppleCare name?
A. the EMC number
B. the serial number
C. the MAC address
D. the model number

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69
Where is the best place for a customer to look for information about locating her Mac’s serial number?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. Service News
D. User’s manual

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 70
Examine the exhibit. What AirPort Extreme port does the number 3 identify?

A. USB
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. Power
E. FireWire

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
Which THREE of the following probing questions are most appropriate to ask the customer when troubleshooting AirPort issues? SELECT THREE
A. Are wired computers affected as well?
B. Are just wireless computers affected?
C. How much RAM do you have installed?
D. What is the computer’s processor speed?
E. What is the resolution of the computer’s display?
F. Are any hubs, routers, or other computers connected to the network?

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 72
If you are unable to find the password for an AirPort Extreme or Express Base Station, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
If an AirPort Extreme Base Station stopped responding, has network accessibility issues, or needs to be reverted back to default factory configuration, you should perform a _______.
A. Soft reset
B. Hard reset

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which of the following is NOT a valid Bluetooth troubleshooting tip for Macs?
A. Check for signal interference.
B. Make sure Bluetooth is turned on.
C. Update Bluetooth software on the Mac.
D. Verify Bluetooth peripheral hardware batteries are charged.
E. Make sure the Bluetooth peripheral is at least 20 meters away from the Mac.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 75
A customer brings his MacBook Pro (17-inch Mid-2010) in for servicing. It is not functioning correctly and you suspect the machine has been damaged by the customer. As you inspect for accidental damage, you should open the lid and confirm that the hinges are working smoothly and inspect the LCD for scratches on the display coatings or cracks in the glass. You should also ____________________ and __________________. SELECT TWO
A. open the hard disk drive to check for scratches or dust inside
B. look for cracks, dents or scratches on the exterior of the system
C. connect the system to external speakers to check for sound output
D. check for any unusual odors coming from the system, which might indicate spill damage
E. ask the customer to describe in detail how he abused his computer to the point that it no longer functions

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 76
After identifying some accidental damage and pointing it out to the customer, the customer says “Apple’s warranty should cover this kind of problem.” How should you respond?
A. Apple will only cover the internal damage, not the cosmetic damage, so the charge will be less.
B. You’re right, Apple’s warranty does cover this kind of accidental damage, so the repair will be free.
C. Apple’s warranty does not cover this, but the AppleCare Protection Plan might, but only if you buy it now.
D. Apple’s warranty specifically calls out accidental damage as an instance where system failures are not covered.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
The purpose of Apple’s business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
You must provide your identity when you use Apple’s Business Conduct Helpline. You may not contact the Helpline anonymously.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Which of the following is NOT a valid example of the type of information that Apple collects from its customers?
A. Credit card information.
B. Discussion blog postings mentioning Apple.
C. Apple product serial number and date of purchase.
D. Name, mailing address, phone number, email address.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
Which THREE of the following components should you be very careful with, when working inside an Apple portable? SELECT THREE
A. Plastic tab
B. Small screw
C. Ribbon cable
D. Deflection coil
E. Anode aperture
F. Flyback transformer
Correct Answer: ABC

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EXIN, EXIN ITIL

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Exam A QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.
Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident

2.
Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4:
Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.
1, 2 and 3 only

B.
1 and 2 only

C.
1, 2 and 4 only

D.
All of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1.
Local service desk

2.
Virtual service desk

3.
IT help desk

4.
Follow the sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1.
To automatically detect service-affecting events

2.
To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

3.
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1.
Those planned to be delivered

2.
Those being delivered

3.
Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1.
At any time it would be useful to do so

2.
After a workaround has been found

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Correct Answer: B

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Extreme Networks, Extreme Networks Certifications

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QUESTION 30
How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 31
Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
Within VRRP the election process of becoming the master switch takes place with the following precedence

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Extreme Networks, Extreme Networks Certifications

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QUESTION 31
When a port is added to a tagged VLAN, jumbo frame support must be enabled to compensate for the increased frame size.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
The modular BlackDiamond 6804 switch supports the following legacy WAN modules? (Choose all three that apply)
A. 2-port SONET/SDH OC-12c/STM-4 PoS
B. 4-port SONET/SDH OC-3c/STM-1 PoS
C. 4-port SONET/SDH OC-3/STM-1 ATM
D. 16-port SONET/SDH T3/E3 PoS/ATM

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 33
In an Extreme Switch, the routing function is disabled on all VLANs by default.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 34
The acronym TCP/IP stands for:
A. Transport Control Protocol/Internal Protocol
B. Transmission Control Protocol/ International Protocol
C. Transfer Control Policy/Interactive Protocol
D. None of these

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
In a Summit 5i switch, a MAC address must be configured for each physical port before routing can be configured.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36
Given the following diagram, how would you disable ports 3 through 8 on module 1 and all ports on modules 3 and 4?

A. disable ports slot 1 ports 3-8, slot 3 ports 1-8, slot 4, ports 1-8
B. unconfig ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8
C. config vlan <name> delete ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8
D. disable ports 1:3-1:8, 3:1-4:8

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What information is not provided by the CLI command: show version?
A. The ExtremeWare software image version and the build date and time
B. The MAC address of the switch
C. The Switch Serial Number
D. The BootROM version

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
You have been assigned the task of configuring an 8-port load share group between two switches that use the address-based algorithm. Which of the following commands will provide you with the desired result?

A. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-basedSummit #2: enable sharing 8 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-based
B. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-basedSummit #2: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 algorithm address-based
C. Summit #1: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 address-based algorithmSummit #2: enable sharing 1 grouping 1-8 address-based algorithm
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Which CLI command would you use to configure proxy ARP for IP address 10.0.0.1/24 with MAC address
00:11:22:33:44:55
so that it will respond regardless of the VLAN?

A.
config iparp add proxy 00:11:22:33:44:55 10.0.0.1/24 always

B.
config iparp add proxy 10.0.0.1/24 00:11:22:33:44:55 always

C.
config proxyarp add 10.0.0.1/24 00:11:22:33:44:55 always

D.
config proxyarp add 00:11:22:33:44:55 10.0.0.1/24 always

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
The IP ROUTING field indicates whether IP forwarding has been enabled or disabled when the CLI command: show ipconfig is entered.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 41
How can you tell by looking at the front panel of an Summit 1i switch, which ports are disabled?
A. Flashing amber light
B. Flashing green light
C. Solid amber light
D. Solid green light

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
What does the TFTP acronym stands for?
A. True File Transfer Protocol
B. Total File Transfer Protocol
C. Trivial File Transfer Protocol
D. Transport File Trough Protocol

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 43
SNMP access to a Summit 48si switch can be limited by the following methods:
A. Use an access list
B. Use an access profile
C. Use the CLI command: disable snmp access
D. All of these

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
In addition to maintaining an internal log, ExtremeWare supports remote logging feature via the UNIX syslog facility.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
Passwords for login names on ExtremeWare CLI accounts are case-sensitive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Extreme switches learn source MAC addresses and perform bridging based on the destination MAC address of incoming Ethernet frames.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
The RFC 1918 describes the use and benefits of IP address space for private networks. The following IP address 10.10.60.254/23 can be considered as a valid private IP address.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
The Spanning Tree Protocol is designed to:
A. Calculate the shortest path route to a destination network.
B. Calculate the topology of a network for the RIP protocol.
C. Prevent bridging loops in a layer-2 network.
D. Better utilize multiple paths between VLANs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
The modular Alpine 3808 has a capacity of 64Gbps and can forward 48 million packets per second.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
Which CLI command will remove the IP address that has been assigned to the default VLAN?
A. config default unconfig ipaddress
B. config default delete ipaddress
C. unconfig default ipaddress
D. disable default ipaddress

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for formatting data used by the application layer?
A. Session layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
When typing commands, the ExtremeWare CLI will auto-complete a command if followed with this keystroke:
A. Space bar
B. Escape key
C. Tab key
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
There can be only one frame transmitted at a time on a traditional CSMA-CD Ethernet network. What is the result when more frames are sent at the same time?
A. Runts
B. Jabbers
C. Collisions
D. Jumbo frames

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
It is highly recommended to change the SNMP community strings on an Extreme switch from the factory default. The following well-known community strings apply by default:
A. R/O extreme R/W networks
B. R/O public R/W private
C. R/O shared R/W secret
D. R/O nonblocking R/W wirespeed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55
In normal IP unicast routing, all forwarding decisions are based on the ______________ of each packet.
A. destination MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source MAC address
D. destination IP address

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
I/O modules for the BlackDiamond 6808 and Alpine 3804 switch products are interchangeable.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
The ExtremeWare feature that configures the switch to copy all traffic associated with one or more ports for traffic analyses purpose is:
A. IP Multinetting
B. Port-Mirroring
C. Port Load Sharing
D. None of these

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 58
The CLI Command ?7KH&/,&RPPDQGdisable learning ports 1?will do the following on an Extreme switch:
A. disable MAC address learning for port 1
B. disable link detection for port 1
C. disable STP learning on port 1
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Given the following diagram, which command would you use to send the switch active configuration file to the TFTP server?

A. download config 192.168.0.1 <filename>
B. upload config 192.168.0.254 <filename>
C. download config 192.168.0.254 <filename>
D. upload config 192.168.0.1 <filename>

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
What is the default STP max age value?
A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
Which CLI command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
Upgrading the BootROM on a Summit 48i switch is done via the CLI command:
A. upload bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
B. enable bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
C. download bootrom [<host_name> | <ip_address> ] <filename>
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63
Classless routing and VLSM are supported by ExtremeWare.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
What is the broadcast address for 192.168.1.49/30?
A. 192.168.1.51

B. 192.168.1.255
C. 192.168.1.52
D. 192.168.1.48
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be tagged on a single link between Extreme Networks switches.
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 4095

D. 6000
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 66
Which of the following sequences identifies a TCP three-way handshake?
A. SYN ?SYN ?ACK
B. SYN ACK ?ACK ?TCP SYN
C. TCP SYN ?ACK – SYN-ACK

D. TCP SYN ?SYN ACK – ACK
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 67
OSPF is a link-state type of routing protocol.

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the ability that “Hyper Scale” provides to Cisco UCS Invicta?
A. Scale out either independently or together
B. Scale up only
C. Scale out only
D. Scale up and out but only at the same time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option is not a key target audience for the Cisco UCS Invicta solution?
A. IT managers/CIOs
B. Application owners
C. Business decision makers
D. Archival library managers

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the (lash array, based on the Parity Research of TCO. are true? (Choose two.)
A. HDD used 2 times the power of flash array.
B. HDD used 5 times the power of flash array.
C. HDD used 10 times the power of flash array.
D. HDD used 50 times the power of flash array.
E. HDD took 8 times the physical space of flash array.
F. HDD took 15 times the physical space of Hash array
G. HDD took 2 times the physical space of flash array.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Which two options are the two main products in the Invicta portfolio? (Choose two.)
A. Stand-alone appliance
B. Stand-alone array
C. Scaling appliance
D. Scaling array
E. Latency appliance
F. Latency array
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which four customer characteristics indicate a good match for Cisco UCS Invicta? (Choose four.)
A. Space and power constraints due to scaling out
B. Those focused on large disk backup service
C. New or existing Cisco UCS customers
D. Application scaling issues
E. Those with large data archives infrequently accessed

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following password cracking techniques is used when the attacker has some information about the password?
A. Hybrid Attack
B. Dictionary Attack
C. Syllable Attack
D. Rule-based Attack

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an application alert returned by a web application that helps an attacker guess a valid username?
A. Invalid username or password
B. Account username was not found
C. Incorrect password
D. Username or password incorrect

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A pen tester has extracted a database name by using a blind SQL injection. Now he begins to test the table inside the database using the below query and finds the table: http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (LEN(SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=’U’)=3) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),1,1)))=101) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),2,1)))=109) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′– http://juggyboy.com/page.aspx?id=1; IF (ASCII(lower(substring((SELECT TOP 1 NAME from sysobjects where xtype=char(85)),3,1)))=112) WAITFOR DELAY ’00:00:10′–
What is the table name?
A. CTS
B. QRT
C. EMP
D. ABC

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
When you are running a vulnerability scan on a network and the IDS cuts off your connection, what type of IDS is being used?
A. Passive IDS
B. Active IDS
C. Progressive IDS
D. NIPS

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
HTTP protocol specifies that arbitrary binary characters can be passed within the URL by using %xx notation, where ‘xx’ is the
A. ASCII value of the character
B. Binary value of the character
C. Decimal value of the character
D. Hex value of the character

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An external intrusion test and analysis identify security weaknesses and strengths of the client’s systems and networks as they appear from outside the client’s security perimeter, usually from the Internet. The goal of an external intrusion test and analysis is to demonstrate the existence of known vulnerabilities that could be exploited by an external attacker.

During external penetration testing, which of the following scanning techniques allow you to determine a port’s state without making a full connection to the host?
A. XMAS Scan
B. SYN scan
C. FIN Scan
D. NULL Scan

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Passwords protect computer resources and files from unauthorized access by malicious users. Using passwords is the most capable and effective way to protect information and to increase the security level of a company.
Password cracking is the process of recovering passwords from data that have been stored in or transmitted by a computer system to gain unauthorized access to a system.

Which of the following password cracking attacks tries every combination of characters until the password is broken?
A. Brute-force attack
B. Rule-based attack
C. Hybrid attack
D. Dictionary attack

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Rules of Engagement (ROE) document provides certain rights and restriction to the test team for performing the test and helps testers to overcome legal, federal, and policy-related restrictions to use different penetration testing tools and techniques.

What is the last step in preparing a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document?
A. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
B. Decide the desired depth for penetration testing
C. Conduct a brainstorming session with top management and technical teams
D. Have pre-contract discussions with different pen-testers

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a framework of open standards developed by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) that provides secure transmission of the sensitive data over an unprotected medium, such as the Internet?
A. DNSSEC
B. Netsec
C. IKE
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the company’s website for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows the entire staff directory was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google’s search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company’s partners’ and customers’ website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Application security assessment is one of the activity that a pen tester performs in the attack phase. It is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization through bespoke, proprietary applications or systems. It checks the application so that a malicious user cannot access, modify, or destroy data or services within the system.

Identify the type of application security assessment which analyzes the application-based code to confirm that it does not contain any sensitive information that an attacker might use to exploit an application.
A. Web Penetration Testing
B. Functionality Testing
C. Authorization Testing
D. Source Code Review

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a firewall?
A. Manages public access to private networked resources
B. Routes packets between the networks
C. Examines all traffic routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria
D. Filters only inbound traffic but not outbound traffic

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
The IP protocol was designed for use on a wide variety of transmission links. Although the maximum length of an IP datagram is 64K, most transmission links enforce a smaller maximum packet length limit, called a MTU. The value of the MTU depends on the type of the transmission link. The design of IP accommodates MTU differences by allowing routers to fragment IP datagrams as necessary. The receiving station is responsible for reassembling the fragments back into the original full size IP datagram. IP fragmentation involves breaking a datagram into a number of pieces that can be reassembled later. The IP source, destination, identification, total length, and fragment offset fields in the IP header, are used for IP fragmentation and reassembly.

The fragment offset is 13 bits and indicates where a fragment belongs in the original IP datagram. This value is a:
A. Multiple of four bytes
B. Multiple of two bytes
C. Multiple of eight bytes
D. Multiple of six bytes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
From where can clues about the underlying application environment can be collected?
A. From the extension of the file
B. From executable file
C. From file types and directories
D. From source code

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Which of the following information gathering techniques collects information from an organization’s web-based calendar and email services?
A. Anonymous Information Gathering
B. Private Information Gathering
C. Passive Information Gathering
D. Active Information Gathering

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which Wireshark filter displays all the packets where the IP address of the source host is 10.0.0.7?

A. ip.dst==10.0.0.7
B. ip.port==10.0.0.7
C. ip.src==10.0.0.7
D. ip.dstport==10.0.0.7

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is true about the LM hash?
A. Disabled in Windows Vista and 7 OSs
B. Separated into two 8-character strings
C. Letters are converted to the lowercase
D. Padded with NULL to 16 characters

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Which of the following statement holds true for TCP Operation?

A. Port numbers are used to know which application the receiving host should pass the data to
B. Sequence numbers are used to track the number of packets lost in transmission
C. Flow control shows the trend of a transmitting host overflowing the buffers in the receiving host
D. Data transfer begins even before the connection is established

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following will not handle routing protocols properly?
A. “Internet-router-firewall-net architecture”
B. “Internet-firewall-router-net architecture”
C. “Internet-firewall -net architecture”
D. “Internet-firewall/router(edge device)-net architecture”
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
What is a goal of the penetration testing report?

A. The penetration testing report helps you comply with local laws and regulations related to environmental conditions in the organization.
B. The penetration testing report allows you to sleep better at night thinking your organization is protected
C. The pen testing report helps executive management to make decisions on implementing security controls in the organization and helps the security team implement security controls and patch any flaws discovered during testing.
D. The penetration testing report allows you to increase sales performance by effectively communicating with the internal security team.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the range for assigned ports managed by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)?
A. 3001-3100
B. 5000-5099
C. 6666-6674
D. 0 1023

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below:

A. XPath Injection Attack
B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following approaches to vulnerability assessment relies on the administrator providing baseline of system configuration and then scanning continuously without incorporating any information found at the time of scanning?

A. Service-based Assessment Solutions
B. Product-based Assessment Solutions
C. Tree-based Assessment
D. Inference-based Assessment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The Web parameter tampering attack is based on the manipulation of parameters exchanged between client and server in order to modify application data, such as user credentials and permissions, price and quantity of products, etc. Usually, this information is stored in cookies, hidden form fields, or URL Query Strings, and is used to increase application functionality and control. This attack takes advantage of the fact that many programmers rely on hidden or fixed fields (such as a hidden tag in a form or a parameter in a URL) as the only security measure for certain operations. Attackers can easily modify these parameters to bypass the security mechanisms that rely on them.

What is the best way to protect web applications from parameter tampering attacks?
A. Validating some parameters of the web application
B. Minimizing the allowable length of parameters
C. Using an easily guessable hashing algorithm
D. Applying effective input field filtering parameters

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including the current security procedures and controls, to withstand assault.

What does a vulnerability assessment identify?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Weaknesses that could be exploited
C. Physical security breaches
D. Organizational structure

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
This is a group of people hired to give details of the vulnerabilities present in the system found after a penetration test. They are elite and extremely competent penetration testers and intrusion analysts. This team prepares a report on the vulnerabilities in the system, attack methods, and how to defend against them.

What is this team called?
A. Blue team
B. Tiger team
C. Gorilla team
D. Lion team

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of another host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead. ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other attacks.

What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Amazon Consulting Corporation provides penetration testing and managed security services to
companies. Legality and regulatory compliance is one of the important components in conducting a
successful security audit.
Before starting a test, one of the agreements both the parties need to sign relates to limitations,
constraints, liabilities, code of conduct, and indemnification considerations between the parties.
Which agreement requires a signature from both the parties (the penetration tester and the company)?
A. Non-disclosure agreement
B. Client fees agreement
C. Rules of engagement agreement
D. Confidentiality agreement

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 30
John, the penetration testing manager in a pen testing firm, needs to prepare a pen testing pricing report for a client.
Which of the following factors does he need to consider while preparing the pen testing pricing report?

A. Number of employees in the client organization

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QUESTION 124
Which type of classification mechanism does the Cisco IP phone use?
A. ISL
B. Q.931
C. G.729a
D. 802.1p/Q
E. Spanning Tree

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Streaming video applications, such as IPTV video on demand (VoD) programs, are relatively high bandwidth applications with a high tolerance for loss, delay, and delay variation. As such, significant QoS tools are not required to meet the needs of these applications. However, in most enterprise environments, these types of applications are considered more important than regular background applications (such as e-mail and web browsing) and should be given preferential treatment. A Layer 2 classification of CoS 1 in 8021.Q/802.1p environments should be used for these applications.
Reference: Arch student guide p.7-48
QUESTION 125
What problem does WFQ introduce when used in networks that have delay sensitive traffic like voice and video?
A. WFQ weights by giving preference to TCP-based flows whereas voice and video is UDP/RTP-based.
B. WFW weights by giving preference to UDP-based flows whereas voice and video is TCP/RTP-based.
C. WFQ becomes too fair in the presence of many flows so that an individual flow might not get enough bandwidth.
D. WFQ provides configuration settings that only permit data traffic, which is the root cause of WFQ’s inability to provide good service to voice and video traffic.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
WFQ is to fair.
WFQ classifies traffic into different flows based on such characteristics as source and destination address,
protocol, and port and socket of the session. WFQ is a default queueing discipline on links at and below

2.048 Mbps.
QUESTION 126
What is one of the reasons that custom QoS ACLs are recommended over automatic QoS when configuring ports on a Catalyst 6500 for use with IP phones?
A. 79xx IP phones do not automatically mark voice packets with non-zero DSCP values.
B. 79xx IP phones do not mark protocol packets such as DHCP, DNS or TFP with non-zero DSCP values.
C. 79xx IP phones do not mark voice packets with optimal DSCP values.
D. 79xx IP phones use a custom protocol to communicate CDP information to the switch.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 127
When working in a Cisco environment, which of the following models would be utilized when you connect to a PBX system that uses non-standard signaling?
A. Translate model
B. Cross over model
C. Interprete model
D. Transport model
E. Trans-cross model

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 128
Both incoming and outgoing calls for a voice system are governed by rules. Which set of rules governs the handling of voice system calls?
A. Voice plan
B. Route plan
C. Route pattern
D. Dial pattern
E. Call handler
F. Dial plan

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 129
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know in which of the following Frame Relay PVC configurations that are able to carry both voice and data, is the potential voice load better understood and partially isolated from the data load.
What would your reply be?
A. Simplex PVCs
B. Separate PVCs
C. Half Duplex PVCs
D. Duplex PVCs
E. Combined PVCs

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 130
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which codec you would recommend for higher quality voice over a data network. What would your reply be?
A. G.711
B. G.714
C. G.723
D. G.726
E. Q.728
F. G.729

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 131
What is the default setting that the Cisco IP phone employs to set the CoS/ToS value for voice packets?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Ports that are in the data VLAN have a default class of service (CoS) of zero. Ports that are a member of the voice VLAN have a default CoS of 5
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-49
QUESTION 132
Bandwidth used by active calls can be delimited by which of the following types of Call Admission in the Control Manager?
A. Departments
B. Regions
C. Partitions
D. Locations
E. Device Pools
F. All of the above

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 133
In a voice system, what set of rules governs the handling of incoming and outgoing calls?
A. A dial plan
B. The route table
C. The dial pattern
D. A call handler
E. A route pattern

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 134
With regard to voice calls, which tool is used to reduce IP header size?
A. cRTP
B. RTCP
C. Transcoder
D. Coded (compression / decompression)
E. A and D

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Header Compression – Compresses a header at various layers of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model. Examples include Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) header compression, compressed RTP (cRTP), and compressed Internet Protocol/User Datagram Protocol (IP/UDP).
QUESTION 135
What type of protocol is SIP?
A. Peer-client
B. Server-peer
C. Peer-to-peer
D. Client-server

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
SIP stands for Session Initiation Protocol. SIP was published as a proposed standard by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) in 1999. It is a signaling protocol for multimedia session control. This includes signaling for voice, data, and video sessions between just two parties or for multiparty conferencing sessions. SIP end-points negotiate the media parameters using Session Description Protocol (SDP). SDP allows the SIP terminal or application to negotiate media type (audio, video or data), transport protocol (RTP), and media encoding method. Unlike the switched circuit network of today, IP networks developed using SIP will easily support the concepts of presence, availability, and mobility since it is part of the SIP standard.
The IETF defines standard behavior for key SIP Server elements such as registration, redirect and proxy servers. SIP registration servers allow users to register with the SIP network using a SIP address that is similar to a URL or Web site location. Once a user registers, the local SIP proxy server routes messages on behalf of the user to the proper destination address. The SIP redirect server is a special server that returns a new or changed address for the destination party that may have temporarily changed locations (from work to home for example). Each of these servers have a particular behavior defined in the IETF standard and maintain session state information in a standard manner, leading to interoperability.
SIP’s main advantages over H.323 are its extensibility and flexibility for adding new features. H.323 is a more complex architecture and uses binary encoding of message parameters. The simplicity of SIP makes it easier to develop and debug applications leading to lower product costs for equipment providers.
The SIP client-server and header format design is based on proven Internet standards such as Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (used on commercial web servers) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (used for internet e-mail services). The Client-Server design means that each SIP request will result in a well-defined set of SIP responses. This modular design makes it easy to extend SIP to support new operations by simply adding a new request (or SIP Method) and its corresponding response message. Because SIP is text based, it is easy to parse the various SIP commands.
QUESTION 136
When enabling traffic shaping on a Frame Relay interface supporting voice and data, which three parameters should be configured to protect voice traffic? (Choose three)
A. Bt
B. Bc
C. Be
D. CIR
E. LMI
F. DLCI

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 137
Your boss at Certkiller.com is curios as to which type of applications benefit from IP Multicast.
What should you tell her? (Select three).
A. Low bandwidth streaming applications with many simultaneous users
B. High bandwidth web serving applications
C. Video-on-demand served from the Internet
D. Scheduled classes delivered using IP-TV over multiple LAN/WAN connections
E. Live radio broadcasts delivered over multiple LAN/WAN connections
F. High bandwidth, high volume transactional applications

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 138
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee Jack wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Select two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 139
What are potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 140
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which of the following are considerations to using IP Multicast delivery.
What would your reply be? (Choose Two.)
A. No congestion avoidance.
B. Low end routers in use.
C. No guaranteed delivery mechanism.
D. Source sends multiple data streams out each interface.
E. Ordered delivery of packets.
F. Not for bandwidth intensive applications.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 141
You are the network administrator at Certkiller.Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the source address of IP multicast traffic is.
What will your reply be?
A. The assigned IP address of the source host
B. A reserved link address in the 224.0.0.0/24 LCP block
C. A GLOP address with an embedded AS number assigned to the source organization
D. A source-specific (SSM) address in the 232/8 block

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 142
What are the characteristics of an IP Multicast source distribution tree? (Choose three)
A. Sub-optimal paths from source to all receivers.
B. Minimal memory utilization on multicast routers.
C. Router maintenance of complete path information for each source.
D. Optimal path from source to each receiver.
E. Reduced latency when compared to shared distribution trees.
F. Single root RP forwarding of all source traffic.

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IP Multicast Source Distribution Trees:
1) Uses more memory (Router maintenance of complete path information for each source)
2) Supports optimal paths from source to all receivers
3) Minimizes delay

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-20

QUESTION 143
What are two potential issues when using PIM-SM for multicast networks? (Choose two)
A. Not effective for dense distribution of receivers.
B. Easy to troubleshoot.
C. Unicast routing protocol dependent.
D. Requires an RP for the initial distribution.
E. RPs can become bottlenecks unless carefully placed.

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Potential issues with PIM-SM include:
1) PIM-SM requires an RP during the initial setup of the distribution tree (it can switch to the shortest-path
tree once RP is established and determined as optimal). RPs can become bottlenecks if not selected with
great care.
2) PIM-SM’s complex behavior is difficult to understand and therefore difficult to debug.

Reference: Arch student guide p.8-29

QUESTION 144
Which of the following components would you most probably encounter in the VPN/Remote Access module? (Choose three.)
A. ISDN
B. IDS
C. Firewall
D. PSTN
E. Access server
F. All of the above.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 145
Which VNP management characteristic would you use when you want to make sure that the network in operation has the least disruption of service when topology changes are made?
A. Auto setup
B. Remote management
C. Dynamic reconfiguration
D. Automatic reconfiguration.
E. Path MTU discovery

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Dynamic reconfiguration: All configuration changes should take effect without requiring a reboot of the
device.
Disruption of service with a fully loaded VPN device can potentially impact thousands of individual users.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-17

QUESTION 146
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol at Layer 3 can be used to provide data integrity, privacy, and security on an IP based VPN.
What would your reply be?
A. GRE
B. PKI
C. IPSec
D. L2TP
E. Kerberos
F. MD5

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
IPSec is a set of standards that specify various options for providing VPN data privacy. Packet authentication protects the information flow from being tampered with or even repeated, thereby minimizing disruption to the communication. An IPSec networking architecture has been specifically designed to address these issues. The framework set forth by the IPSec working group, Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), pofides data integrity checks for tamper detection, source address verification, and data privacy for the packet data nad data path.
Reference: Arch student guide p.9-9.
QUESTION 147
You are contracted as a network administrator the company, Certkiller Ltd. Recently you received complaints by users that they are experiencing performance problems on the company’s site-to-site VPN network. Upon investigating the complaints you find that the VPN connection uses IPSec and GRE and traverses several Ethernet segments. The VPN packets are being fragmented as they traverse the links.
What can be done to address this problem successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Employ path MTU discovery.
B. Set the MTU value to 1400 bytes.
C. Reset the MTU value to lower than 1400 bytes.
D. Set the MTU higher than 1500 bytes.
E. Turn off pre-fragmentation for IPSec.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 148
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Which Cisco Works VPN/Security Management Solution will you use to gain access to devices and the displays that will show their real-time status as well as their operational and configuration functions through a web browser?
A. Resource Manager (RME)
B. VPN Monitor
C. Cisco View
D. Omni-vision
E. IDS Host Sensor

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The CiscoWorks VPN/Security Management Solution includes VPN Monitor.
VPN Monitor: Collects, stores, and reports on IPsec-based site-to-site and remote-access VPNs. VPN
Monitor supports the Cisco VPN concentrators and routers.

Reference: Arch student guide p.9-19.

QUESTION 149
Which network management tool helps network administrators develop and maintain new and existing traffic filters on Cisco devices?
A. CiscoView
B. ACL Manager
C. Cisco Netsys
D. Resource Manager

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
ACL Manager manages the access lists of Cisco devices. ACLM provides tools to set up and manage IP and IPX filtering and device access control. These tools include: access list editors, policy template managers, network and service class managers for scalability, access list navigation tools for troubleshooting, optimization of access lists, and automated distribution of access list updates.
Reference: Arch student guide p.4-25
QUESTION 150
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the device weight limit per CallManager in a Cisco IP phone configuration would be.
What would your reply be?
A. 800
B. 5000
C. 6500
D. 2500

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The clustering option relate to the grouping of devices, usually phones and gateways. With the limits imposed on a single CallManager (device weights of 5,000 per CallManager, not IP phones) and good design practices, the minimum configuration consists of two CallManagers, which will support up to 2,500 IP phones. Cisco recommends four CallManagers to support 5,000 IP phones and up to six CallManagers to support up to 10,000 IP phones.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-28
QUESTION 151
Which of the following signaling techniques is used amongst CallManager clusters for intercluster calls?
A. SS7
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. BRI2

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 152
You are a technician at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the maximum number of CallManager servers you can have in a cluster is.
What would your reply be?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 56

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 153
With Call Manager v3.1, what is the maximum number of servers in a Cluster?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The primary advantage of the distributed call processing model is that, by using local call processing, it provides the same level of features and capabilities whether the IP WAN is available or not. Each site can have from one to eight Cisco CallManager servers in a cluster based on the number of users.
Reference: Arch student guide p.11-43
QUESTION 154
Which three are used in configuration Call Manager dial plans? (Choose three)
A. Route list
B. Route group
C. Gateway list
D. Route keeper
E. Route pattern
F. First digit pattern

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 155
Which of the following are functions form part of Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)? (Choose four.)
A. Fault tolerance
B. Network address translation
C. Load balancing
D. Scalability
E. Remote management
F. Service assurance
G. Redundancy allowance

Correct Answer: ACDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
Cisco routers and switches incorporate Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP) software to enable content routing capabilities. Additionally, Cisco offers content routers specifically designed to support large-scale mirrored web sites. Content routing routes user requests to the replicated-content site (typically a mirror site) that can serve them most quickly and efficiently. The content routing software redirects a user request to the closest (best) replicated-content site, based on network delay, using a software process called boomerang. The content routing software load balances up to 500 sites for each domain it is configured to support.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-6
QUESTION 156
Mentioned below are several tools. Which of them is a web-browser based tool designed to provide administrative access for content networking?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Hypertext Administration Design (HAD)
C. Access Point
D. Content Distribution Manager (CDM)
E. Self-Organizing Distributed Architecture (SODA)
F. Web Cache Communication Protocol (WCCP)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Cisco Content Distribution Manager (CDM) is a web-browser-based tool that provides the administrative function for content networking. With the CDM, you can configure and monitor Content Engines, import and preview media, and generate media URLs for access from web sites. You also set maximum bandwidth usage over the WAN from the CDM to the remote Content Engines, as well as maximum LAN bandwidth usage from the Content Engines to end-user desktops.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-9
QUESTION 157
You are a technician at Certkiller. You were instructed to place Content Engines on the Certkiller network.
Where would you place it when you are dealing with transparent caching?
A. Close to the servers.
B. Behind the main server.
C. At the Internet edge.
D. In front of web server farms.
E. Close to the end users.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation

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