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QUESTION 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host database
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show fcns database
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. 1 with all licenses
B. 2 with Standard Zoning license
C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license
D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)
A. Time and Date
B. Management IP address
C. Default Zoneset distribution
D. Enforce password complexity
E. Default switchport mode F

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 36
Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. Zone

D. FLOGI
E. LUN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10?
A. MDS-A# show vsan 10
B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database
C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports
D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership
E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 4
E. RAID 5
F. RAID 6
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. better server utilization
B. increased network visibility
C. decreased complexity
D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems
E. physical resource sharing
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 40
Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.)
A. dedicated LAN NIC
B. dedicated SAN HBA
C. resource partitioning
D. hardware abstraction
E. virtual machine isolation
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 41
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 42
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG
QUESTION 43
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim
B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware
C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections
D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs?
A. N1000v-VSM# show vem
B. N1000v-VSM# vem status
C. N1000v-VSM# show module
D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status
E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 14
B. None
C. Ports 16
D. Ports 18
E. Ports 1720

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.)
A. M71-KR
B. M81-KR
C. VIC-1240
D. VIC-1280
E. P61E
F. P71E
G. P81E
Correct Answer: BCDG
QUESTION 49
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI

F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 50
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG
QUESTION 51
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 53
What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.)
A. unconfigured
B. enabled
C. disabled
D. uplink
E. server
F. errdisabled

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 54
Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. chassis management switch
D. finite state machine
E. chassis management controller

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 55
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 56
Which requirement is unique to service profile templates?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. pooled identities
D. vNIC
E. vHBA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration?
A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.
B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy.
C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy.
D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear?
A. access
B. services
C. aggregation
D. transport
E. network
F. core

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 60
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and intrusion prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which is a function of the data center access layer?
A. repeater
B. high-speed packet switching
C. access control
D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention
E. services layer
F. QoS marking
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 62
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC overlay link
B. vPC peer link
C. vPC keepalive link
D. vPC control link
E. vPC management link
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch?
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QUESTION 70
You have placed 12 TIFF files that have embedded color space profiles in a folder. You want to apply in
action to all of the files that runs WITHOUT interruption or supervision.
What should you do?

A. drag the folder onto the name of the action in the Actions palette.
B. Choose File>Automate>Batch and select Log Errors to File from the Errors pull-down menu
C. Choose File>Automate>Batch and select Suppress Color Profile Warnings from the Source menu
D. Choose File>Automate>Creaate Dropet command and select Override Action “Open” Commands from the Play menu

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
You want to dock two palettes together so they can be moved as one. What should you do?
A. drag the title bar of the first palette over the title bar of the second palette until the title bar of the second palette becomes highlighted.
B. Drag the tab of the first palette over the total bar pf the second palette until the title bar of the second palette becomes highlighted.
C. Drag the title bar of the first palette over the bottom of the second palette until the bottom of the second palette becomes highlighted.
D. Drag the tab of the first palette over the bottom of the second palette until the bottom of the second highlighted.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Which Color Correction dialog box allows you to sample a pixel in your image and plot its values on a graph?
A. Levels
B. Curves
C. Color Balance
D. Hue/Saturation

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 73
You want to create a droplet from an action. What should you do?
A. choose File>Automate>Batch
B. choose File>Automate>Create Droplet
C. choose Save Actions from the Action palette menu
D. select items in the History palette and drag them to the desktop.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74
You want to create a rollover. Which palette should you use to modify the image for the rollover state?
A. the Slice palette
B. the layers palette
C. the History palette
D. the Rollover palette

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
You want to increase the midtone value of your image by 10%. Which command should you use?
A. Image>Adjust>Levels
B. Image>Adjust>Curves
C. Image>Adjust>Color Balance
D. Image>Adjust>Brightness/Contrast

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
You have create a button with text in Adobe ImageReady. You want to add a rollover effect. After adding a new state, how can you change the appearance of the new state?
A. rotate the text
B. add a layer effect
C. change the color mode
D. change the optimization settings

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
Which command can you use to identify our-of-gamut colors?
A. View>Proof Setup
B. View>Gamut Warming
C. Image>Adjust>Color Balance
D. Image>Adjust>Hue/Saturation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
The Multi-Page PDF to PSD command convert each page of a PDF document to ______.
A. an HTML file
B. a single Photoshop file
C. separate Photoshop files
D. a series of thumbnails on a single page

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
You create an image for the Web. One area of the image will contain an animation, while the remainder of the image will be static. Which feature should you use to optimize different areas of the image selectively, to achieve faster download speeds?
A. slices
B. rollovers
C. layer styles
D. image maps

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 81
What should you add to correct an image that contains a green color cast?
A. blue
B. cyan
C. yellow
D. magenta

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 82
You have used the Warp Text command to create an effect on text. Which statement is true?
A. The text is editable
B. The text is rasterized
C. You can apply a filter without rasterizing the text
D. You can use the Hue/Saturation command on the text.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 83
You want to link an area of an image to a URL. Which too should you select?
A. PICTURE
B. PICTURE
C. PICTURE
D. PICTURE

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
The foreground color is red. You create a new shape Layer by suing the polygon toll. How do you change the color of the polygon?
A. change the foreground color, and fill the layer with the new color
B. drag and drop a color from the Swatches palette onto the polygon
C. change the foreground color; select the polygon with the path component selection tool and choose Edit>Fill
D. change the foreground color; select Make Selection form the Paths palette pop-up menu, then choose Edit>Fill

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 85
When should you use pixels instead of points as units which creating a type layer?
A. when the type can be calibrated for prepress
B. when the type will appear as the ratio zoon factor
C. when the type will reflect the document resolution
D. when the type can be rendered for further manipulation

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE

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QUESTION 121
What are the four types of BGP message? (Choose four.)
A. Hello
B. Open
C. Close
D. Update
E. Refresh
F. Keepalive
G. Notification
H. Synchronize
Correct Answer: BDFG
QUESTION 122
Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.)
A. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO)
B. All packets have equal rights to network resources
C. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion
D. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped
E. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 123
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 124
Which two are possible causes of congestion on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. An egress interface has a higher bandwidth than an ingress interface
B. An ingress interface has a higher bandwidth than an egress interface
C. Traffic from one ingress interface may be destined for several egress interfaces (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)
D. Traffic from several ingress interfaces may be destined for one egress interface (all interfaces have the same bandwidth)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 125
In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 126
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 128
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 129
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 130
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 85
Which five are correct steps to be performed when installing NBX pcXset on a computer? (Choose five.)
A. Select country and language
B. Test audio and microphone settings
C. Enter the pcXset CD Key when prompted
D. Configure the MAC and IP address of the NCP associated with pcXset
E. Install the pcXset Telephony Adapter Card in the multimedia computer that will run pcXset
F. Confirm adequate software pcXset licensing on the associated NBX Communication System
G. In NetSet under the System Settings check the Auto Discover Telephones box and click OK
H. In NetSet under the System Settings check the Auto Discover pcXset Telephones box and click OK

Correct Answer: ABDFG
QUESTION 86
Which four are NBX Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system

Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 87
Which three does NBX Call Reports (CDR) provide for calls made on an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Track all call information
B. Track all internal calls within NBX system
C. Track all incoming and outgoing PSTN calls
D. Provides customer and department chargeback accounting
E. Collects telephone usage information on a per user / per call basis
F. Track all incoming and outgoing attempted and/or abandoned calls
G. Supports “Snap-in” modules for Microsoft Excel and Lotus 123 for integrated account reporting
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 88
Which four are NBX CDR requirements? (Choose four.)
A. 24 MB of RAM
B. Linux Operating System
C. TAPI compliant application
D. Windows Operating System
E. IMAP4 compliant application
F. Adequate disk space for records
G. 12 MB of disk space for application
Correct Answer: ADFG
QUESTION 89
A NBX Software license upgrade provides access to the specific license purchased and every prior
software release.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 90
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 91
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems support software version R5.0? (Choose three.)
A. NBX 25
B. NBX 100
C. VCX 7000
D. VCX 6000
E. NBX V3000
F. NBX V5000

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 92
You have a NBX V3000 with full licensing. You discover the NBX V3000 internal disk drive is nearly full. Which three are best ways the NBX administrator can manage the available disk space on an NBX V3000 system? (Choose three.)
A. Limit the number of NBX users
B. Limit the maximum length of any message
C. Limit the number of messages an individual user can have at any one time
D. Replace the NBX V3000 20Gb internal disk drive with larger third party disk drive
E. Use a network attached storage server to supplement the NBX V3000 internal disk drive
F. Have the system remove messages more quickly by reducing the message retention period
G. Increase the NBX V3000 disk drive “Free Space” setting which automatically removes the oldest voice messages when the Free Space threshold is exceeded
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 93
What software version is supported by the NBX V3000?
A. NBX R4.5 only
B. NBX R4.3 and higher
C. NBX R4.4 and higher
D. Same software versions as 3Com Router 5000
E. Same software versions as 3Com Switch 6000
F. Same software versions as 3Com Router 8000

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
V3000 memory upgrades must be done at a 3Com Authorized Service Center and can not be performed in the field.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
Which two NBX V3000 system components are field upgradeable or field replaceable? (Choose two.)

A. CPU
B. Disk drive
C. Power supply
D. Memory module
E. Analog Port Modules
F. Paging Port Modules

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 96
Which three steps should the NBX administrator perform to add new members to an existing Page Zone? (Choose three.)
A. Select the User Configuration Icon and the Page Zones Tab
B. Select the Page Zones Icon and the User Configuration Tab
C. Select the Add New User Button and enter the new members extensions
D. Select new extensions from the “Non-Members” list and Click the”<<” button
E. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated from the list of zones and choose “Modify”
F. Select the existing Page Zone to be updated and Click the”<<” button to move it into the “Modify Zone”field

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 97
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
F. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension and name
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 98
How does an NBX telephone user send a page?
A. Pick up handset and dial the Page Zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
B. Pick up handset; press Feature button; dial the Page Zone extension; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
C. Pick up handset and dial the Page Zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays – “Paging Ready”; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call
D. Pick up handset; press Feature button and dial the Page Zone extension; caller waits until LCD displays – “Paging Ready”; caller speaks sending page to receivers; terminate call

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99
An NBX user can view and modify the operators?settings if the Administrator allows it.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 100
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to change configurable operator system default values?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 101
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before forwarding data packets

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 103
Which four are requirements for using Virtual Tie Lines (VTL) with an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. VTL license is required for each participating NCP
B. Each VTL counts as one NBX device for device limit
C. Each NBX must have its own Network Call Processor (NCP)
D. VTLs require a T1 or E1 Digital Line Card in each NBX system
E. A maximum of 96 VTLs are supported on any one NBX system
F. VTL requires either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. VTLs maintain Quality of Service (QoS) and provide end-to-end IP-ToS tagging

Correct Answer: ACFG QUESTION 104
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add a Page Zone or make modifications to an existing Page Zone?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 105
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan timed routes? (Choose three.)
A. Can designate a specific destination route for each time period
B. Can create route plans based on specific time-of-day or day-of-week
C. Can group time periods and point them to a specific route destination
D. Can disable specific routes for any time period, for example, holiday, night, etc.
E. Can create route plans based on pre-configured business hours – open, closed, lunch etc.
F. Can create route plans based on a specific date, for example, business, state or country holiday
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 85
Which two are performed by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM), during the Compute and Place MAPs process of network planning, to determine the number of Managed Access Points (MAPs) for an area? (Choose two.)
A. Coverage calculation to determine RF capacity and coverage
B. Capacity calculation to determine the number of MAPs required
C. Coverage calculation to determine the RF obstacles for an area
D. Optimal MAP transmit power requirements for RF area coverage

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 86
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 87
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
D. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
Which two are functions of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “deploy” command?
A. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Managed Access Point (MAP)
B. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Activates a newly loaded configuration file on a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
D. Allows a Wireless LAN Switch/Controller to be drawn into a Network Plan Mobility Domain
E. Synchronizes configuration information between the 3WXM and a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 90
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Authorized wireless NIC
B. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
C. Unauthorized third-party access point
D. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
E. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 91
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
D. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Each WX must have a system IP address
B. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
C. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
D. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
E. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 93
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 94
Click the Task button.
Match each Wireless LAN Mobility term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 95
Why should you use PortFast on the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller?
A. It enables Jumbo Frames on the port, providing higher data throughput on the link
B. It configures all the ports for 1,000 Mbps full duplex, providing maximum throughput
C. It immediately puts a port into the STP forwarding state, preventing an application from possibly timing out
D. Like Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), PortFast provides faster convergence for wireless devices when a bridge port goes up or down on the network

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 96
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com wireless component with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 97
Which IP route service can be configured on 3Com Wireless Switch/Controller (WXs)?
A. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
B. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
C. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
D. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 98
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 99
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 100
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 101
Wireless LAN (WLAN) IEEE 802.11a Turbo Mode bonds two channels together for up to 108 Mbps data rates.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102
What does the IEEE 802.11d standard specify?
A. Defines Inter Access Point Protocol (IAPP)
B. Defines MAC-based Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism
C. Defines encryption using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Defines the ability to fine tune Wireless LAN configuration at the Physical (PHY) Layer to comply with country-specific rules

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Click the Task button.
Match each IEEE standard with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 104
Which two are features of a Wireless LAN (WLAN) Infrastructure Basic Service Set? (Choose two.)
A. Also known as an Ad Hoc or Peer-to-Peer WLAN
B. Members communicate directly with each other within the service area
C. Created when two or more Basic Service Sets are connected together
D. Only stations exist in the service area and no access point (AP) is used
E. Management and control of the service area is performed by the access point (AP)

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 105
What is the first step a wireless station performs as it attempts to access a wireless network?
A. Beaconing
B. Authentication
C. Active or passive scanning
D. Roaming and reassociation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 106
An advantage of using radio frequency (RF) signals for a Wireless LAN
(WLAN) is that an RF signal can pass through any object without interference (i.e., walls, concrete, steel,
etc.).

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 107
Which antenna type is typically used indoors to provide large coverage areas within a building?
A. Dipole antenna
B. Omnipole antenna
C. Yagi or semi-directional antenna
D. Patch panel or parabolic antenna

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 108
Which security protocol uses a hashed password for authentication rather than using a less secure encrypted password?
A. 3Com Dynamic Security Link
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 (EAP-MD5)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Click the Task button.
Match each security protocol/standard with its description.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 110
Many access points (APs) are set up with a default configuration, known as “open system” or “open system authentication,” so any station can associate and connect.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
What is the optimal access point (AP) channel allocation configuration on a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. APs should be configured with overlapping channels
B. APs should be configured with different non-overlapping channels
C. It makes no difference if APs use overlapping or non-overlapping channels
D. Allow APs to automatically perform the hunting process to determine the best channels

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
What was a limitation of first-generation Wireless LAN (WLAN) products?
A. Were designed to be managed individually
B. Did not support roaming for mobile computers
C. Did not provide authentication or encryption services
D. Were not designed to support large number of users

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 113
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com OfficeConnect wireless client product with its features.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 114
Which three are features supported on the OfficeConnect ADSL Wireless 11g Firewall Router and the 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 11g Cable/DSL Router? (Choose three.)
A. VPN termination
B. Stateful packet inspection
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
D. Four 10/100 Ethernet LAN ports
E. 256-bit Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) encryption
F. 40/64-bit and 128-bit Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 115
The 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge enables a laptop, PC or printer without built-in wireless capability to connect to a wireless LAN.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 116
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the 3Com product that is represented by Sevice A in the network diagram.
A. Wireless LAN Switch WX1200
B. Wireless LAN Access Point 8750
C. 11a/b/g Wireless LAN Workgroup Bridge
D. Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the two features supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Managed Access Point (MAP) 2750.
(Choose two.)
A. Fit access point
B. IEEE 802.1X Network Login and IPSec
C. Dual-mode radio allows operation for both IEEE 802.11b/g and IEEE 802.11a
D. Dual-mode radio allows operation for either IEEE 802.11b/g or IEEE 802.11a

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 118
Which two are reasons a company may choose to use a
building-to-building wireless bridge versus a T1/E1 or fiber link? (Choose two.)

A. Reliability of the connection
B. Time to deploy and set up the connection
C. The distances between the two buildings
D. The initial installation costs and/or recurring monthly charges

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 119
Which wireless building-to-building bridge distance-related parameter must be set to ensure each wireless bridge waits the appropriate period for a response from other wireless bridges?
A. Basic Rate Set
B. Broadcast Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Acknowledgement Delay Timeout (ACK)
D. Request to Send/Clear to Send (RTS/CTS)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
How can the network administrator set the IP address and administrator password on a 3Com Access Point?
A. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) IP command
B. Type the follow CLI command “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”
C. Use the Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) configure command
D. Type the follow CLI commands “Set IPaddress <x.x.x.x>” and “Set user <name> password <p/w> admin”

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which three steps are required to configure a non-encrypted 3Com Wireless Distribution System? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the access points (APs) for group mode
B. Configure the access points (APs) for bridge mode
C. Assign each access point (AP) the same IP address
D. Assign each access point (AP) the same Service Set ID (SSID) and radio channels
E. Copy the access points (APs) to the Wireless Distribution System (WDS) configuration
F. Ensure all access points (APs) are configured for Managed Access Point (MAP) mode

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 122
Which three Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 parameters are set using the 3Com Web Configuration Management System “Advanced Setup Radio Setting” window? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs
B. Service Set ID (SSID)
C. Device name and type
D. Administrator password
E. IP address and subnet mask
F. Maximum number of client associations

Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 123
You have taken a new job as the network administrator. You find a 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 on a shelf in the network supply closet. What should you do when you are unable to connect a Wireless LAN Access Point 8750 because your predecessor has configured the access point (AP) with an unknown username and password?
A. Attach your PC directly to the RJ-45 port on the AP and telnet into the AP
B. Reset the AP configuration to factory default by pressing the reset button for at least 15 seconds
C. Reset the AP to its default factory settings by opening the back of the AP and removing the battery for at least 30 seconds
D. Use Windows Registry Editor to create and upload the following text to disable the AP security: “HKEY_USERS\.DEFAULT\Software\3Com Corporation\EAPOL\UserEapInfo”

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
Which parameters must be completed to set up a 3Com access point (AP) as a non-restrictive Virtual Access Point (VAP)?
A. VLAN ID and radio channels
B. Bridging mode and radio channels
C. Service Set ID (SSID) and VLAN ID
D. Service Set ID (SSID) and Wi-Fi settings
E. MAC address and Service Set ID (SSID)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
To use IEEE 802.1X Network Login for the wireless LAN (WLAN), you must configure both the 3Com access point (AP) and wireless LAN NIC for 802.1X authentication.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 77
Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 78
Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP wiring

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 79
Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or Switch 40×0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40×0 family that provides additional levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 80
Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 81
Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 82
Which three are advantages of using 3Com’s XRN Distribution Resilient Routing (DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60 seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 83
Which component of XRN technology is defined as “A set of interconnected switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the “LA Master Port”?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 86
Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules #2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the “display RIP-statistics” command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the “display RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates
E. Use the “debugging RIP packet” command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP updates

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 88
The Switch 7700 automatically saves the system configuration to its flash memory.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89
Which Access Control list modes are supported on both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800?
A. IP and Link based
B. IP and Port based
C. MAC and Link based
D. Link and Port based

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
The 3Com NBX IP Telephony Systems use multicast routing for operations such as conference calls, Music-on-Hold and paging.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 91
Which command displays the system configuration stored in the Switch 7700 flash memory?
A. display flash
B. display configuration
C. display saved-configuration
D. display current-configuration

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Which two procedures should a network administrator implement to assist in identifying the cause of a network incident or problem?(Choose two)
A. Document the existing network configuration
B. Install network sniffer throughout the network
C. Download all router and Layer 3 switch tables
D. Gather appropriate sniffer traces for the problem
E. Dump the pertinent statistics from all affected network devices

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 93
Which two are Access Control List match order parameters for both the Switch 7700 and the Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Null-no match
B. Config – first match
C. All – longest match
D. Exact – identical match

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 94
Which two are useful in determining the source of a network broadcast storm? (Choose two)
A. Check all the router tables on the network
B. Check RX broadcast count in port statistics
C. Check TX broadcast count on port statistics
D. Place a network sniffer anywhere on the network
E. Use the “display igmp” command to check VLAN assignment

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 95
Which two are traffic prioritization features of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose two)
A. Queues can be manipulated
B. By default, there is a single queue per port
C. Logical queues are classified based on latency
D. Traffic prioritization is based on IEEE 802.1 Q tag information
E. All models support four queues per port, two physical and two loical
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 96
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions of the SuperStak 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Aggregated Links can be of different speeds
C. Aggregated Links participate in Resilient Link pairs
D. Configuration rules are 15 groups of up to four ports each
E. With mixed-speed Aggregated Links, traffic is sent via the hiher-speed links only
F. Resilient Aggregated Links are implemented using Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
G. Trunk Control Message Protocol (TCMP) must be enabled when connecting to the SuperStak 3 Switch 9300 or Switch 3900

Correct Answer: CDEF QUESTION 97
Which SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 model can concurrently support Gigabit Ethernet over UTP wiring, multimode fiber, single-mode fiber and long haul cabling without the addition of an expansion module?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4900 SX
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4924
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 98
Which two are features of the IEEE 802.1X protocol?
A. Describes network edge access between a supplicant and a network access device
B. Defines tunnel encapsulation to transmit data across a Virtual Private Network
C. Identifies RADIUS as a generic means of performing supplicant access validity inspection
D. Identifies proxy servers as means of intercepting and filtering requests to the main server
E. Defines packet filtering as a means to control network access by analyzing each incoming and outgoing packet and rejecting or accepting it based on user-defined rules

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
Which two cabling options should you choose for a customer who wants to upgrade the building and the campus backbones to Giabit Ethernet?Note: The campus backbone requires a 1,000-meter run, and the building backbone runs are from 300-500 meters in length. All new cabling is required. (Choose two)
A. 1000BASE -TX copper for the building backbones
B. 1000BASE -SX 50 micron multimode fiber for the campus backbones
C. 1000BASE – LX 9 micron single-mode fiber for the campus backbones
D. 1000BASE -LX 62.5 micron multimode fiber for the building backbones

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 100
How does a 3Com switch 7700, with RSTP disabled, handle the flooding process for a frame with the following attributes: A VLAN exists for the frame’s protocol, but the frame’s source port is not a member of the VLAN definition?
A. The frame is forwarded to all switch ports in the system
B. The frame is flooded to the default VLAN for the receive port
C. The frame is flooded according to the default VLAN assigned to that port
D. The frame is flooded according to the group of ports assigned to that VLAN

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 101
Which two are attributes of the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)?
A. Layer 4 protocol
B. Routing load balancing
C. Authentication passwords must be encrypted
D. Multiple virtual routers may exist on the same LAN segment
E. The Virtual Router ID (VRID) value determines the Master/Backup status

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 102
What is MINIMUM REQUIREMENT TO SUPPORT THE Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStake 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is supported by every switch
B. At least two switches must be staked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Which three traffic-prioritization classification are supported by the Super Stack 3 Switch 4400?
A. IP address
B. Physical port number
C. Resource Reservation Protocol
D. Common Open Policy Service Protocol
E. IETF Differentiated Services Code Point

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 104
Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Choose two)
A. The Link Aggregation group can start on any port
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to single Link Aggregation group
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 105
What is the maximum number of Link Aggregation load-balancing group supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Which three are functions of the Access Control List capabilities of the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Filter routing updates
B. Support Embadded Firewall
C. Control management logins
D. Filter data from information in Layer 2-4 IP header
E. Integrate with RAIDUS for maximum security protection

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 107
Which two operations does the Switch 7700 use to prevent network loops on an Ethernet network? (Choose two)
A. The switch uses Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to eliminate loops on the network
B. The network administrator must configure switch-to-switch ports to eliminate loops on the network
C. The switch uses Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) to eliminate loops on the network
D. The switch uses Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to determine the network topology and eliminate loops
E. The switch uses Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) to eliminate loops on the network
F. The switch automatically learns address of other devices by listening to the network to determine the network topology

Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 159
Which are the attack mitigation roles for the VPN Concentrator in the SAFE standard VPN WLAN design? Choose three.
A. authenticate remote users
B. two-factor authentication
C. terminate IPsec
D. RFC 2827 filtering
E. DHCP relay
F. VPN client auto-initiate

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 161
Which IDS guidelines should be followed, according to SAFE SMR?
A. use TCP shunning as opposed to TCP resets
B. use shunning no longer than 15 minutes
C. use shunning on only UDP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than TCP
D. use shunning on only TCP traffic, as it is more difficult to spoof than UDP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 162
Which three Cisco components encompass secure connectivity? Choose three.
A. Cisco IDS Sensors
B. Cisco PIX Firewalls
C. Cisco IDS Sensors
D. Cisco VPN Concentrators
E. Cisco IOS IDS
F. Cisco IOS VPN

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 163
According to the SAFE Layer 2 security white paper, which is not a threat to switches?
A. CAM table overflow
B. DHCP starvation
C. IP address spoofing
D. VLAN hopping
E. Spanning-Tree Protocol manipulation

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
What causes the default TCP intercept feature of the IOS Firewall to become more aggressive? Choose two.
A. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 1100
B. the number of connections arriving in the last 1 minute exceeds 1100
C. the number of incomplete connections exceeds 100
D. the number of connections arriving in the last 10 minutes exceeds 1000

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 165
Which is true about the PIX Firewall in the remote site firewall option in the SAFE SMR remote user design environment?
A. ISAKMP is enabled when the ISAKMP policy is created
B. ISAKMP is enabled when the crypto map is applied to the interface
C. ISAKMP is disabled by default
D. ISAKMP is enabled by default

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 166
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR remote user network? Choose two.
A. firewall with VPN support
B. Layer 2 switch
C. broadband access device
D. NIDS
E. Layer 3 switch

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 167
What is the function of a crypto map on a PIX Firewall?
A. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IKE peer address or host name
B. to configure a pre-shared authentication key and associate the key with an IPSec peer address or host name
C. to specify which algorithms to use with the selected security protocol
D. to filter and classify the traffic to be protected

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 168
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 169
How are password attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module?
A. filtering at the ISP, edge router, and corporate firewall
B. RFC 2827 and 1918 filtering at ISP edge and midsize network edge router
C. e-mail content filtering, HIDS, and host-based virus scanning
D. OS and IDS detection
E. CAR at the ISP edge and TCP setup controls at the firewall

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 170
According to SAFE worm mitigation, which of the following is not a mitigation for MS Blaster?
A. private VLANs
B. NBAR
C. CAR
D. sink-hole routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 171
Which method will always compute the password if it is made up of the character set you selected to test?
A. brute force computation
B. strong password computation
C. password reassemble
D. brute force mechanism

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 172
Drag Drop question

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 173
What are the SAFE guidelines when routing information is exchanged with an outside routing domain? (Select two.)
A. Use exterior gateway protocols only
B. Use exterior gateway protocols that operate between routing domains and do not allow administrators to build and act on policies.
C. Use exterior gateway protocols because they allow administrators to build and act on policies rather than just on reachability information.
D. Do not use autonomous system path filters on every EBGP peering session in network
E. Use exterior gateway protocols or static routes.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
Which are key devices in the SAFE SMR midsize network design midsize network campus module? Choose three.
A. WAN router
B. VPN Concentrator
C. firewalls
D. NIDS host
E. corporate servers
F. layer 2 switches

Correct Answer: DEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 175
According to SAFE SMR, what type of VPN connectivity is typically used with the Cisco PIX Firewall?
A. remote access
B. site-to-site
C. mobile user
D. corporate

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 126
Which rule is responsible for the installation failure?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 49 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. Rule 4
B. Rule 3
C. Rule 5
D. Rule 6

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127
If you experience unwanted traffic from a specific IP address, how can you stop it most quickly? ActualTests.com
A. Check anti-spoofing settings
B. Configure a rule to block the address
C. Create a SAM rule
D. Activate an IPS protection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 128
You are evaluating the configuration of a mesh VPN Community used to create a site-to-site VPN. This graphic displays the VPN properties in this mesh Community
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 50 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

Which of the following would be a valid conclusion?
A. The VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption using the longest key Security Gateway R71 supports.
B. Changing the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with from AES-128 to 3DES will increase the encryption overhead.
C. Changing the setting Perform key exchange encryption with 3DES to DES will enhance the VPN Community’s security, and reduce encryption overhead.
D. Change the data-integrity settings for this VPN CommunitybecauseMD5 is incompatible with AES.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 51 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

“web_publicIP” is the node Object that represents the public IP address of the new Web server. “web_privateIP” is the node object that represents the new Web site’s private P address You enable all settings from Global Properties > NAT.
When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error ‘page cannot be displayed” Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of the Web server.
B. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
C. There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings Merge Manual proxy ARP and Automatic ARP configuration are enabled in Global Properties. The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.
D. There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 130
Which of the following SSL Network Extender server-side prerequisites is NOT correct?
A. The Gateway must be configured to work with Visitor Mode.
B. There are distinctly separate access rules required for SecureClient users vs. SSL Network Extender users.
C. To use Integrity Clientless Security (ICS), you must install the IC3 server or configuration tool.
D. The specific Security Gateway must be configured as a member of the Remote Access Community

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 131
You need to determine if your company’s Web servers are accessed an excessive number of times from the same host. How would you configure this in the IPS tab?
A. Successive multiple connections
B. Successive alerts
C. Successive DoS attacks
D. HTTP protocol inspection

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 132
What does it indicate when a Check Point product name includes the word “SMART”?
A. Stateful Management of all Routed Traffic.
B. This Check Point product is a GUI Client.
C. Security Management Architecture.
D. The Check Point product includes Artificial Intelligence.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 133
How many times is the firewall kernel invoked for a packet to be passed through a VPN connection?
A. Three times
B. Twice
C. Once
D. None The IPSO kernel handles it Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
When attempting to connect with SecureClient Mobile the following error message is received. The certificate provided is invalid. Please provide the username and password.
What is the probable cause of the error?
A. The certificate provided is invalid.
B. The user’s credentials are invalid.
C. The user attempting to connect is not configured to have an office mode IP address so the connection failed.
D. There is no connection to the server, and the client disconnected.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
The fw stat -l command includes all of the following except:
A. The number of packets that have been inspected
B. The date and time of the policy that is installed.
C. The number of times the policy has been installed ActualTests.com
D. The number of packets that have been dropped

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 136
Although SIC was already established and running, Joe reset SIC between the Security Management Server and a remote Gateway. He set a new activation key on the Gateway’s side with the cpconfig command and put in the same activation key in the Gateway’s object on the Security Management Server Unfortunately SIC cannot be established. What is a possible reason for the problem?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The installed policy blocks the communication.
B. Joe forgot to reboot the Gateway.
C. Joe forgot to exit from cpconfig.
D. The old Gateway object should have been deleted and recreated.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
The TotallyCoolSecurity Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS Chicago_Profile for fw-chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing logs, Matt noticed that fw- chicago is not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup. Analyze the output below and determine how can correct the problem.

A. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Activate protections manually Instead of ActualTests.com per the IPS Policy
B. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated
C. Matt should assign the fw-chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile
D. Matt should change the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode will not work.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
Which statement below describes the most correct strategy for implementing a Rule Base?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 55 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. Add the Stealth Rule before the last rule.
B. Umit grouping to rules regarding specific access.
C. Place the most frequently used rules at the top of the Policy and the ones that are not frequently used further down.
D. Place a network-traffic rule above the administrator access rule.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 139
An Administrator without access to SmartDashboard installed a new IPSO-based R71 Security Gateway over the weekend. He e-mailed you the SIC activation key. You want to confirm communication between the Security Gateway and the Management Server by installing the Policy. What might prevent you from installing the Policy?
A. You first need to create a new UTM-1 Gateway object, establish SIC via the Communication button, and define the Gateway’s topology.
B. You have not established Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between the Security Gateway and Management Server You must initialize SIC on the Security Management Server.
C. An intermediate local Security Gateway does not allow a policy install through it to the remote new Security Gateway appliance Resolve by running the tw unloadlocal command on the local Security Gateway.
D. You first need to run the fw unloadlocal command on the R71 Security Gateway appliance in order to remove the restrictive default policy.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 140
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. diag
B. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
C. netstat > date.netstat.txt
D. cpstat > date.cpatat.txt

Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA N10-006 Exam Questions , Best CompTIA N10-006 Preparation Materials UP To 50% Off

Welcome to download the newest Examwind N10-006 practice exams VCE dumps: http://www.examwind.com/1y0-a26.html

QUESTION 21
A company has a new offering to provide access to their product from a central location rather than clients internally hosting the product on the client network. The product contains sensitive corporate information that should not be accessible from one client to another. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Public SaaS
B. Private SaaS
C. Hybrid IaaS
D. Community IaaS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which of the following refers to a network that spans several buildings that are within walking distance of each other?
A. CAN
B. WAN

C. PAN
D. MAN
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
An administrator notices an unused cable behind a cabinet that is terminated with a DB-9 connector. Which of the following protocols was MOST likely used on this cable?
A. RS-232
B. 802.3

C. ATM
D. Token ring
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes an IPv6 address of ::1?
A. Broadcast
B. Loopback
C. Classless
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
A SQL server needs several terabytes of disk space available to do an uncompressed backup of a database. Which of the following devices would be the MOST cost efficient to use for this backup?
A. iSCSI SAN
B. FCoE SAN

C. NAS
D. USB flash drive
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address. Which of the following should be configured?
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which of the following network elements enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?
A. Access switch
B. UC gateway
C. UC server
D. Edge router
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Network Operations
QUESTION 1
A network technician receives the following alert from a network device: “High utilizations threshold exceeded on gi1/0/24 : current value 9413587.54” Which of the following is being monitored to trigger the alarm?
A. Speed and duplex mismatch
B. Wireless channel utilization
C. Network device CPU
D. Network device memory
E. Interface link status Correct Answer: E
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
A technician is configuring a managed switch and needs to enable 802.3af. Which of the following should the technician enable?
A. PoE
B. Port bonding
C. VLAN
D. Trunking Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following protocols must be implemented in order for two switches to share VLAN information?
A. VTP
B. MPLS

C. STP
D. PPTP Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
After a recent breach, the security technician decides the company needs to analyze and aggregate its security logs. Which of the following systems should be used?
A. Event log
B. Syslog

C. SIEM
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A network technician is diligent about maintaining all system servers’ at the most current service pack level available. After performing upgrades, users experience issues with server-based applications. Which of the following should be used to prevent issues in the future?
A. Configure an automated patching server
B. Virtualize the servers and take daily snapshots
C. Configure a honeypot for application testing
D. Configure a test lab for updates
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A company has implemented the capability to send all log files to a central location by utilizing an encrypted channel. The log files are sent to this location in order to be reviewed. A recent exploit has caused the company’s encryption to become unsecure. Which of the following would be required to resolve the exploit?
A. Utilize a FTP service
B. Install recommended updates
C. Send all log files through SMTP
D. Configure the firewall to block port 22
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
The RAID controller on a server failed and was replaced with a different brand. Which of the following will be needed after the server has been rebuilt and joined to the domain?
A. Vendor documentation
B. Recent backups
C. Physical IP address
D. Physical network diagram
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A network technician has been tasked with designing a WLAN for a small office. One of the requirements of this design is that it is capable of supporting HD video streaming to multiple devices. Which of the following would be the appropriate wireless technology for this design?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A company is experiencing accessibility issues reaching services on a cloud-based system. Which of the following monitoring tools should be used to locate possible outages?
A. Network analyzer
B. Packet analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Network sniffer
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A company is experiencing very slow network speeds of 54Mbps. A technician has been hired to perform an assessment on the existing wireless network. The technician has recommended an 802.11n network infrastructure. Which of the following allows 802.11n to reach higher speeds?
A. MU-MIMO
B. LWAPP
C. PoE

D. MIMO
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
It has been determined by network operations that there is a severe bottleneck on the company’s mesh topology network. The field technician has chosen to use log management and found that one router is making routing decisions slower than others on the network. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Network device power issues
B. Network device CPU issues
C. Storage area network issues
D. Delayed responses from RADIUS
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12

The last segment is related to the basic inferential statistics that require your knowledge of chi-square, correlations, regression, samples, statistical errors, t-test and statistics. Command of these segments will help you in obtaining this certification. It will help you to understand the CompTIA N10-006 exam questions and answer them appropriately.

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