Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-060 Exam Download, Up To Date Adobe 9A0-060 Practice Test Online Sale

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QUESTION 126
When should you use a Raw Track Type?
A. when your Motion Target is not available
B. when you are using Camera Raw footage as your motion source
C. when you want to apply a fast, simple motion track to the position of another layer
D. when you want the tracker to affect the anchor point of a layer, instead of its position
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Which statement choosing the Layer > Frame Blending > Pixel Motion command is true?
A. It is faster to render than the Frame Mix method.
B. It produces new frames of video by duplicating existing frames.
C. It produces better results than Frame Mix for footage that has been greatly slowed down.
D. It is enabled/disabled for all layers by the Enable Motion Blur button at the top of Timeline window.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
What is the purpose of the Tracker Plug-in option in the Motion Stabilizer Options dialog box?
A. It gives you access to some of the more advanced tracking features such as sub-pixel positioning.
B. It enables you to access a third-party motion tracker that has been designed to work with After Effects.
C. It allows you to apply the track point’s XY coordinates to an After Effects plug-in that utilizes XY coordinates as an effect point.
D. It gives you access to several plug-ins designed to enhance footage to attain a better track, at the cost of significant increase in track time.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 129
You create an animator that wiggles the position of your text. The characters are all wiggling by the same amount at the same time, making the text difficult to read. What must you do to the Wiggly Selector so that the characters wiggle more closely to each other?
A. turn off lock dimensions
B. raise the correlation value
C. raise the random speed value
D. set Based On to characters excluding spaces

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
Which is the purpose of Optical Kerning?
A. It adjusts the spacing between adjacent characters based on their shapes.
B. It automatically kerns certain letters for optimal display based on kern pairs.
C. It separates the letters properly when using any of the Lights & Optical text presets.
D. It forces a text animator range to assign a start and end point based on visual data rather than mathematical data.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Which statement about text animators is true?
A. An animator must include only one property.
B. You can have only one animator per property.
C. An animator CANNOT be randomized without an expression.
D. An animator can be used to animate the Fill Color via RGB values.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which two statements about Text Animation Presets are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can only be applied to Point text.
B. They can be previewed in Adobe Bridge.
C. They are adjusted using the Effects Controls panel.
D. They can be edited in the Effects and Presets panel.
E. The keyframes created by the presets can be modified.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 133
What is the function of the Perpendicular to Path text option?
A. It rotates each letter so that it is perpendicular to the path.
B. It rotates each word so that it is perpendicular to the path.
C. It offsets the position of each word so that it is perpendicular to the path.
D. It offsets the position of each character so that it is perpendicular to the path.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
Which two methods are used to create paragraph text? (Choose two.)
A. change the animated text layer’s Units Based On property to lines
B. choose Layer > New > Text; enter text characters; press Enter on main keyboard (Windows) or Return (Mac) to start a new line
C. select either the Horizontal or Vertical Type tool; drag diagonally in the composition to create a text layer with a bounding box; enter text characters
D. select and copy text in a word processing application; use the Type tool to create an insertion point in After Effects; paste text into the new layer
E. import a paragraph text layer from a Photoshop file; select the layer and choose Layer > Convert to Editable Text

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 135
You create a solid layer scaled to 100%, and make it the child of a null object. You scale the null object up to 200%, and then unparent the solid from the null object. What is the result?
A. The solid reverts to its original size of 100%.
B. The child stays the same size, and its scale property indicates 100%.
C. The solid reverts to its original size with its scale property indicating 200%.
D. The child stays the same size, and its scale property changes from indicating 100% to 200%.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
Which statement about a layer using the Stencil Alpha transfer mode is true?
A. The layer must be invisible for the stencil to work.
B. It transfers its alpha channels to all layers below it.
C. It only works properly if there are no layers below it.
D. It borrows the alpha channel from the layers below it.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 137
You have a composition with five layers. You want to animate a Lens Flare effect independently of the existing layers. Which new layer type should you choose?
A. null
B. light
C. solid
D. adjustment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
What is the result of scaling up a 3D parent layer on the Z-axis?
A. The child layers move away from the parent in 3D space.
B. Movement of the child layers becomes exaggerated on the all 3 axes.
C. The influence of the parent layer over the child layers is decreased exponentially.
D. The Z-scale property value of the parent layer changes, but there is NO effect to its appearance or its child layers.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 139
What happens when you time-reverse a layer?
A. Auto Orientation is reversed.
B. Partially-linear Hold keyframes work in reverse.
C. footage running backwards in the Composition window still runs forward in the Layer window.
D. The in-point for a layer is placed at the end of the timeline and the out-point for a layer is placed at the beginning.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 140
Click the Exhibit button.
Which layer switch should you select to toggle Collapse Transformations?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 141
You create a composition with four layers. You want to scale and rotate the composition around a central point. There is also a fifth background layer that will NOT move. You want the four layers to rotate together. You also want the four layers to scale independently of each other.
What should you do?
A. create a new camera object layer; set keyframes to rotate the camera; scale each of the four layers separately
B. create a new camera object layer; set keyframes for that layer to animate the focal length and rotation of the camera
C. create a new null object layer; set that layer as the parent for the four animated layers; set keyframes for both scale and rotation for the null object layer
D. create a new null object layer; set that layer as the parent for the four animated layers; set keyframes for rotation for the null object layer; set Scale keyframes for each of the four layers

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 142
Which statement about the Paint panel’s Source property is true?
A. It only works with video footage.
B. It is only available when using clone tools.
C. It specifies the layer on which you are painting.
D. It specifies a layer as the source of your brush shape.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 143
What is the function of the Wave Type property on the Radio Waves effect?
A. It determines the shape of the wave.
B. It determines if the wave expands or contracts.
C. It determines whether it uses a 2D or 3D perspective.
D. It determines how the wave behaves after it leaves its source point.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 144
What is the function of the Referring Presets option in the Effects and Presets panel?
A. It lists all effects used in a preset, below the preset’s name.
B. It lists presets that contain an effect, below the effect’s name.
C. It lists all layers in the current compositon that are using the selected preset.
D. It list all presets that must have other layers to reference in order to function properly.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 145
You are using the Levels effect to confirm that the RGB values of your layer never exceed 235. Which setting should you use?
A. Input black 15
B. Input white 235
C. Output black 15
D. Output white 235

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 146
You want to create a Depth-of-Field effect for a layer in a composition. The layer you want to blur is named street scene. You create a grayscale image in Photoshop using black to indicate the areas that should stay in focus. You name this image focus_ map. You import and place it in your composition below the street scene layer. You add the Lens Blur effect to the street scene layer.
Which setting should you use for the Lens Blur effect?
A. Depth Map Layer: focus_map; Depth Map Channel:Alpha
B. Depth Map Layer: street scene; Depth Map Channel: Alpha
C. Depth Map Layer: focus_map; Depth Map Channel: Luminance
D. Depth Map Layer: street scene, Depth Map Channel: Luminance

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 147
Click the Exhibit button.
You apply the Starburst Spin animation preset from the Effects and Presets panel to a solid layer. This effect generates blue starburst shaped waves from a producer point, which increase in size over the animation. You want to change the shape of the waves to that of a circle.
What should you do?
A. under the Radio Waves effect, choose Wave Type > Image Contour; under the Image Contour option, increase both the value for Tolerance and Contour
B. under the Radio Waves effect, choose Wave Type > Image Contour; under the Image Contour option, increase the value for Value Threshold and Contour
C. under the Radio Waves effect, choose Wave Type > Polygon; under the Polygon option, increase the value for the Sides property and turn the Star property to OFF
D. under the Radio Waves effect, choose Wave Type > Polygon; under the Polygon option, increase the value for Curviness and turn the Star property to OFF

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 148
Which statement about saving Animation Presets is true?
A. An Animation Preset must contain animation.
B. An Animation Preset can NOT include expressions.
C. By default, Animation Presets are saved as PFX files in the Presets directory of the application folder.
D. The most recently saved or applied Animation Presets appear under the Recent Animation Presets menu in the Animation menu.
Correct Answer: D

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CCA3.0, Citrix

Citrix 1Y0-A16 Exams, First-hand Citrix 1Y0-A16 VCE&PDF For Download

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QUESTION 60
How should local profiles be implemented?
A. Within the Active Directory user account, a profile named NTUSER.MAN should be designated.
B. Within the Active Directory user account, a profile named NTUSER.DAT should be designated.
C. Within the appropriate Active Directory OU, a profile named NTUSER.MAN should be designated as a GPO setting.
D. Within the appropriate Active Directory OU, a profile named NTUSER.DAT should be designated as a GPO setting.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
Why is folder redirection recommended?
A. It minimizes the size of the synchronized profile data.
B. It is the only way to save Internet Explorer favorites.
C. It causes user data to be saved on the domain controller.
D. It saves user data to a network repository.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Why should the Profile Management service (MSI) be installed on the Active Directory Domain Controllers?
A. It minimizes network traffic.
B. It is the only way to save Internet Explorer favorites.
C. It causes user data to be saved on the domain controller.
D. It saves user data to a network repository.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 63
Why should the Profile Management service be installed on the Web Interface servers?
A. The Web Interface is used for authentication.
B. It is the only way to save Internet Explorer favorites.
C. It allows users to access their desktops and applications from a central location.
D. It saves user data to a network repository. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
Why should Profile Management service (MSI) be installed on all zone data collectors and desktop delivery controllers?
A. The zone data collectors and desktop delivery controllers contain dynamic session information.
B. It is the only way to save Internet Explorer favorites.
C. It causes user data to be saved on the zone data collectors and desktop delivery controllers.
D. It saves user data to a network repository. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
Why is folder redirection NOT recommended?
A. It eliminates the need for the folder contents to traverse the network.
B. It requires a network repository for users.
C. It requires administrative configuration.
D. It introduces the possibility of profile corruption. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
Why is Citrix Profile management without folder redirection recommended?
A. It increases application response time within the users’ session.
B. It requires a network repository for users.
C. It requires administrative configuration.
D. It introduces the possibility of profile corruption. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
Scenario:
Healthy Helping Hands is looking to simplify application management even further by leveraging application streaming. They are looking to stream the
PositivelyPeople application for the HR group.

What would be the best profiling method to use to ensure that this application works correctly, according to the requirements of the HR group?

A. Profile the application to Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008.
B. Profile the application for Windows Server 2008 and use Inter-Isolation Communication to link to Microsoft Word and Excel.
C. Profile the application for Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2003, Windows XP and Windows Vista to ensure that the application will be available on all of the operating systems.
D. Profile the application to Windows XP and Windows Vista operating systems in case users need to access the application when offline.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
How can Healthy Helping Hands best accomplish publishing the application?
A. When the application is ready to be published, browse to the .PROFILE file in the console and publish the application.
B. Ensure that both Microsoft Word and Excel are published in the console before publishing the PositivelyPeople application.
C. Before publishing the application use the Profiler to make sure that both Microsoft Word and Excel profiles are linked to the PositivelyPeople profile, and then publish the application.
D. Publish the application as you would publish a hosted application.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
How can Healthy Helping Hands best accomplish profiling the application for multiple operating systems?
A. Use one profiling server, specifically from the oldest client or server operating system, to which applications will be streamed.
B. Use two profiling servers, one for each operating system family.
C. Use four profiling servers, one for each unique operating system.
D. Use three profiling servers, one for each application.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://support.citrix.com/servlet/KbServlet/download/18183-102- 641274/AppStreamingDeliveryProfilingBestPractices.pd (page 1)
QUESTION 70
How can Healthy Helping Hands best accomplish publishing the application for offline access?
A. Publish the application as ‘Access from server’.
B. Publish the application as ‘Streamed to client’ and select ‘Enable offline access’ so that users can access the application when offline.
C. Select the ‘Streamed to client’ option to enable streaming to the local machine.
D. Publish the application as ‘Streamed if possible otherwise access from server’ and select ‘Enable offline access’ so that users can access the application when offline.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 71
Why is installing the application on both Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 and then publishing it to the users the best possible choice?
A. The user will be able to launch the application on any platform as long as the Web Client or Client for Java is installed.
B. The user can launch the application from server-based operating systems.
C. Installing the application on Windows Server 2003 and then on Windows Server 2008 simplifies streaming.
D. The user will be presented with an option to launch or not launch the application. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://support.citrix.com/proddocs/topic/xenapp6-w2k8/ps-stream-intro-wrapper-for- xenapp-library-v2.html
QUESTION 72
Why is publishing the application as ‘Streamed if possible otherwise access from server’ the best possible choice?
A. The user will have the choice of application access method.
B. It provides the most efficient network access method.
C. If the client is unable to stream the application, the user will still be able to access the application from the server.
D. The application will be available offline for all clients that support it. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 73
Why is publishing the application as ‘Accessed from server’ the best possible choice?
A. Selecting ‘Access from server’ will allow the application to be streamed across the XenApp farm.
B. The user can launch the application on server based operating systems.
C. Installing the application on Windows Server 2003 and then Windows Server 2008 simplifies streaming.
D. The user will be presented with an option to launch or not launch the application. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 74
Why is publishing the application as ‘Streamed to server’ the best possible choice?
A. Streamed to server’ option eliminates confidential HR data from being stored on any user device.
B. It reduces the risk of application conflicts.
C. It improves the application performance.
D. It eases application administration and increases application compatibility for the XenApp farm. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 75
Why is profiling the application for Windows Server 2008 and using Inter-Isolation Communication the best possible choice?
A. Supporting one operating system eases management and administration.
B. It makes the application available from any XenApp server in the farm.
C. The use of Inter-Isolation Communication allows the PositivelyPeople application to automatically launch its helper applications.
D. It uses the most recent Microsoft operating system technology available.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://support.citrix.com/proddocs/topic/xenapp5fp-w2k8/ps-stream-profile-iic- overview-v2.html
QUESTION 76
Why is publishing the helper applications required before publishing PositivelyPeople?
A. The Microsoft Word and Excel executables must be registered with the console before PositivelyPeople can be published.
B. The application needs to enumerate both Microsoft Word and Excel in order to launch.
C. The console will perform version validation of Microsoft Word and Excel to ensure compatibility with PositivelyPeople.
D. PositivelyPeople requires that Microsoft Word and Excel be published separately.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 77
Why is publishing the application in the same manner as a hosted application the best possible choice?
A. This is the quickest possible deployment method for the application.
B. This deployment method does not cause conflicts between PositivelyPeople and the helper applications.
C. All other deployment methods have the potential to accidentally delete the program binaries.
D. This is the only deployment method supported by the software vendors.
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 78
Why should Healthy Helping Hands use one profiling server from the oldest client or operating system to which applications will be streamed?
A. It allows Healthy Helping Hands to most efficiently achieve a high success rate when delivering applications to several platforms.
B. It reduces the number of operating system images used by the profiling servers that must be maintained.
C. It is the quickest possible deployment method.
D. Healthy Helping Hands only has one profiling server available.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 79
Why should Healthy Helping Hands use two profiles, one for each operating system family?
A. It ensures the highest application compatibility with the client operating systems.
B. It is the minimum number of servers that can support both 32-bit and 64-bit client operating systems.
C. It is the quickest possible deployment method.
D. Healthy Helping Hands only has two profiling servers available.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
Why should Healthy Helping hands use four profiles, one for each unique operating system?
A. It allows Healthy Helping Hands to achieve the highest success rate when delivering applications to several platforms.
B. It allows for customization of program features for each client operating system.
C. It is the only way to ensure application compatibility across multiple operating system platforms.
D. It increases application security by isolating each profile to its own server.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
Why should Healthy Helping Hands use three profiling servers, one for each application?
A. It ensures the highest application compatibility between the two helper applications and the PositivelyPeople application.
B. This is the minimum number of servers that can support the three applications.
C. Microsoft Word and Excel cannot be installed on the same server.
D. It increases application security by isolating each application to its own server.
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Why should Healthy Helping Hands publish the application as ‘Access from server’?
A. The PositivelyPeople application has only been tested on server operating systems.
B. This deployment is the most reliable for users.
C. It allows users to keep their current device configurations.
D. This deployment method uses less network bandwidth.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
Why should Healthy Helping Hands publish the application as ‘Streamed to client’ and select the ‘Enable offline access’ option?
A. This allows all HR users to access the PositivelyPeople application when disconnected from the network.
B. It reduces the need for application updates.
C. It improves the application performance.
D. It makes application access for PositivelyPeople more secure.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 84
Why should Healthy Helping Hands select the ‘Streamed to client’ option?
A. This allows all HR users to access the PositivelyPeople application when disconnected from the network.
B. It reduces the need for application updates.
C. It improves the application performance.
D. It makes application access for PositivelyPeople more secure.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
Why should Healthy Helping Hands publish the application as ‘Streamed if possible otherwise access from server’ and select the ‘Enable offline access’ option?
A. This allows all HR users to access the PositivelyPeople application when disconnected from the network.
B. It reduces the need for application updates.
C. It improves the application performance.
D. It makes application access for PositivelyPeople more secure.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Healthy Helping Hands has determined that Citrix Repeater will be used for WAN acceleration but can only budget for six appliances at this time. Where should an architect deploy these appliances?
A. Deploy two each in New York, San Francisco and Hong Kong.
B. Deploy two each in San Francisco and New York and one each in Mexico City and Hong Kong.
C. Deploy two each in New York and San Francisco and one each in Hong Kong and London.
D. Deploy two in New York and one each in San Francisco, Hong Kong, London and Miami.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
Network traffic is expected to double from the manufacturing locations when a new application is added early next year. How should Healthy Helping Hands address this requirement?
A. Deploy the Repeater plug-in to all physical and virtual desktops in the manufacturing locations.
B. Deploy the Repeater plug-in to all devices company-wide.
C. Budget for three Branch Repeater appliances.
D. Budget for two pairs of Access Gateway Enterprise Edition appliances.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
Why should the Repeater plug-in be deployed to all physical and virtual desktops in the manufacturing locations?
A. It will accelerate ICA and CGP traffic.
B. It will accelerate ICA, CGP and SSL traffic.
C. It will encrypt all user data.
D. It will compress screen paints generated by several users.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
Why should Repeater plug-in be deployed to all the devices?
A. Increasing bandwidth between international sites takes a long time.
B. This is the most cost-effective solution that addresses future bandwidth requirements.
C. The devices would support the Repeater plug-in.
D. Using Repeater plug-in offers better performance when installed on HP printers.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
Why should three additional Branch Repeater devices be recommended?
A. Increasing bandwidth between international sites takes a long time.
B. This solution resolves the bandwidth issue while also achieving redundancy for the main sites.
C. Using Branch Repeater is a more cost-effective solution than leasing additional bandwidth.
D. Using Branch Repeater offers better stability and more predictable results than leasing additional bandwidth.
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Why should two pairs of Access Gateway Enterprise Edition appliances be recommended?
A. Increasing bandwidth between international sites takes a long time.
B. Access Gateway provides more features than Branch Repeater.
C. Leasing additional bandwidth is expensive.
D. Access Gateway is less expensive than Branch Repeater.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 92
Scenario:
The information gathered during the Healthy Helping Hands infrastructure assessment has been used by an architect to design a new infrastructure. The architect is concerned with potential bandwidth issues for users in the regional offices. As part of the design, the architect needs to deliver monthly reports detailing the end user experience of virtual desktop users located in these regional offices. The architect wants to leverage EdgeSight to monitor the new infrastructure. Which monitoring solution should the architect implement in the environment?
A. EdgeSight for XenApp
B. EdgeSight for virtual desktops
C. EdgeSight for Load Testing
D. EdgeSight for NetScaler Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 93
How should the architect implement the EdgeSight for XenApp agent?

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CCE-AD, Citrix

Citrix 1Y0-400 Dump, The Most Effective Citrix 1Y0-400 VCE&PDF On Store

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QUESTION 44
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. How should SecureICA be implemented?
A. By using NetScaler
B. By enabling SecureICA on delivery groups
C. By implementing an Active Directory group policy to configure IPsec
D. By installing an SSL certificate in the master image

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. How should IPsec be implemented?
A. By using NetScaler
B. By implementing secure delivery groups
C. By implementing an Active Directory group policy
D. By configuring a local IPsec policy in the master image Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted. How should SSL be implemented?
A. By installing certificates on Citrix infrastructure components
B. By configuring an Active Directory group policy to distribute SSL certificates
C. By installing a certificate authority server in the DMZ
D. By installing an SSL certificate in the master image

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
The company’s security officer has stated that for compliance reasons, all internal and external network traffic must be encrypted.
A. By using NetScaler
B. By implementing secure delivery groups
C. By implementing an Active Directory group policy to configure L2TP
D. By installing a Windows Server operating system with Routing and Remote Access Service

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
What are the benefits of using SecureICA to meet the company’s compliance requirements?
A. It encrypts internal ICA traffic.
B. It encrypts ICA traffic from remote users.
C. It is required to enable the SSL Relay service.
D. It complies with industry-standard SSL encryption requirements. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 49
What are the benefits of using IPsec to meet the company’s compliance requirements?
A. It encrypts internal network traffic.
B. It encrypts ICA traffic from remote users.
C. It is required to enable the SSL Relay service.
D. It complies with industry-standard IPsec encryption requirements.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
What are the benefits of using SSL to meet the company’s compliance requirements?
A. It eliminates the need to distribute an internal root certificate.
B. It encrypts end-to-end traffic from remote users.
C. It is required to enable the SSL Relay service.
D. It provides secure internal and external network communication. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 51
What are the benefits of using SSL to meet the company’s compliance requirements?
A. It consumes lower CPU resources than other encryption technologies.
B. It is supported on industry-standard devices.
C. It is required to enable the SSL Relay service.
D. It enables two-factor authentication.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 52
What are the benefits of using L2TP to meet the company’s compliance requirements?
A. It encrypts internal ICA traffic.
B. It encrypts ICA traffic from remote users.
C. It is required to enable the SSL Relay service.
D. It complies with industry-standard SSL encryption requirements. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the existing PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
What should the architect recommend?
A. Multi-homed Provisioning Services servers on existing server VLANs
B. Multi-homed Provisioning Services server on dedicated VLANs
C. Multi-homed Provisioning Services server on a dedicated physical switch
D. Multi-homed Provisioning Services server with NetScaler App Firewall Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How should the architect recommend that a highly available multi-homed Provisioning Services server configuration be implemented?
A. By installing multiple NICs in the Provisioning Services server in each datacenter
B. By deploying one Provisioning Services server in the primary and one in the secondary datacenter
C. By deploying two Provisioning Services servers in the same datacenter
D. By using NetScaler with GSLB to load balance the Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 55
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How should the architect implement a highly available Provisioning Services server on dedicated VLANs?
A. By installing multiple NICs in one Provisioning Services server in each datacenter
B. By deploying one Provisioning Services server in the primary and one in the secondary datacenter
C. By deploying two Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter
D. By using NetScaler with GSLB to load balance the Provisioning Services servers in each datacenter

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the existing PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How should the architect implement a highly available Provisioning Services server on dedicated physical switches?
A. By installing multiple NICs in one Provisioning Services server in each datacenter
B. By deploying one Provisioning Services server on a dedicated switch in the primary and secondary datacenters
C. By deploying two Provisioning Services servers on dedicated switches in each datacenter
D. By using NetScaler with GSLB to load balance the Provisioning Services servers on dedicated switches in each datacenter

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 57
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How should the architect implement a highly available Provisioning Services server by using NetScaler App Firewall?
A. By implementing NetScaler App Firewall policies
B. By deploying GSLB on NetScaler
C. By deploying TFTP load balancing using NetScaler
D. By load balancing Provisioning Services streaming services using NetScaler

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How do multi-homed Provisioning Services servers help the company secure streaming traffic?
A. Multiple NICs separate disk and user data traffic.
B. Multiple NICs enable disk data traffic to be encrypted with IPsec.
C. Multiple NICs allow the necessary TCP offload settings to be configured on the streaming NIC.
D. Multiple NICs provide multiple IP addresses that can be dedicated to streaming traffic.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How does using a dedicated VLAN help the company secure streaming traffic?
A. Dedicated VLANs ensure streaming traffic is NOT visible to other VLANs in the datacenter.
B. Dedicated VLANs enable streaming traffic to be encrypted with IPsec.
C. Dedicated VLANs allow the necessary TCP offload settings to be configured on the streaming NIC.
D. Dedicated VLANs provide multiple IP addresses that can be dedicated to streaming traffic.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the existing PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How does using a dedicated switch help the company secure streaming traffic?
A. Dedicated switches enable streaming traffic to be encrypted with IPsec.
B. Dedicated switches allow the necessary TCP offload settings to be configured on the streaming NIC.
C. Dedicated switches provide multiple IP addresses that can be dedicated to streaming traffic. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How does using a dedicated switch help the company secure streaming traffic?
A. Dedicated VLANs ensure streaming traffic is NOT visible to other VLANs in the datacenter.
B. Dedicated switches enable streaming traffic to be encrypted with IPsec.
C. Dedicated switches allow the necessary TCP offload settings to be configured on the streaming NIC.
D. Dedicated switches enable isolation of Spanning Tree instances.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Scenario: The company needs to ensure that the provisioning traffic does NOT interfere with the exisiting PXE solution. The Provisioning Services servers will be connected to a 10 Gbps network.
How does using NetScaler App Firewall help the company secure streaming traffic?
A. NetScaler App Firewall detects network-based threats at the application layer.
B. NetScaler App Firewall enables streaming traffic to be encrypted with IPsec.
C. NetScaler App Firewall removes the need for Access Control Lists on switches.
D. NetScaler App Firewall enables isolation of streaming traffic from other VLANs.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
Scenario: The architect for the company has identified that virtualizing the entire server infrastructure will provide the best return on investment (ROI) and lowest maintenance costs for the new infrastructure. In order to proceed with this recommendation, a monitoring strategy must be put in place to ensure that the virtualization platform does NOT become overloaded. Which virtualization component should an architect monitor to identify virtual desktop bottlenecks?
A. XenServer hosts
B. Delivery Controllers
C. Provisioning Services servers
D. Server OS machines Correct Answer: A QUESTION 64
Scenario: The architect for the company has identified that virtualizing the entire server infrastructure will provide the best return on investment (ROI) and lowest maintenance costs for the new infrastructure. In order to proceed with this recommendation, a monitoring strategy must be put in place to ensure that the virtualization platform does NOT become overloaded.
How can the architect identify if the XenServer hosts are the source of a bottleneck?
A. Identify if the CPU consumption is above 85%
B. Identify if memory consumption is above 90%.
C. Identify if disk queue length increases above zero.
D. Identify if network utilization rises above 50%.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 65
How can the architect identify if the Delivery Controller is the source of a bottleneck?
A. Identify excessive memory and network utilization.
B. Identify excessive CPU consumption.
C. Identify excessive disk and network I/O.
D. Identify excessive disk I/O and page file utilization. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 66
How can the architect identify if the Provisioning Services servers are the source of a bottleneck?
A. Identify excessive CPU and memory consumption.
B. Identify excessive memory and network utilization.
C. Identify excessive CPU and network I/O.
D. Identify excessive disk I/O and page file utilization.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
How can the architect identify if the server OS machines are the source of a bottleneck?
A. Identify excessive CPU and memory consumption.
B. Identify excessive memory and network utilization.
C. Identify excessive disk and network I/O.
D. Identify excessive disk I/O and page file utilization. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 68
Why should CPU consumption above 85% be used to identify bottlenecks?
A. At least 20% of resources should be available at all times.
B. XenServer host CPU utilization above 85% causes excessive context switching.
C. XenServer host reserves 20% of all CPU for context switching.
D. Running XenCenter will consume 20% of all CPU resources. Correct Answer: A

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EX0-001 Dumps, Buy EX0-001 Exam Dumpd With Accurate Answers

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Flydumps is ready to provide EX0-001 candidates with EX0-001 training materials which can be very much helpful for getting EX0-001 certification, which means that candidates. EX0-001 can easily get access to the services of EX0-001 for practice exam,which will assure them 100% EX0-001 success rate.Though EX0-001 tests are not easy at all, but they do not make EX0-001 things complicated.

QUESTION 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?
A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1.
ITIL is vendor neutral

2.
It does not prescribe actions

3.
ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which of the following BEST describes partners’ in the phrase people, processes, products and partners”?
A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B. Customers
C. Internal departments
D. The facilities management function

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48
Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?
A. The service level management
B. The IT service continuity management
C. The service catalogue management
D. The supplier management

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 49
The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?
A. Data
B. Information
C. Knowledge
D. Governance

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 50
Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 51
Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1.
Financial arrangements related to the contract

2.
Description of the goods or service provided

3.
Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 53
Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 54
Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service portfolio management
D. Service catalogue management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 55
Consider the following list:
1.
Change authority

2.
Change manager

3.
Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 56
Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 57
Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?
A. Technical management
B. Service desk
C. Application management
D. Facilities management

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58
Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?
A. RACI model
B. Incident model
C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D. The Deming Cycle

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 59
Which process will regularly anal0yse incident data to identify discernible trends?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. C0hange management
D. Event management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?
A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
D. A service not directly used by the business Correct Answer: A

Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. To restore service to a user
D. To eliminate recurring incidents

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?
A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components
C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Which one of the following activities are carried out during the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?
A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
D. Training of all staff and investment of capital
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Service design emphasizes the importance of the “Four Ps”. These “Four Ps” include Partners, People, Processes and one other “P”. Which of the following is the additional “P”?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Products
D. Potential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?
A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of market spaces
D. The design of the technology architectures
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A service level agreement (SLA)
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service portfolio
D. A service description
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1.
Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer’s successful

2.
Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment

3.
Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1.
Defining the process strategy

2.
Assisting with process design

3.
Improving the process

4.
Performing all activities involved in a process
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?
1.
The services

2.
The architectures

3.
The configuration items

4.
The processes
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?
A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?
A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
What are underpinning contracts used to document?
A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider
B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer
D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?
A. Operational level agreement (OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement (SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?
A. The IT director
B. The process owner
C. The service owner
D. The customer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?
A. Knowledge management
B. Release and deployment management
C. Service asset and configuration management
D. Service level management

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1.
To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer

2.
To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?
A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)
B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
C. All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider
D. All incidents reported to the service desk

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Continual Service Improvement
C. Service Operation
D. Service Design

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Design coordination
D. Release management

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1.
What is the vision?

2.
Where are we now?

3.
Where do we want to be?

4.
How do we get there?

5.
Did we get there?

6.
?
A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?
B. How much did it cost?
C. How do we keep the momentum going?
D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
B. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which of the following BEST describes a problem?
A. An issue reported by a user
B. The cause of two or more incidents
C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
D. The cause of one or more incidents Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 161
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server Correct Answer: B

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm.
Reference: Arch student guide p.12-42
QUESTION 162
Which of the following protocols is able to provide block access to remote storage over WAN links?
A. SCSI-FP
B. SIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCIP
E. eSCSI
F. CIFS

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 163
Below is a list of characteristics and applications that can belong to either the SAN or the NAS storage network model. Can you sort the list by dragging the appropriate option to the correct box on the right? Drag each option to the appropriate box.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 164
You are a technician at Certkiller.com. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which device will act as a bridge between a Fiber Channel SAN and an IP network.
What would your reply be?
A. Storage Router
B. Switching hub
C. FC-HBA attached host
D. FC Switch
E. NAS GE Switch

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
The Cisco storage router delivers redundant iSCSI paths to a pair of Fibre Channel switches. iSCSI takes advantage of the connection-oriented TCP protocol for reliable service. Ethernet was already part of the IT network. This meant trained personnel were on board, and simplified
the storage networking installation shown in the figure.
Cost was an important factor in choosing iSCSI. Because the research facility already had TCP/IP and
Gigabit Ethernet networks installed, the iSCSI solution fit their budget and met their storage networking
needs.

Reference: Arch student guide p.13-33

QUESTION 165
You are the network administrator at Certkiller. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which protocol encapsulates Fiber Channel frames so that they can be transported transparently over an IP network.
What will your reply be?
A. iSCSO
B. FCIP
C. SCSI-FP
D. eSCSI
E. CIFS

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
An important technology for linking Fibre Channel SANs is FCIP. FCIP and iSCSI are complementary solutions for enabling company-wide access to storage. FCIP transparently interconnects Fibre Channel SAN islands over IP networks through FCIP tunnels, while iSCSI allows IP-connected hosts to access iSCSI or FC-connected storage.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-15
QUESTION 166
You are a network technician at Certkiller.com. The database for Certkiller.com requires continuous uptime (24×7) and processes many write-intensive applications from many different sources. The current Certkiller.com LAN network operates at approximately 50% utilization, with peaks that exceed 70%.
Which storage networking model would you include your network upgrade design?
A. Metro Optical
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. Universal IP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 167
Which IP storage network solution is best suited for high-volume, write-intensive, transaction-driven applications?
A. Storage area networking
B. Network-attached storage
C. Local storage
D. Metro optical storage
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
SAN provides block-oriented access to native disk storage. It is based on a shared or switched
infrastructure, often Fibre Channel. You can extend SAN to an ip infrastructure.
New protocols and products are emerging that allow the integration of SANs with the IP network.
Historically, SANs have been well suited to high-volume, write-intensive transaction-driven applications.

Reference: Arch student guide p.13-7.

QUESTION 168
In which scenario would a SAN storage solution be a better choice than an iSCSI-based NAS solution?
A. Traditional file-sharing applications.
B. Fast growing data storage needs.
C. Applications that cannot tolerate block level, storage access latency.
D. Highly reads-intensive applications.
E. Web serving applications with many active pages.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 169
What are disadvantages to storage directly attached to the application servers? (Choose three)
A. Reliability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Manageability
E. Available bandwidth
F. Access speed

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
B: System administrators are faced with the challenging task to managing storage and making it scalable to accommodate future needs. With storage directly attached to the server, scalability is difficult. The storage expansion capability is limited to the capacity of the server (for example, as measured by the number of I/O controllers and devices per controller configured is the server). The nature of the small computer system (SCSI) bus commonly used to connect commodity disks to a commodity server makes it difficult to allocate more disk storage without interrupting and rebooting the server, and thus affecting applications.
C: No redundancy is provided
Incorrect answers:
A: Reliability would be good. **CONTRADICTING ANSWER!!**
E: Bandwidth would be excellent.
F: Access speed would be excellent.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-6.
QUESTION 170
Which protocol enables the location of a fully synchronized hot backup Fiber Channel storage solution at a remote site over existing optical WAN links?
A. iSCSI
B. SCSI-FCP
C. FCIP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
You can use FCIP to connect two geographically dispersed Fibre Channel storage arrays for the purpose of synchronous data storage. If the local storage array becomes unavailable, an application could utilize the FCIP link to access the data on the “hot backup” storage system at the remote site. It is also possible to implement remote tape backups to further protect customers’ valuable information in the event of disaster at the primary site.
Reference: Arch student guide p.13-16
QUESTION 171
Why is G.729a commonly used instead of G.729?
A. It receives a higher MOS score.
B. It uses less complex algorithms.
C. It uses more complex algorithms.
D. It samples speech pattern more often.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 172
What are two benefits of a high availability network? (Choose two)
A. Improves user satisfaction.
B. Minimized lost opportunity costs.
C. Increases network manageability.
D. Reduces hardware and software costs.
E. Reduces information technology (IT) costs.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 173
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11b?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 1.44 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 11 Mbps data.
E. 1.44 GHz frequency and 2.4 Mbps data.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 174
You would choose IS-IS for a routing protocol to meet the following two requirements. (Choose two)
A. Expansion of the backbone area is a concern.
B. Dial-up connections are required.
C. The network has NBMA connections.
D. The network is very large.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 175
Which three LAN routing protocols would be appropriate for a small retail organization with a multi-vendor LAN infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. OSPF
E. EIRGP
F. BGP

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 176
When designing a converged network, which measures can be taken at the building access layer to help eliminate latency and ensure end-to-end quality of service can be maintained? (Choose three)
A. Rate limit traffic.
B. Configure spanning-tree for fast link convergence.
C. Isolate voice traffic on separate VLANs.
D. Use low latency queuing at the source.
E. Classify and mark traffic close to the source.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 177
With which of the following does the Cisco Product Advisor help customers? (Choose three)
A. Design options
B. Hardware devices
C. Software options
D. Hardware options
E. Protocol components
Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation

QUESTION 178
Which statement about fully redundant topologies is true?
A. Public bandwidth can be utilized on an as-needed basis.
B. Key components can be replaced within the device without turning power off.
C. Devices can be replaced in the network without interrupting the network operation.
D. Each device provides redundant backup within the device for each of its key components.
E. A backup exists for every link and for every device between the client and the server.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 179
What is the frequency and maximum data rate of 802.11a?
A. 5 GHz frequency and 54 Mbps data.
B. 5 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
C. 2.4 GHz frequency and 10 Mbps data.
D. 2.4 GHz frequency and 64 Mbps data.
E. 12 GHz frequency and 12 Mbps data.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which two QoS functions are used to prioritize voice over data? (Choose two)
A. Voice activity detection
B. Queue servicing
C. Classification
D. Fragmentation

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 181
Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 182
Which of the following modules of the Enterprise Campus is NOT considered important to the scalability of the campus network?
A. Building distribution
B. Building access
C. Campus backbone
D. Network management
E. Server farm

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which three things can be restricted by the Class of Service in a traditional PBX? (Choose three)
A. Dial plans
B. Dialed numbers
C. Voice mail prompts
D. Phone features
E. Ring tones

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 184
What does ATM do that Frame Relay does not?
A. Packet looping
B. Priority queuing
C. Packet forwarding
D. Circuit emulation

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 185
What happens when packets traversing the network exceed the MTU of an IPSec/VPN interface?
A. They trigger a link failure.
B. They are all discarded and re-transmitted.
C. They are unable to be sent.
D. They come fragmented.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 186
Which type of disaster recovery application protects from user error or data corruption, as well as hardware failure?
A. Disk mirroring
B. Replication
C. Backup and off-site storage
D. Disk duplexing
E. RAID 5 stripe sets

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 187
What are two characteristics of shaping, but not policing? (Choose two)
A. It forces TCP resends.
B. It is typically performed on enterprise egress.
C. It is rate limiting with no buffering mechanism.
D. It can adapt to Frame Relay BECN and FECN.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 188
Certkiller.com is a global insurance company with headquarters in Mexico City. The campus there is made of a number of buildings located in the same vicinity. In 2003, a new building, Building Certkiller 12A was added. The additional building houses approximately 1000 employees. Rather than deploy a private branch exchange (PBX) in the new building, Certkiller.com has decided to implement an IP telephony solution. External calls will be carried across a MAN link to another building, where a gateway connects into the worldwide PBX network of Certkiller.com. Voice mail and unified messaging components are required and all IP phones and workstations should be on separate VLANs and IP subnets.
Which IP technology deployment best suits their need?
A. Single-site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Multisite with distributed call processing
D. Clustering over the WAN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 189
In the Enterprise Composite Network model, which Enterprise Campus Infrastructure Module submodule provides aggregation of wiring closets, and performing routing, quality of service, and access control?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Backbone
D. Edge Distribution

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 190
Certkiller.com is a small company with 25 agents stationed around Spain. It is necessary for these agents to transmit customer data securely from their homes and from their customer sites.
Which topology would provide a low-cost, secure solution?
A. Individual Remote Access IPSec-based VPN
B. Leased Line T1 Connection
C. Dial-up ISDN Access
D. Site-to-Site IPSec-based VPN

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 191
In which two instances would static routing be preferred over the use of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. In small networks that are planning to grow
B. In networks using on demand routing that are not expected to grow significantly
C. In networks where a total knowledge of the network is not known
D. In a network that has a few very large sites and a single connection to the Internet
E. When routing to and from stub networks

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 192
Which two types of attacks are addressed at the Building Access sub-module of the Enterprise Campus infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Viruses
B. Packet sniffers
C. IP spoofing
D. Password attacks
E. Unauthorized access

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 193
Which three components are part of the Intelligent Network Services provided by the Cisco AVVID framework? (Choose three.)
A. QoS
B. Work force optimization
C. Security
D. E-business infrastructure
E. IP telephony
F. IP multicasting

Correct Answer: ACF Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 194
What two choices can you make when redundancy is required from a branch office to a regional office? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple Frame Relay PVCs
B. Single links – one to the regional office and one to another branch office
C. Dual Wan links to the regional office
D. Dual Wan links to another branch office

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 191
Which MST configuration statement is correct?
A. MST configurations can be propagated to other switches using VTP.
B. After MST is configured on a switch, PVST+ operations will also be enabled by default.
C. MST configurations must be manually configured on each switch within the MST region.
D. MST configurations only need to be manually configured on the Root Bridge.
E. MST configurations are entered using the VLAN Database mode on Cisco Catalyst switches.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 192
What is the maximum number of HSRP standby groups that can be configured on a Cisco router?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
E. 256

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 193
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1. Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could rectify the problem?

A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.
B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 194
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when one more user is connected to interface FastEthernet 5/1?

A. All secure addresses will age out and be removed from the secure address list. This will cause the security violation counter to increment.
B. The first address learned on the port will be removed from the secure address list and be replaced with the new address.
C. The interface will be placed into the error-disabled state immediately, and an SNMP trap notification will be sent.
D. The packets with the new source addresses will be dropped until a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses are removed from the secure address list.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 195
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is trying to connect to the console port of Sw2. What authentication process will the switch go through?

A. Authentication will fail because SmartPort has not been enabled.
B. Authentication will fail because an IP address has not been specified for the SmartPort database.
C. The switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
D. The switch will attempt to authenticate using the enable secret password. If this fails, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the password goaway.
E. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the local database.
F. The switch will contact the SmartPort database. If the SmartPort database is unreachable, the switch will contact the TACACS+ server. If the TACACS+ server is unreachable, the switch will use the enable secret password.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 196
Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 197
Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)
A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.
B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN.
E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 198
Which three items are configured in MST configuration submode? (Choose three.)
A. region name
B. configuration revision number
C. VLAN instance map
D. IST STP BPDU hello timer
E. CST instance map
F. PVST+ instance map

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit and the show ip mroute output on router R2. The network administrator wants to check the multicast traffic coming on R2. Which statement is true about the output?

A. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is sourced from two different sources.
B. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is reaching R2.
C. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 gets dropped because of RPF failure.
D. The multicast traffic for the group 224.1.1.1 is forwarded out the Ethernet3/1 and Ethernet3/2 interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 200
Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)
A. STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.
B. A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C. To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay, max age) must be the same.
D. If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E. On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F. The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 201
What is the purpose of a rendezvous point (RP)?
A. acts as a meeting place for sources and receivers of multicast traffic
B. used in PIM dense mode to create a database of all multicast sources
C. used in PIM dense and sparse mode to create a database of all multicast sources
D. acts as the designated router for a broadcast segment when multicast routing is enabled

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 202
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.
B. The “valid cached adjacency” entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 203
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration of switch SW_A and SW_B. STP is configured on all switches in the network. SW_B receives this error message on the console port: 00:06:34: %CDP-4-DUPLEX_MISMATCH: duplex mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/5 (not half duplex), with SW_A FastEthernet0/4 (half duplex) ,with TBA05071417(Cat6K-B) 0/4 (half duplex).What would be the possible outcome of the problem?

e
A. The root port on switch SW_A will automatically transition to full-duplex mode.
B. The root port on switch SW_B will fallback to full-duplex mode.
C. The interfaces between switches SW_A and SW_B will transition to a blocking state.
D. Interface Fa 0/6 on switch SW_B will transition to a forwarding state and create a bridging loop.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 204
Switch 1:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch 2:interface port-channel 1switchportswitchport access vlan 10interface fastethernet 0/1channel-group 1 mode passiveinterface fastethernet 0/2channel-group 1 mode passiveGiven the switch configurations, which of the following statements is correct?

A. PAgP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
B. LACP is correctly configured and the EtherChannel will form.
C. One switch must be in LACP Active mode for the EtherChannel to form.
D. Only one switch must be in the On mode and the other in the LACP Passive mode for Etherchannel to form.
E. Each physical port in the EtherChannel must have the command switchport access vlan 10 for the EtherChannel to form.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 205
What command will specify IEEE 802.1Q as the encapsulation method for a trunked port on a Cisco IOS switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot1q
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 206
How is the designated querier elected in IGMPv2?
A. The first router to appear on a subnet is designated.
B. The host that responds first to the election query is designated.
C. The router with the lowest IP address on a subnet is designated.
D. The host with the lowest MAC address on a segment is designated.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 207
Given the following configuration on a switch interface, what happens when a host with the MAC address of 0003.0003.0003 is directly connected to the switch port? switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address 0002.0002.0002 switchport port-security violation shutdown
A. The port will shut down.
B. The host will be allowed to connect.
C. The host will be refused access.
D. The host can only connect through a hub/switch where 0002.0002.0002 is already connected.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 208
Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. The DLSwitch is a Catalyst 3550 and the ALSwitch is a Catalyst 2950. Which two configurations sequence would be used to establish an EtherChannel group? (Choose two.)

A. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
B. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpALSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
C. ALSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2ALSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpALSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable
D. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
E. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol pagpDLSwitch (config-if)# channel-group 1 mode auto
F. DLSwitch(config)# interface range fa 0/1 – 2DLSwitch(config-if)# channel-protocol lacpDLSwitch(config-if)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 210
Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)
A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of multiple standby groups.
C. GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D. Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available gateways.
E. HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 211
What happens when an EtherChannel interface is configured with a range of allowed VLANs that is contrary to the range configured on the other interfaces in the EtherChannel?
A. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are set to auto mode.
B. The ports will form an EtherChannel if they are all set to the same trunk type.
C. The ports will form an EtherChannel if the mode is set to on.
D. The ports will not form an EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 212
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?
A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.
B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 213
Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)
A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 214
Refer to the exhibit. LACP has been configured on Switch1 as shown. Which is the correct command set to configure LACP on Switch2?

A. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode auto
B. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode passive
C. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode desirable
D. Switch2# configure terminalSwitch2(config)# interface range gigabitethernet3/1 -2Switch2(config-if)# channel-group 5 mode on

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 215
The network administrator maps VLANs 10 through 20 to MST instance 2. How will this information be propagated to all appropriate switches?
A. Information will be carried in the RSTP BPDUs.
B. It will be propagated in VTP updates.
C. Information is stored in the Forwarding Information Base and the switch will reply upon query.
D. Multiple Spanning Tree must be manually configured on the appropriate switches.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 216
What are two benefits provided in VTP Version 2 but NOT in VTP Version 1? (Choose two.)
A. supports Token Ring VLANs
B. allows VLAN consistency checks
C. saves VLAN configuration memory
D. reduces the amount of configuration necessary
E. allows active redundant links when used with spanning tree

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 217
IEEE 802.1w RSTP defines which port states?
A. Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking, Disabled
B. Learning, Forwarding, Discarding
C. Learning, Active, Block
D. Listening, Forwarding, Active, Blocking

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 218
What will be the effect of applying the VLAN access map configuration on a switch?Router(config)# vlan access-map thor 10Router(config-access-map)# match ip address net_10Router(config-access-map) #action forwardRouter(config-access-map)#exitRouter(config)# vlan filter thor vlan-list 12-16
A. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic matching net_10 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
B. IP traffic matching vlan-list 12-16 is forwarded and all other IP packets are dropped.
C. IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped and all other IP packets are forwarded to VLANs 12 through 16.
D. All VLAN 12 through 16 IP traffic is forwarded, other VLAN IP traffic matching net_10 is dropped.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 219
If there are two equal cost paths to the root switch, what is the next criterion to determine the root port?
A. lowest time to receive BPDUs
B. lowest port ID
C. lowest sender bridge ID
D. highest MAC address on the receiving port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 220
Which two statements are true when the extended system ID feature is enabled? (Choose two.)
A. The BID is made up of the bridge priority value(two bytes) and bridge MAC address (six bytes).
B. The BID is made up of the bridge priority (four bits), the system ID (12 bits), and a bridge MAC address (48 bits).
C. The BID is made up of the system ID (six bytes) and bridge priority value (two bytes).
D. The system ID value is the VLAN ID (VID).
E. The system ID value is a unique MAC address allocated from a pool of MAC addresses assigned to the switch or module.
F. The system ID value is a hex number used to measure the preference of a bridge in the spanning-tree algorithm.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 221
Which is a valid multicast MAC address?
A. 00-00-00-FA-11-67
B. 01-00-E0-56-AE-3C
C. 00-01-E0-A8-B2-C1
D. 01-00-5E-0A-08-CF
E. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 222
Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 223
An administrator recently entered the following commands on a switch:Switch(config)# vtp mode transparentSwitch(config)# vtp version 2What is the result of this configuration?
A. VLAN configuration information is saved in RAM only.
B. VLANs cannot be created, modified or deleted via command line interface.
C. VLAN configuration information received via VTP advertisements are forwarded to other switches within the management domain.
D. VLAN configuration information is synchronized with information within VTP advertisements received from other switches in the management domain.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 224
What will occur when a nonedge switch port that is configured for Rapid Spanning Tree does not receive a BPDU from its neighbor for three consecutive hello time intervals?
A. RSTP information is automatically aged out.
B. The port sends a TCN to the root bridge.
C. The port moves to listening state.
D. The port becomes a normal spanning tree port.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 225
When authentication is required, where must 802.1x be configured in order to connect a PC to a switch?
A. client PC only
B. switch port only
C. switch port and client PC
D. switch port and local router port

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 226
Given the above diagram and assuming that STP is enabled on all switch devices, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DSW11 will be elected the root bridge.
B. DSW12 will be elected the root bridge.
C. ASW13 will be elected the root bridge.
D. P3/1 will be elected the nondesignated port.
E. P2/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.
F. P3/2 will be elected the nondesignated port.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.
B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 228
When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to forward multicast packets for the group?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 229
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information that is generated by the show commands, which two EtherChannel statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/1 and 0/2 have been configured with the channel-group 1 mode desirable command.
B. Interfaces FastEthernet 0/3 and 0/4 have been configured with the no switchport command.
C. Interface Port-Channels 1 and 2 have been assigned IP addresses with the ip address commands.
D. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are providing two 400 Mbps EtherChannels.
E. Port-Channels 1 and 2 are capable of combining up to 8 FastEthernet ports to provide full-duplex bandwidth of up to 16 Gbps between a switch and another switch or host.
F. Switch SW1 has been configured with a Layer 3 EtherChannel.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 230
Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 231
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 232
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the default multicast configuration is being used. Which host or hosts will receive multicast traffic sent from host A?

A. host B
B. host C
C. hosts B, C, and D
D. none

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 233
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 234
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show spanning-tree command, which statement is true?

A. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary global configuration e command.
B. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.
C. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 24577 global configuration command.
D. Switch SW1 has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 2 global configuration command.
E. The root bridge has been configured with the spanning-tree vlan 1 root secondary global configuration command.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 235
In the use of 802.1X access control, which three protocols are allowed through the switch port before authentication takes place? (Choose three.)
A. STP
B. CDP
C. EAP MD5
D. TACACS+
E. EAP-over-LAN
F. protocols not filtered by an ACL

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 236
When STP operation is functioning normally, which statement is true about BPDUs?
A. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every two seconds
B. A bridge sends configuration BPDUs towards the root bridge every 15 seconds.
C. A bridge sends a TCN BPDU to the root bridge once upon initial configuration, followed by configuration BPDUs every two seconds.
D. A bridge sends only TCN BPDUs to the root bridge and no configuration BPDUs.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 237
On a Cisco multilayer switch, which command will configure a port to act as a routed interface?”
A. ip routing
B. switchport mode trunk
C. no switchport
D. switchport trunk native vlan 1

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 238
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two.)
A. an identical VTP mode
B. an identical speed/duplex
C. an identical trunk negotiation parameter
D. an identical trunk encapsulation parameter

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 239
A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?
A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 240
Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?
A. membership query message
B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 241
Which action could have caused the following output to appear on a switch? %SPANTREE-2-ROOTGUARDBLOCK: Port 1/1 tried to become non-designated in VLAN 77. Moved to root-inconsistent state
A. The switch is configured with Loop Guard and stops receiving BPDUs.
B. The switch is configured with PortFast and starts receiving BPDUs.
C. The switch is configured with Root Guard and starts receiving superior BPDUs.
D. The switch is configured with BackboneFast and starts receiving inferior BPDUs.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 242
Which command will need to be added to External_A to ensure that it will take over if serial 0/0 on External_B fails?

A. standby 1 preempt
B. standby 1 track 10.10.10.1
C. standby 1 priority 130
D. standby 1 track fastethernet 0/0

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 243
Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)
A. Join a multicast group.
B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 244
Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when member routers are widely dispersed?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 245
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to traffic within VLAN 14 with a source address of 172.16.10.5?

A. The traffic will be forwarded to the TCAM for further processing.
B. The traffic will be forwarded to the router processor for further processing.
C. The traffic will be dropped.
D. The traffic will be forwarded without further processing.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 246
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the Reverse Path Forwarding check procedure is true?

A. If a multicast packet arrives from 66.66.66.2 on Serial 0/1, then the packet is forwarded.
B. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
C. If a multicast packet arrives from 67.67.67.2 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
D. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Ethernet 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
E. If a multicast packet arrives from 133.33.10.1 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded.
F. If a multicast packet arrives from 192.168.30.0 on Serial 0/0, then the packet is forwarded out all other interfaces.

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 247
Refer to the exhibit. How can the hello timers on SW_B be adjusted from the default?

e A. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_A
B. altering the STP diameter to 3 on switch SW_B
C. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_A
D. altering the STP hello time to 1 second on switch SW_B

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 248
What must be the same to make multiple switches part of the same Multiple Spanning Tree (MST)?
A. VLAN instance mapping and revision number
B. VLAN instance mapping and member list
C. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, and member list
D. VLAN instance mapping, revision number, member list, and timers

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 249
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.
B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 250
Refer to the exhibit. What command was issued on the Layer 3 switch Sw1 between Exhibit #1 and Exhibit #2?

A. ip routing
B. no ip routing
C. router eigrp 1
D. no router eigrp 1
E. mls qos
F. no mls qos

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 251
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured router R1 to provide interVLAN routing between the various subnets on the network. Based on the output provided by the show ip route command, what statement is true?

e
A. Users on all VLANs can communicate with each other and access the Internet.
B. Because of the missing routing protocol, none of the VLANs can route traffic.
C. Users can access all the resources on the network but cannot browse the Internet.
D. Users will have full access to the Internet but will not be able to communicate with each other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 252
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured in an HSRP group to provide redundancy for the users on Network A. The T1 link between R1 and Network B has failed. How will HSRP respond to the failure?

A. R1 will change its priority but will remain active using the Frame Relay backup link to forward the traffic to Network B.
B. R2 will assume the role of active router and will use its T1 link to forward the traffic to Network B.
C. Both routers R1 and R2 will be active, and the traffic will be load balanced between the T1 links.
D. Both routers R1 and R2 will be inactive, and the users on Network A will lose the connectivity to Network
E.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 253
Refer to the exhibit. All of the switches used in the network started with a cleared (default) configuration. After the switches were powered on, the commands in the exhibit were entered on switch CAT1. What was the response of switch CAT1?

A. The command was accepted, and a dot1q trunk was established.
B. The command was rejected, and a dot1q trunk was established by default.
C. The command was accepted, and an access link was autonegotiated.
D. The command was rejected, and a port channel was autoconfigured with a native VLAN of 1.
E. The command was accepted only because the command no shutdown was issued on interface FastEthernet0/13 on switch CAT2.
F. The command was rejected because the trunking encapsulation on the activated interface defaulted to auto mode.

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 254
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the output from the show standby vlan 50 command? (Choose two.)

A. The command standby 1 preempt was added to Catalyst_A.
B. Catalyst_A is load sharing traffic in VLAN 50.
C. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.2 will have their traffic sent to Catalyst_A.
D. Hosts using the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1 will have their traffic sent to 192.168.1.11 even after Catalyst_A becomes available again.

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 255
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security feature enabled?

A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2
C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 256
Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not became active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address.
B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100.
C. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.
D. The Serial1 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 257
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information available, which statement is true?

e
A. Instance 0 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
B. Instance 1 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-1024.
C. Instance 2 of MST is configured for VLANs 1-4094.
D. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 101.
E. Switch P1S1 is the primary root for VLAN 110.
F. Switch P1S1 is the secondary root for VLAN 30.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 258
Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)
A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 259
Which command sequence is required to configure the IP address of the rendezvous point (RP) located at IP address 10.10.10.1?
A. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-address 10.10.10.1
B. Switch(config)# ip pim accept-rp 10.10.10.1 1
C. Switch(config)# ip pim rp-candidate gigabitethernet0/2
D. Switch(config)# ip igmp join-group 10.10.10.1

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. VTP has been enabled on the trunk links between all switches within the TEST domain. An administrator has recently enabled VTP pruning. Port 1 on Switch 1 and port 2 on Switch 4 are assigned to VLAN 2. A broadcast is sent from the host connected to Switch
1. Where will the broadcast propagate?

A. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast and will forward it out all ports
B. Every switch in the network receives the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
C. Switches 1, 2, and 4 will receive the broadcast, but only Switch 4 will forward it out port 2.
D. Only Switch 4 will receive the broadcast and will forward it out port 2.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 261
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.
B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 262
Refer to the exhibit and the show vtp status output. Switch SW_B was previously used in a lab but is now connected to the production network in VTP transparent mode. What will happen when the trunk link between SW_A and SW_B is brought up?

A. SW_A will update its VLAN database with the information from SW_B because SW_A is configured as a VTP server.
B. Because SW_B is configured as a VTP server, SW_A will not change its VLAN database information.
C. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because of a higher revision number on SW_B.
D. SW_B will override the VLAN database on SW_A because SW_B is configured in VTP transparent mode.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 263
Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.)
A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 264
Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 265
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the show ip pim interface count output, which interface or interfaces will receive and forward multicast traffic?

A. interface Vlan10 only
B. interfaces Vlan11 and Vlan12
C. interfaces Vlan10, Vlan11, and Vlan12
D. interfaces Vlan23 and Vlan24
E. all interfaces
F. none of the interfaces

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 266
Refer to the exhibit. Supervisor redundancy has been configured on a Catalyst 4500 switch. The administrator issued the show redundancy states command. Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)

A. Route processor redundancy (RPR) is not currently functional.
B. Route processor redundancy (RPR)is currently up and functional.
C. This route processor is offline.
D. The Mode = Simplex portion of the output indicates that the system is currently not in redundant mode.
E. The redundant supervisor is in standby mode.

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Cisco 642-811 Testing Engine is an engine that can be downloaded and installed on your PC. This Cisco 642-811 engine is not only advanced and equipped with much more features, it is also not internet dependent, once installed. It enables you to see questions and answers in a simulated Cisco 642-811 exam environment. Working with Cisco 642-811 Testing Engine is like passing an actual Cisco 642-811 exam.

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QUESTION 128
Which determines the color of the subtitles used in a slideshow?
A. the Automatic color set
B. the normal group from the menu color set
C. one of three groups in the timeline color set
D. one of the two highlight groups in the menu color set

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 129
Click the Exhibit button.
Which button (shown in the exhibit) should you drag to a slideshow in your Project panel to add it to the playlist?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
How should you apply the Random Pan & Zoom effect to an entire slideshow?
A. select the first slide in the Slideshow Viewer, then turn on Pan & Zoom on the Effects tab of the Properties panel
B. select the first slide in the Slideshow Viewer, then turn on Random Pan & Zoom on the Basic tab of the Properties panel
C. select the Slideshow Viewer panel without selecting an individual slide, then turn on Pan & Zoom on the Effects tab of the Properties panel
D. select the Slideshow Viewer panel without selecting an individual slide, then turn on Random Pan & Zoom on the Basic tab of the Properties panel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 131
You have an individual slide chosen in a slideshow. Where should you change the transition duration of that slide to one that is different than the default transition duration?
A. in the Project panel
B. in the Monitor panel
C. in the Properties panel
D. in the Slideshow Viewer panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 132
You want to allow viewers of a slideshow to control the speed at which they progress through it by allowing them to choose when to go to the next slide or return to a previous slide.
How can you accomplish this?
A. place a chapter marker at the beginning and end of each slide
B. select the first slide in the Slideshow Viewer, then turn on Manual Advance on the Basic tab of the Properties panel
C. set the Next and Previous button layer set for the slideshow to have a link to the following and previous chapters, respectively
D. select the Slideshow Viewer panel without selecting an individual slide, then turn on Manual Advance on the Slideshow Viewer panel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 133
You have an individual slide selected in a slideshow. You want to change the duration of that slide to be different from the default duration. Where should you make this change?
A. in the Project panel
B. in the Monitor panel
C. in the Properties panel
D. in the Slideshow Viewer panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 134
Which statement is true about applying pan-and-zoom to a slideshow?
A. A pan in a slideshow can go vertically or horizontally, but not diagonally.
B. Pan-and-zoom settings are for the entire slideshow and cannot be edited on an individual slide.
C. Slideshows that include pan-and-zoom are transcoded by Encore DVD into an MPEG video file.
D. Slideshows that include pan-and-zoom have a negligible asset size for bit budgeting purposes, unless they contain a large number of images.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 135
What is the maximum number of audio tracks permitted in a timeline?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 136
You have three actors in a video. You want to use a different color subtitle for each actor’s lines. What should you use to accomplish this?
A. three timeline color sets with different fill colors for each group
B. a single timeline color set with different fill colors for each group
C. three menu color sets with different colors for each normal group
D. a single menu color set with different colors for each normal group

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 137
Click the Exhibit button.
You have five video clips and a single audio clip on a timeline (Before). You Shift+Click on Clip 2 and Clip

4, then choose Edit > Ripple Delete. Which figure in the exhibit shows what will happen?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 138
You import several still images into your project. You want to add the images directly to one of your timelines and you want the stills to be 3 seconds in duration. What should you do?
A. choose Edit > Preferences > General and adjust the Default still length to 3 seconds
B. choose Edit > Preferences > Timelines and adjust the Default still length to 3 seconds
C. choose Edit > Preferences > General and adjust the Default still length to 3 seconds, and then re-import the images
D. choose Edit > Preferences > Timelines and adjust the Default still length to 3 seconds, and then re-import the images
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
What is the purpose of the Add Chapter Points at Intervals command?
A. It builds a chapter playlist.
B. It creates a chapter index.
C. It adds chapter buttons to the menu.
D. It places chapter markers on the timeline.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 140
Which three statements about chapter points are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can move the first chapter point.
B. The minimum distance between chapter points is 30 frames.
C. You can set a poster frame by choosing Edit > Set Poster Frame.
D. They can only be placed on GOP headers on MPEG-2 encoded files.
E. You can choose Timeline > Add Chapter Points At Intervals to add chapter points automatically.
F. Adobe Premiere Pro and After Effects can export markers that Encore DVD uses to create chapter points.

Correct Answer: DEF QUESTION 141
You position the Current Time Indicator (CTI) on a video frame in an MPEG-2 clip in the Timeline Viewer. You shorten the clip by trimming its right edge to the CTI, but the edge does not line up with the CTI. What should you do?
A. move the CTI to a Group of Pictures header
B. trim the audio portion of the clip, then trim the video
C. zoom in the Timeline View, press Alt, and drag the edge of the clip
D. choose View > Snap To Guides and drag the edge of the clip to the CTI

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 142
Click the Exhibit button.
You have created a gap in your timeline. You want to fill the gap with a still image that has been imported
into your project.
What should you do?
A. drag the image from the Project panel and drop the image in the gap
B. Alt-drag the image from the Project panel and drop the image in the gap
C. Ctrl-drag the image from the Project panel and drop the image in the gap
D. select the image in the Project panel; choose Edit > Copy; open Timeline Viewer; choose Edit > Paste

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 143
The subtitle text you typed in the monitor has strokes. How do you turn off that feature?
A. open the Character panel and set Stroke to zero
B. open the Properties panel and set Stroke to none
C. open the Timeline Color Set and set Stroke Color to white
D. open the Properties panel and change the Highlight to Group 2

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 144
Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool in the Flowchart panel is used to drag from one object in the Flowchart panel to another, thereby creating a link?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 145
Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool shown in the exhibit is used to change the position of an object on the Flowchart panel?
A. A
B. B
C. C

D. D
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button.
What happens when you drag the slideshow from the orphan section of the flowchart to Chapter 1 below the main menu?

A. The slideshow replaces Timeline #1 and retains the link to Timeline #2.
B. The slideshow replaces Timeline #1 and does NOT retain the link to Timeline #2.
C. The slideshow replaces the Main Menu and retains the links to Timeline #1 and Timeline #2.
D. The slideshow replaces the Main Menu and does NOT retain the links to Timeline #1 and Timeline #2.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 147
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the circled badge in the upper left-hand corner of the Flowchart panel thumbnail

indicate?

A. The thumbnail is of a menu.
B. The thumbnail is of a playlist.
C. The thumbnail is of a timeline.
D. The thumbnail is of a slideshow.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 148
Click the Exhibit button.
A portion of a flowchart is shown in the exhibit. What do the lines and symbols indicate regarding Chapter 1?

A. There is a transition between Chapter 1 and Timeline #1 and an override linking Timeline #1 to Timeline #2.
B. There is a transition between Chapter 1 and Timeline #1 and an end action linking Timeline #1 to Timeline #2.
C. There is a broken link between Chapter 1 and Timeline #1 and an override linking Timeline #1 to Timeline #2.
D. There is a broken link between Chapter 1 and Timeline #1 and an end action linking Timeline #1 to Timeline #2.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
Click the Exhibit button.
Which thumbnail shown in the exhibit has been affected by right-clicking it and choosing Auto Layout from the context menu?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
Which two statements about color menu sets are true? (Choose two.)
A. Each highlight group has four colors.
B. A project can contain only one color set.
C. Each color set has three highlight groups.
D. Each menu can reference only one color set.
E. Color sets specify the colors used in subpictures.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 151
Which two statements are true about automatic color sets for menus? (Choose two.)
A. Automatic color sets can NOT be saved.
B. There are three highlight colors for buttons.
C. Each menu can have a separate menu color set.
D. There is only one automatic color menu set per project.
E. The same colors are used for both selected and activated buttons.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 152
To which two types of layers can you apply Styles? (Choose two.)
A. Text B. Shape
C. Subpicture
D. Background
E. Motion Background

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 153
Which panel allows you to create new folders?
A. Disk panel
B. Menus panel
C. Project panel
D. Timelines panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 154
You want to create a DVD that is only playable in the United States, Canada, and the US Territories. Which settings in the Project Settings dialog box should you choose?
A. All Regions
B. Custom, Region Code 1
C. Custom, Region Code 2
D. All Regions, Region Code 8

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 155
You are creating a single layer DVD. What is the maximum amount of content you should have if you want Encore DVD to set the data rate automatically?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
Click the Exhibit button.
Which button in the Library panel (shown in the exhibit) allows you to replace the background layer of the currently active menu?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 108
Which is a system requirement for the use of a GPU transition?
A. a CPU that is at least 3.0 gigahertz
B. at least 512 MB of system memory
C. a graphics card that supports Direct X and hyperthreading
D. a graphics processing unit that supports Pixel Shader 1.3 or higher

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button.
You have a video clip in Video Track 1. You have a white title in Video Track 2. You apply the Track Matte Key effect to the clip in Video Track 1 and set the Matte parameter to a value of Video 2 as shown in the exhibit.
What composited effect does this create?

A. a white title over a video clip
B. a black title over a video clip
C. video showing through the letters of the title
D. video showing everywhere except through the letters of the title

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 110
You want to overlay a timecode display on a video clip. What should you do?
A. apply the Timecode effect to the clip
B. generate timecode text with the Titler
C. choose the appropriate settings in the Playback Settings dialog box
D. drag the timecode display from the Timeline to the Program Monitor

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 111
Where is the default anchor point from which the position of the clip is measured?
A. the center of the clip
B. the upper left corner of the clip
C. the upper right corner of the clip
D. the center of the top edge of the clip

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
Which option in the Project Manager dialog box specifies extra frames in the Trimmed Project to permit minor edits?
A. Make Offline
B. Include Handles
C. Include Preview Files
D. Exclude Unused Clips

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 113
Which option in the Project Manager panel allows you to have extra footage at each end of your trimmed clips?
A. Include Handles
B. Include Preview Files
C. Include Audio Conform Files
D. Rename Media Files to Match Clip Names

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
You want to create a video project that does NOT conform to common DV, HD or HDV settings. You want to use this project as a template for future projects. What should you do?
A. click the Load Preset tab; expand the DV-NTSC folder; select the settings that match your video
B. click the Load Preset tab; expand the Adobe HDV folder; select the settings that match your video
C. click the Custom Settings tab; choose the settings that most closely match the attributes of your clip
D. click the Load Preset tab; select the appropriate preset that most closely matches the attributes of your clips

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 115
You want to create a still picture montage in your video. You also want all of the pictures to fit in the viewable frame. What should you do?
A. re-size the pictures to the desired scale by using Photoshop
B. use project settings that will match the size of most of your stills
C. choose Edit > Preferences > General > Default Scale to Frame Size
D. import the pictures and re-size them on an individual basis by using the Scale parameter in the Effect Controls panel

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 116
You want to ensure that your video playback is displayed in the Program Monitor. What should you do?
A. select the Desktop Video checkbox in the Playback Settings dialog box
B. select Compatible in the Desktop Display Modes area of the Playback Settings dialog box
C. select None from the Export External Device dropdown menu in the in the Playback Settings dialog box
D. select the Disable Video Output When Premiere Pro is in the Background checkbox in the Playback Settings dialog box

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 117
You have created an offline project. You need to bring this project into an online editing system, and you need to re-capture the files with high-quality settings. To accomplish this, you should use the Project Manager and create a Trimmed Project _____.
A. excluding unused clips
B. selecting Make Offline
C. selecting Include Handles
D. selecting Rename Media Files to Match Clip Names

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
You want to play your NTSC video on a CD-ROM. Which export option reduces the data rate significantly without making the motion appear too choppy?
A. 24P
B. 30 fps
C. 15 fps
D. 29.97 fps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
You want to hide the preview thumbnail in the Project panel. What should you do?
A. choose View > Icon from the Project panel menu
B. choose Edit Columns from the Project panel menu
C. choose Thumbnails > Off from the Project panel menu
D. choose View from the Project panel menu and deselect Preview Area

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
How does Adobe Premiere Pro treat 24P footage when you import it?
A. as 24 fps interlaced footage
B. as 23.976 fps interlaced footage
C. as 24 fps progressive scan footage
D. as 23.976 fps progressive scan footage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
What is the relationship between rendering a source clip and a nested sequence it is within?
A. A sequence is always rendered separately from the source clip.
B. Rendering the sequence will also render the source clip it contains.
C. Rendering the source clip will always render the sequence it is within.
D. Rending the source clip will render the sequence it is within as long as there are no effects or filters on the sequence.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
You are editing footage using the Multi-Camera Monitor. Which color is the active camera’s border while it is in Playback Mode?
A. red
B. blue
C. green
D. yellow

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 123
Which statement about a rolling edit is true?
A. It changes a clip’s speed to fit a duration.
B. It trims a clip and shifts subsequent clips in the track by the amount you trim.
C. It shifts a clip in time, while trimming adjacent clips to compensate for the move.
D. It trims an adjacent Out point and In point simultaneously and by the same number of frames.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 124
What should you do to change the order in which your clips are playing in a sequence?
A. use the Ripple Edit tool; move the clip to the new position
B. use the Selection tool; press the Alt key; drag the clip to the new position
C. use the Selection tool; press the Control key; drag the clip to the new position
D. select the clip; drag it to a different layer; move the appropriate clips; position the clip in the new position

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 125
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. Clips will be in sync if they start at the point in time where the CTI is.
B. The starting point of the master clip is used to synchronize the clips.
C. Synchronize the clips by placing the clips at the start of the sequence.
D. The In point of the clips in the sequence are used to synchronize the clips.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 126
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which display format is used to signify 30 fps drop-frame timecode?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
What happens when you use the Slip tool to drag the center clip of three clips to the left?
A. The duration of the center clip changes.
B. The In and Out points of the center clip change.
C. The Out point of the clip to the left is shortened.
D. The In point of the clip to the right is lengthened.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
Which statement is true?
A. All the sequences in a project share the same timebase.
B. Only PAL projects can have different timebases in their sequences.
C. Only NTSC projects can have different timebases in their sequences.
D. Different sequences in the same project can have their own timebase.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 129
You have a timecode value selected in the Timeline panel. Which keyboard sequence takes you directly to the 1450th frame of the clip?
A. :1450
B. +1450
C. ;1450
D. .1450
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
Which function is performed when the Show Video option is selected in the Adobe Title Designer?
A. The video output is toggled on or off to an external monitor.
B. The frame of video where the CTI rests is overlaid on the title.
C. The title is overlaid on the frame of video where the CTI rests.
D. The frame of video where the CTI rests is displayed and saved in the backgroud of the title.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 131
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the image shown in the exhibit, what happens if you click and drag the cursor to the right in the Effects Control tab?

A. Only the Wipe transition shifts to the right.
B. Only the position of the cut between the two clips shifts to the right.
C. The length of the movie increases by the amount dragged to the right.
D. Both the Wipe transition and the cut between the two clips shift to the right.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
You are using the Adobe Title Designer. Which title property should you change to increase the space between lines of text in a title?
A. Aspect
B. Leading
C. Kerning
D. Tracking

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 133
What happens when you use the Slip tool to drag the center clip of three clips to the left?
A. The duration of the center clip changes.
B. The In and Out points of the center clip change.
C. The Out point of the clip to the left is shortened.
D. The In point of the clip to the right is lengthened.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 117
Click the Exhibit button.
You create the composition shown in the exhibit. You want to play the movie inside the foot and use the
beach image as the background.
What should you do?
A. choose Alpha Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
B. choose Luma Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
C. choose Alpha Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer
D. choose Luma Inverted Matte Foot in the TrkMat Column on the Surf Movie layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
When should you use a Silhouette Alpha?
A. when you want to cut a hole through all layers below your silhouette using the alpha channel of that layer
B. when you want to cut a hole through all layers above your silhouette using the alpha channel of that layer
C. when you want to alter the alpha channel for all layers above your silhouette layer by using the luma levels of the image
D. when you want to alter the alpha channel for all layers below your silhouette layer by using the luma levels of the image
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which statement about masks is true?
A. Default temporal interpolation for Mask Shape keyframes is Bezier.
B. You CANNOT change the designation of the first vertex position on a mask.
C. You can copy a Mask Shape keyframe into an effect point property of an effect.
D. Mask Shape keyframes can all be selected at once by double clicking on the Layer Name.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
You mask a video clip in the Composition window with a rectangular mask that is approximately half the height of the video and the same width as the video. You want to feather only the right-hand edge of the mask. What should you do?
A. decrease the Feather Property value in the mask options until you have the desired result
B. extend the width of the mask off the left hand side; unlink the X and Y feather in the mask options; increase feather width
C. scale the mask down vertically, and unlink the X and Y feather in the mask options; then increase feather width
D. increase the feather property value in the mask options; raise the mask expansion property value until you have achieved the desired result

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 121
You create a composition that contains a video footage layer of a specific play in a football game. You want to adjust both playback speed and direction and add audio commentary. The output will be a DVD. You enable time remapping for the video layer and notice that in the places the video has been stretched, the action appears jerky.
What should you do?
A. choose Effect > Time > Timewarp; under the Timewarp pulldown, select Whole Frames; under the Tuning pulldown, set keyframes for Vector Detail
B. choose Layer > Frame Blending > Frame Mix; set the quality setting to Draft quality for the layer; enable the Frame Blend switch in the Timeline panel
C. choose Effect > Time > Timewarp; under the Motion Blur option, turn on Enable Motion Blur; select Manual from the Shutter Control pulldown; set keyframes for Shutter Angle and Shutter Samples
D. choose Layer > Frame Blending > Pixel Motion; set the quality setting to Draft quality in the switches column of the Timeline panel; enable Motion Blur for the layer; enable the Motion Blur and Frame Blend switch in the Timeline panel

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
When should you use the Time Warp effect?
A. when you want a mixture of both Pixel Motion and Frame Mix
B. when you have 32-bpc footage in which you are playing with time
C. when you want to smooth out the motion of only one color channel
D. when you want to decrease render time caused by Frame Mix frame blending
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
When should you use Frame-Mix method of frame blending?
A. when you want to speed up render time at the cost of lower quality Motion Blur
B. when you have interpreted your footage at double its frame rate and want to keep the motion smooth
C. when you are time stretching video footage and want to use motion vectors to smooth out the motion
D. when you are time-stretching video footage, and want to create interim frames during repeated footage frames

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 124
You have taken video of a person examining a 2 X 2 foot piece of cardboard to which you have pasted bright yellow ping pong balls at each of the corners. This person is moving the cardboard as they examine it. You want to track the motion of the cardboard so that you can play a movie in its place. Which Track type should you select from the Tracker Controls panel?
A. Stabilize
B. Transform
C. Parallel Corner Pin
D. Perspective Corner Pin

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 125
You want to create the effect of a magician waving a magic wand through the air so that you can attach an effect to the tip of the wand. You have appropriate footage but did NOT mark the effect point prior to shooting. The black wand has a white tip and you decide to use the footage as is. You track the motion and notice that even though the tip of the wand is visible throughout the shot, the track point drifts from the tip point of the wand. You also notice that the footage is grainy in some areas.
What should you do?
A. reshoot the footage after first attaching a brightly colored ping pong ball to the tip of the wand
B. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box under Channel, select RGB; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward
C. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box under Channel, select Saturation; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward
D. drag the current time indicator to the last well-tracked frame; in the Tracker Controls panel click on Options; in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box, select Process before Match; click Blur; type a value of 2 to 3 pixels; click OK in the Motion Tracker Options dialog box; click Analyze Forward or Analyze Backward

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 117
You are editing a menu in Photoshop. Which type of layer is created when you place an (!) in front of a layer name?
A. a button set
B. a background
C. a highlight layer
D. a replacement layer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 118
In Photoshop, the prefix (%) is used for an Image layer within a button group (set) to designate a layer as _____.
A. a Chapter button
B. a video thumbnail
C. a button subpicture
D. an image within a button

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Which statement is true about building a dual layer DVD in Adobe Encore DVD?
A. The maximum size of a dual layer DVD is approximately 4.7 GB.
B. Dual layer discs from Adobe Encore DVD require using -R DVDs.
C. To replicate dual layer DVDs at a replication facility, you first must write your project to a single digital linear tape.
D. Adobe Encore DVD allows for the manual setting of the point at which the DVD player switches from the first layer to the second.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which Build setting in the Build DVD panel is used for writing to a Digital Linear Tape (DLT)?
A. DVD Disc
B. DVD Folder
C. DVD Image
D. DVD Master

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which DVD format should you use to ensure compatibility with the greatest number of stand-alone set top DVD players?
A. DVD+R
B. DVD-R
C. DVD+RW
D. DVD-RW
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 122
Which copy protection setting restricts the number of copies that can be made of your disc?
A. CSS
B. CBR

C. CGMS
D. Macrovision
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Which Build setting in the Build DVD panel is used to create a file on a hard drive for local replication using a third-party mastering application?
A. DVD Disc
B. DVD Folder
C. DVD Image
D. DVD Master

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 124
Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which Preview Control button will exit and return (close the preview and return to the project)?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 125
Projects written directly to DVD-R will automatically have which region code enabled?
A. Region 0
B. Region 1
C. Region 7
D. Region 8

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 126
Which statement is true about the use of a layer break?
A. It is best to specify a layer break where content is playing.
B. Encore DVD always creates the layer break automatically.
C. A layer break is the point at which the DVD player switches from the first side of the DVD to the second.
D. A layer break can be Automatic or Manual and can be found under the Settings section of the Build DVD panel.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 127
Which statement is true about building a dual sided DVD?
A. To create a dual sided DVD, you must create two separate projects.
B. A dual sided DVD containing one layer per side is referred to as a DVD-5.
C. To create a dual sided DVD, one project must be written to two separate DLTs.
D. The second side of a dual sided DVD does not provide as much storage capacity as the first.

Correct Answer: A

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