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September 10, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 141
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a chain of grocery stores. Each grocery store is protected by a Security Gateway. Certkiller is generating a report for the information-technology audit department. The report must include the name of the Security Policy installed on each remote Security Gateway, the date and time the Security Policy was installed, and general performance statistics (CPU Use, average CPU time, active real memory, etc.). Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use to gather this information?
A. SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartLSM
E. SmartView Monitor

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 142
How can you reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic_reset to reinitialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the SmartCenter Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security-Gateway from SmartDashboard
B. From cpconfig on the SmartCenter Server, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the actrvation key Next, retype the same key in the gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
C. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of SmartCenter Server>-.
D. From the SmartCenter Server’s command line type fw putkey -p <shared key>- <IP Address of security Gateway>-.
E. Re-install the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which NGX feature or command allows Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the Security Policy without changing object configurations?
A. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
B. Policy Package management
C. fwm dbexport/fwm dbimport
D. cpconfig
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 144
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com’s large geographically distributed network. The internet connection at one of her remote sites failed during the weekend, and the Security Gateway logged locally for over 48 hours. Certkiller is concerned that the logs may have consumed most of the free space on the Gateway’s hard disk. Which SmartConsole application should Certkiller use, to view the percent of free hard-disk space on the remote Security Gateway?
A. SmartView Status
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartLSM

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for a public relations company. Certkiller’s manager has asked her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware Required Result #2: Use configuration changes that do not reduce security Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance Proposed Solution: Certkiller recommends the following changes to the Gateway’s configuration:
1.
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

2.
Stop logging Domain Name over UDP (queries)

3.
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP. VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired result s?
A. The solution meets the required results, and two of the desired results
B. The solution does not meet the required results
C. The solution meets all required results, and none of the desired results
D. The solution meets all required and desired results
E. The solution meets the required results, and one of the desired results
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 146
What is a Consolidation Policy?
A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and SmartDefense Policies
B. The specific Policy used by Eventia Reporter to configure log-management practices
C. The state of the Policy once installed on a Security Gateway
D. A Policy created by Eventia Reporter to generate logs
E. The collective name of the logs generated by Eventia Reporter

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 147
To change an existing ClusterXL cluster object from Multicast to Unicast mode, what configuration change must be made?
A. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster object Reinstall the Security Policy
B. Reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) on the cluster-member objects. Reinstall the Security Policy
C. Run cpstop and cpstart, to reenable High Availability on both objects. Select Pivot mode in cpconfig
D. Change the cluster mode to Unicast on the cluster-member object
E. Switch the internal network’s default Security Gateway to the pivot machine’s IP address

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 148
Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A. fw stat
B. fw ver
C. fw cog
D. fw print
E. fw ctl
F. fw printlic
G. fw ctl pstat

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 149
When logging into SmartDashboard for the second time, what information is no longer requested?
A. User Name
B. Password
C. Finger verification
D. SmartCenter Server IP

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 150
You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Server that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the external interface of the firewall and the Internet. What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?
A. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
B. Place a static route on the router from the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
C. Place a static route on the router from the valid IP address to the internal web server.
D. Publish a proxy ARP entry on the router from the valid IP address to the firewall’s external address.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 151
When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX?
A. Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B. User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C. Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D. User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 152
Your current security scenario gives you the option to choose between a stand-alone installation or a
distributed installation.
Which of the following factors would cause you to decide in favour of the stand-alone installation?

A. You are required to use Clientless VPN.
B. You are required to use Windows as operating system.
C. You are required to install HFA’s on the Security Gateway via SmartUpdate.
D. You are required to use few hardware resources as possible.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 153
You are a Security Administrator configuring Static NAT on an internal host-node object. You clear the box “Translate destination on client side”, accessed from Global Properties > NAT settings > Automatic NAT. Assuming all other Global Properties NAT settings are selected, what else must be configured for automatic Static NAT to work?
A. The NAT IP address must be added to the anti-spoofing group of the internal Gateway interface
B. Two address-translation rules in the Rule Base
C. No extra configuring needed
D. A proxy ARP entry, to ensure packets destined for the public IP address will reach the Security Gateway’s external interface
E. A dynamic route, to ensure packets destined for the public NAT IP address will reach the Gateway’s internal interface

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 154
You just installed a new Web server in the DMZ that must be reachable from the Internet. You create a manual Static NAT rule as follows: Source: Any Destination: web_public_IP Service: Any Translated Source: original Translated Destination: web_private_IP Service: original “web_public_IP” is the node object that represents the public IP address of the new Web server. “web_private_IP” is the node object that represents the new Web site’s private IP address. You enable all settings from the Global Properties > NAT. When you try to browse the Web server from the Internet, you see the error “page cannot be displayed”. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason?
A. There is no Security Policy defined that allows HTTP traffic to the protected Web server.
B. There is no ARP table entry for the public IP address of the protected Web server.
C. There is no route defined on the Security Gateway for the public IP address to the private IP address of the Web server.
D. There is an ARP entry on the Gateway but the settings “Merge Manual proxy ARP” and “Automatic APR configuration” are enabled in Global Properties. The Security Gateway ignores manual ARP entries.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 155
Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. may be used for securing internal network communications between the Security Gateway and an OPSEC device.
B. for the SmartView Tracker are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
C. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation.
D. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 156
What settings in the “Track” field of your rules would you use to configure what types of information are
sent to Dshield.org?
Depending on how:

A. the Logs and Masters settings for the SmartCenter Server object, rules with tracking set to Log or None.
B. SmartDefense > DShield Storm Center is configured, rules with tracking set to Alerts or User Defined Alerts.
C. Web Intelligence > Information Disclosure is configured, rules with tracking set to User Defined Alerts or SNMP trap.
D. The Global Properties is configured, in the Log and Alerts section, rules with tracking set to Account or SNMP trap.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 157
VPN-1 NGX uses ____________ to retrieve the Interface Name, IP Address, and Network Mask when an administrator clicks the GET button in the Interfaces tab of an Externally Managed VPN Gateway object.
A. URI
B. Ioctl
C. SNMP
D. Control Connection

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 158
Certkiller .com has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server working as
SmartConsole and a second server running SPLAT working as both SmartCenter server and the Security
Gateway.
This is an example of:

A. Hybrid Installation
B. StandAlone Installation
C. Unsupported Configuration
D. Distribution Installation
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 171
During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time verification?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 69 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 172
What’s the difference between the SmartView Tracker Tool section in R71 and NGX R65?
A. Tools section in R71 is exactly the same as the tools section in R65
B. Using R71. You can choose a program to view captured packets.
C. Enable Warning Dialogs option is not available in R71
D. R71 adds a new option to send ICMP packets to the source/destination address of the log event

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 173
Your organization has many Edge Gateways at various branch offices allowing users to access company resources. For security reasons, your organization’s Security Policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the Edge Gateways first be inspected by your headquarters’ R71 Security Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
ActualTests.com
A. To Internet and other targets only
B. To center or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
C. To center and other satellites, through center
D. To center only

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 174
Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have a unique Policy Package. These rules may only be installed on this machine and not accidentally on the Internet firewall. How can this be configured?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 70 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a firewall are defined by the selection in the row Install On of the Rule Base.
B. When selecting the correct firewall in each line of the row Install On of the Rule Base, only this firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install.
C. In the SmartDashboard main menu go to Policy > Policy Installation > Targets and select the correct firewall to be put into the list via Specific Targets
D. A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point firewall object It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 175
Examine the following Security Policy. What, if any, changes could be made to accommodate Rule 4?

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A. Nothing at all
B. Modify the Source 01 Destination columns in Rule 4
C. Remove the service HTTPS from the Service column in Rule A
D. Modify the VPN column in Rule 2 to limit access to specific traffic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 176
After implementing Static Address Translation to allow Internet traffic to an internal Web Server on your DMZ, you notice that any NATed connections to that machine are being dropped by anti- spoofing protections. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 71 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked. But the topology on the external interface is set to External.Change topology to Others +.
B. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked. But the topology on the external interface is set to Others +. Change topology to External
C. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is checked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Uncheck the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side
D. The Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side is unchecked But the topology on the DMZ interface is set to Internal -Network defined by IP and Mask Check the Global Properties setting Translate destination on client side.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 177
What information is provided from the options in this screenshot?

ActualTests.com (i)Whether a SIC certificate was generated for the Gateway (ii)Whether the operating system is SecurePlatform or SecurePlatform Pro (iii)Whether this is a standalone or distributed installation
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. (ii) and (iii)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 178
Which type of R71 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A. FTP Security Server
B. SMTP Security Server
C. HTTP Security Server
D. HTTPS Security Server

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 179
Which of the following is true regarding configuration of clustering nodes?
A. Cluster nodes do not have to run exactly the same version of CheckPoint package
B. Each node must have exactly the same set of packages as all the other nodes
C. Each cluster node must run exactly the same version of R71
D. You must enable state synchronization
E. You must install R71 as an enforcement module (only) on each node

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 180
Using the Backup and Restore operation on R71, it is possible to: A. Link the all cluster members for failover
B. Upgrade the SmartDashboard
C. Maintain a backup of the SmartCenter Management Server to be used in case of failover
D. Replace the original SmartCenter Management Server with another clone SmartCenter Management Server, while the original is being serviced
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter Management Server

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 181
What directory in R71 contains all of the Rule Bases, objects, and the user database files?

A. $FWDIR/bin directory
B. Winnt/Config directory
C. $FWDIR/etc directory
D. $FWDIR/conf directory
E. $FWDIR/bin/etc directory

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 182
Platforms IP290, IP390 and IP560 are flash-based, diskless platforms. And what do you have to do prior to upgrading their images to R71?
A. Backup old images ActualTests.com
B. Do nothing
C. Delete old images
D. Backup their images
E. Restore old images

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 183
You have not performed software upgrade to NGX R71. You have upgraded your license and every time you try to run commands such as cplic print; cpstop, you receive all sort of errors. In
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 74 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam order to resolve this you will have to:
A. Remove the software
B. Do nothing. The error will go away with time
C. Remove the upgraded license
D. Upgrade the software to version NGX
E. Re-upgrade the license to the version before the upgrade
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 184
What two conditions must be met when you are manually adding CheckPoint appliances to an existing cluster?
A. You must configure interfaces with IP addresses in each of the networks the cluster will connect to
B. R71 is not running on the system you are adding
C. The IP address should be the real IP address of a cluster interface
D. R71 is running on the system you are adding
E. The existing nodes must be running R71 and firewall monitoring is enabled on them

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 185
ActualTests.com
When carrying out a backup operation on R71, you will have to backup which of the following files?

A. $FWDIR/conf/objects_5_0.C
B. $FWDIR/conf/rule.fws
C. $FWDIR/database/fwauth.NDB*
D. $FWDIR/conf/rulebases_5_0.fws
E. $FWDIR/database/control.map

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 186
Which tool will you use prior to installation to reduce the risk of incompatibility with the deployment to R71?
A. Compatibility Tool
B. cpconfig
C. Post-Upgrade Verification Tool
D. Pre-Upgrade Verification Tool
E. cpinfo

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 187
In the RuleBase, which element determines what Firewall should do with a packet?
A. Destination
B. Source
C. Action
D. No
E. Service

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 188
To distribute or upgrade a package, you must first add it to the Package Repository. You can add packages to the Package Repository from which of the following three locations?
A. User Center
B. Certificate Key
C. Check Point CD
D. Download Center
E. SmartDashboard
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 189
How will you install a rule base? Choose the best answer.
A. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose install from File menu
B. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from Policy menu
C. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose Install from View menu
D. After defining your rules in SmartDashboard, choose Install from View menu
E. Before defining your rules in SmartDashboard , choose Install from Policy menu

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 190
How would you disable a rule?

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A. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Topology menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
B. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in SmartView Tracker
C. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
D. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from File menu in CheckPoint SmartDashboard
E. By selecting the rule, then select “Disable Rule” option from Rules menu in SmartView Status

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 191
Which of the options below best describes the difference between the Drop action and Reject action? ( assume TCP is specified in the service column of your rulebase)
A. Drop action is the same as Reject action
B. With Drop action, the sender is not notified but with Reject action, the user is notified
C. Reject action is the same as Drop action
D. With Drop action, the sender is authenticated but with Reject action, the user is not authenticated
E. With Drop action, the sender is notified but with Reject action, the user is not Notified

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 192
Your company has headquarters in two countries: Toronto (Canada) and Washington (USA). Each headquarter has a number of branch offices. The branch offices only need to communicate with the headquarter in their country, not with each other i.e. no branch office should communicate with another branch office.
ActualTests.com

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 78 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. You need to define two stars and a mesh
B. You need to define a star and two meshes
C. You need to define two stars and two mesh
D. You need to define three stars and two meshes
E. You need to define a star and a mesh

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 193
The negotiation prior to the establishment of a VPN tunnel might result in the production of large packets. Some NAT devices may not fragment large packets correctly making the connection impossible. Which of the following is true as to the resolving this issue?
A. IKE over TCP can be used to solve the problem, though this problem is resolved during IKE phase 2
B. If using NAT-T, you can use Aggressive Mode
C. UDP Encapsulation method uses port number 2746 to resolve this problem
D. If using NAT-T, port 4500 must be enabled
E. IKE over TCP can be used to solve the problem, though this problem is resolved during IKE phase I

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 194
ActualTests.com
How can you delete an automatic NAT rule? See the diagram if you choose wrong answer.

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 79
Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. By highlighting the rule, click on Rules menu and select delete
B. By highlighting the rule and hit Delete button on your keyboard
C. By highlighting the rule, right-click and select Delete option from the emerging menu
D. By highlighting the rule, click on Edit menu and select delete
E. By modifying the object’s configuration

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 195
The SmartUpdate command line “cprinstall get” will:
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A. Install Check Point products on remote Check Point gateways
B. Verify if a specific product can be installed on the remote Check Point gateway
C. Obtain details of the products and the Operating System installed on the specified Check Point gateway, and to update the database
D. Verify that the Operating System and currently installed products are appropriate for the package
E. Delete Check Point products on remote Check Point gateways

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 196
ActualTests.com
You ran a certain SmartUpdate command line in order to find out the location of the product repository, and the result was “Current repository root is set to : /var/suroot/”. What is the command likely to be?
A. cppkg delete
B. cppkg getroot
C. cppkg setroot
D. cppkg add
E. cppkg print

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 197
You use the cplic db_rm command to remove a license from the license repository on the Security Management server and receive an error message stating that only detached licenses can be removed. How will you go about this in order to get license removed?
A. Go to License Tree in the SmartView Monitor, highlight the license to be removed and then detach it, then re- run cplic db_rm command
B. Run cplic db_rm twice to solve the problem
C. Manually detach the license by using the control panel and the re-run the cplic db_rm command
D. Go to License Tree in the SmartDashboard, highlight the license to be removed and then detach it, then re- run cplic db_rm command
E. Firstly, use cplic del command to detach the license then re-run the cplic db_rm Command

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 198
What is the difference between the commands cplic db_print and cplic print?
A. cplic print will print licenses on local machine and cplic db_print will display details of licenses in repository on the Security Management server
B. Both commands do the same job
C. cplic db_print will print licenses on local machine and cplic print will display details of licenses in ActualTests.com repository on the Security Gateway
D. cplic print will print licenses on local machine and cplic db_print will print details of licenses in repository on any components
E. cplic db_print will display licenses on local machine and cplic print will display details of licenses in repository on the SmartConsole
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 199
The SmartUpdate command line ” cprinstall transfer” will:
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 97 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. Transfers a package from the repository to a Check Point Security Gateway without installing the package
B. Verify that the Operating System and currently installed products are appropriate for the package
C. Transfers a package from the repository to a Check Point Security Gateway and install the package
D. Obtain details of the products and the Operating System installed on the specified Check Point gateway, and to update the database
E. Verify if a specific product can be installed on the remote Check Point gateway
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 200
What command prints the details of the Check Point licenses?
A. Pkgadd -d
B. Setup
C. Print
D. fw print
E. cplic print

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 201
ActualTests.com What will the command “d:\winnt\fw1\ng\bin] cppkg add C:\CPsuite-R71” achieve? Where d:\winnt\fw1\ng\bin is package-full-path?
A. It will purge a product package to the product repository
B. It will kill a product package to the product repository
C. It will add a product package to the product repository
D. It will print a product package to the product repository
E. It will delete a product package to the product repository

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 202
Anti-Spam status is monitored using which of the following tool?
A. Cpconfig
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Eventia Reporter
D. SmartView Monitor
E. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 203
User Monitor details window is shown in the diagram 1 of the SmartView Monitor. Which of the following information you would not get in the window?

ActualTests.com
A. Internal IP
B. User DN
C. VPN Tunnel
D. Security Gateway
E. Connect Time

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 204
The rule below shows the Encrypt rule in a Traditional Mode Rule Base. What is likely to be Simplified Mode equivalent if the if the connections originates at X and its destination is Y, within any Site-to-Site Community (i.e. All_GW _to_GW).

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“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 100 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. Rule C
B. Rule E
C. Rule A
D. Rule B
E. Rule D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 205
SmartDirectory (LDAP) new features include which of the following? Select the all correct answers.
A. The use of authentication algorithm
B. Support of Multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) Vendors using Profiles
C. Support of multiple SmartDirectory (LDAP) servers
D. High Availability
E. The use of encrypted or non-encrypted SmartDirectory (LDAP) Connections
Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 206
You are configuring IPS, Denial of Service – Teardrop section. Which of the following is true of Teardrop?

A. A denial of service vulnerability has been reported in the Linux Kernel. The vulnerability is due to an error in the Linux Kernel IPv6 over IPv4 tunneling driverthat fails to properly handle crafted network packets. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability ActualTests.com
B. Some implementations of TCP/IP contain fragmentation re-assembly code that does not properly handle overlapping IP fragments. Sending two IP fragments, the latter entirely contained inside the former, causes the server to allocate too much memory and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
C. JPEG is a very popular image file format. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability Specially crafted JPEG files may be used to create a DoS condition and in some cases, arbitrary code execution
D. Some implementations of TCP/IP are vulnerable to packets that are crafted in a particular way (a SYN packet in which the source address and port are the same as the destination, i.e., spoofed). Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability
E. The attacker sends a fragmented PING request that exceeds the maximum IP packet size (64KB). Some operating systems are unable to handle such requests and crash. Teardrop is a widely available attack tool that exploits this vulnerability

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 207
Which of the following command will you use to export users from the NGX user database?
A. fwm dbexports
B. fw export
C. fwm export
D. fw dbexport
E. fwm dbexport

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 208
The diagrams show your network and the encrypt rule. If the source and destination are inside the VPN
Domain of the same gateway i.e. Source X is in Net_A and Destination Y is in Net_B. The connection
originates at X and reaches the gateway, which forwards the response back to Y.
Which of the following is true?

ActualTests.com
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 103 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam

A. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will be authenticated
B. The gateway 1 will need authentication
C. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will not be encrypted ActualTests.com
D. The gateway 1 will drops the connection from Net_A to Net_B
E. The connection from Net_A to Net_B will be encrypted

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 209
The main drawback to tunneling-mode encryption is:
A. The security of the packet size
B. The decrease in the packet size
C. The increase in the packet size D. The de-cryption of the packet size
E. The quickness of the packet size

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 210
259 or connect via HTTP at If SecureClient cannot download a new policy from any Policy Server, it will try again after a fixed interval. If the fixed interval is set to default, then the default time is:
A. 8 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes
E. 10 minutes ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 211
Which of the following Security servers can perform authentication tasks but will not be able perform content security tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 212
Which of the following commands would you use to clear an IP- to- physical address translation table when using SecurePlatform?
A. hosts
B. arp
C. ipconfig
D. traceroute
E. vconfig ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 213
You are in SecurePlatform and want to configure a new virtual LAN. If the name of NIC card that host is 3C579 and the Vlan identifier is 10, what command would you use to achieve this? Note: If wrong answer
(s)
is/are chosen, see the diagram for correct answer(s) and explanation.

A.
vconfig [interface-name] [vlan_id]

B.
vconfig add 3C579 10

C.
vconfigure add [3C579] [10]

D.
config add 3C579 10

E.
config add [3C579] [10]

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 214
What command will you use to configure network interfaces settings?
A. configure
B. config
C. ipconfig
D. arp
E. ifconfig

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 215
A user was initiating client authentication session by beginning a TELNET session on port 900. What do you think might be wrong?
ActualTests.com
A. Nothing is wrong.
B. The authentication type should be changed to session authentication.
C. The user was TELNET- ing at wrong port. The user should use port 295.
D. The user was TELNET- ing at the wrong port. The user should use port 259.
E. The authentication type should be changed to user authentication.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 216
Study the diagram and answer the question below. What type of client GUI is shown in the
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 114 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam diagram?

A. Rule Base GUI
B. SmartView Tracker
C. Security Status GUI
D. Security SmartDashboard
E. SmartView Status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 217
SmartUpdate is the primary tool used for upgrading Check Point gateways. When upgrading your gateway, what feature will you choose if want to upgrade all packages installed on your gateway?
ActualTests.com
A. Minimal Effort Upgrade
B. Add Package to Repository
C. Upgrading the Gateway
D. Upgrade All Packages
E. Zero Effort

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 218
The allowed Sources in the Location tab of the User Properties window specify that the user to
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 115 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam whom a User Authentication rule is being applied is not allowed access from the source address, while the rule itself allows access. To resolve this conflict, you will have to:

A. Create an administrator account in place of the user account
B. Install your rule base
C. Re-create the user object
D. Select Allowed Destinations field in the Network Object Properties
E. Configure User Authentication Action Properties screen

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 219
What services are supported by client authentication?
A. All services
B. FTP
C. RLOGIN D. HTTP and FTP
E. TELNET, HTTP and FTP
F. HTTPS, HTTP and FTP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 220
In what situation will you consider and deploy policy management conventions?
A. No available answer
B. In some situations
C. In some rear situations
D. In all situations
E. Not in any situation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 221
On the Anti-Spam & Mail tab of the SmartDashboard, you can configure which of the following:

ActualTests.com
A. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Virus checking
B. Enable automatic updates
C. View settings and logs
D. Select gateways that enforce Anti-Spam protection
E. View alerts

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 222
Which of the following is true of Symmetric Encryption?
A. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use different keys for encryption and decryption
B. The material used to build these keys must be exchanged in a secure manner
C. Both communicating parties using Symmetric Encryption use the same key for encryption and decryption
D. The material used to build these keys does not have to be exchanged in a secure manner
E. Information can be securely exchanged only if the key belongs exclusively to the communicating parties

Correct Answer: BCE

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Acpt, Apple

Apple 9L0-207 Exam, Buy Best Apple 9L0-207 Practice Exam With Low Price

September 3, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 126
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an PowerBookG4 (17-inch
1.5 GHz). Which of the following is the most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Replace the Display the Assembly inside the PowerBook.
D. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a hardware-related problem?
A. No video at startup
B. Error beep at startup
C. Distorted video at startup
D. Blinking question mark at startup

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 128
You are troubleshooting a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800) that shuts down intermittently. Rank the following possible causes from FIRST to LAST, in the order you should check for them: <1> Faulty DC-In Board <2> Faulty Logic Board <3> Blowers faulty or blower cables disconnected <4> Faulty battery or battery connector <5> Missing feet on bottom case
A. 1,3,4,5,2
B. 2,1,4,3,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 4,3,5,1,2
E. 5,1,2,4,3

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
A customer’s PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1 GHz) is freezing intermittently. Which of the following steps should you try FIRST to identify the problem?
A. Try quick fixes.
B. Repair the PowerBook.
C. Perform a split-half search.
D. Run appropriate diagnostics
E. Escalate the problem to Apple.
F. Gather information about the problem.

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 130
A PowerBook G4 has no video, but power on with a normal startup chime, and normal startup sounds from the hard drive. Which of the following steps should you try next?
A. Update the PowerBook G4’s firmware.
B. Replace the PowerBook G4 logic board.
C. Replace the PowerBook G4 LCD display.
D. Connect a known-good external display.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 131
Which of the following are true statements about screws inside a PowerBook or iBook?
A. All screws are interchangeable.
B. It is not necessary to replace all screws after a repair.
C. Screws should always be only comfortably tightened.
D. Screws should always be tightened as much as possible.
E. Screws should always be replaced exactly where they came from.
F. Torx and hex (Allen) screws can both be driven by either type of driver.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 132
What tool does the service manual recommend you use to separate plastics and lift components of PowerBook and iBook computers?
A. Nylon probe tool
B. Jeweler screwdriver
C. Flatblade screwdriver
D. Precision needle nose pliers

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 133
When setting up a minimal system using the component isolation technique, you start with only the components necessary to _______.
A. boot the system into Mac OS 9
B. boot the system into Mac OS X
C. boot the system into Open firmware diagnostics
D. hear a boot chime and/or see a flashing question mark on a display
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 134
The basis for the component isolation troubleshooting technique is an understanding of _______
A. power flow
B. software data flow
C. firmware data flow
D. processor instruction flow

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (15-inch FW 800)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 136
Which of the following components routes power between the AC adapter, main battery, and all other main modules inside an iBook (Dual USB)?
A. PMU
B. DC board
C. Logic Board
D. Inverter board

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 137
In the component isolation technique, if you do not get a startup chime and/or a flashing question mark, you check the components of the minimal system by ______.
A. visually inspecting them for damage
B. replacing them with known-good parts in any order
C. adding more known-good parts in a specified order
D. replacing them with known-good parts in a specified order

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 138
How often should you calibrate a PowerBook G4, s Lithium Ion battery?
A. Never
B. Just once when you first use the PowerBook
C. Whenever the PowerBook is forced in to sleep mode
D. When you first use the PowerBook and then every couple of months thereafter

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139
What does recalibrating a Lithium Ion battery inside a PowerBook or iBook actually do?
A. Reconditions the battery to overcome the memory effect.
B. Keeps the onscreen battery time and percent display accurate.
C. Extends the, number of full discharge cycles available in battery.
D. Readjusts the Energy Saver preferences to the battery’ s performance.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 140
If you need to store a PowerBook or iBook battery without using it for a few weeks or more, at what change level does Apple recommend you store the battery?
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 50%

D. 100%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 141
What is the proper way to calibrate a lithium Ion battery used in a PowerBook G4 or iBook?
A. Charge the battery while running the battery calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box, on further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery fully. Run computer on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.
D. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
Which of the following steps are recommended to maximize battery life in a PowerBook G4? (choose all that apply)
A. Reduce brightness settings
B. Turn AirPort card off if installed
C. Disconnect any bus-powered USB peripherals
D. Remove any PC (PCMCIA) card from the pc card expansion slot.
E. Choose ‘Highest performance’ in the Energy Saver System preferences

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 143
Which THREE of the following have an effect on the lifespan of Lithium Ion batteries used in PowerBooks and iBook?
A. Memory effect
B. Humidity extremes
C. Energy Saver settings
D. Temperature extremes
E. Number of discharge cycles

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 144
Which THREE of the following actions can put a PowerBook to sleep?
A. Close the PowerBook lid.
B. Press Command-Option-S.
C. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
D. Select sleep from the Location Manager.
E. Select Sleep in the Energy Saver pane of System Preferences.
F. Press the Power button and select Sleep from the dialog box.

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 145
An iBook G4 is running from the AC adapter, and has a battery installed which is charging. Which TWO of the following are valid visual cues indicating when the battery is fully charged?
A. The iBook backlight will return to full intensity.
B. All lights on the battery will illuminate when the button on the battery is pressed.
C. The sleep light will blink three times, indicating that the iBook is no longer charging.
D. The lighted ring on the power adapter connector will change from amber to green.
E. The sleep light will solidly illuminate, indicating that the iBook can be power on or awakened from sleep.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 146
Identify the correct procedure to reset the Power Manager on a PowerBook G4 (12-inch)?
A. Press the PMU Reset button on the main logic board.
B. Shut the computer down and press the reset button for 10 to 15 seconds.
C. Shut the computer down and press Shift-Control-Option-Power on the keyboard.
D. Remove the AC power adapter and battery, and let the computer sit for a minimum of 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 147
An iBook operating on battery power is in sleep mode and cannot be awakened. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. The iBook is malfunctioning.
B. The iBook has a crashed PMU.
C. The iBook’ s battery is too low to operate the iBook.
D. The iBook, s security features have been activated.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 148
What function does a PMU reset perform?
A. Recalibrates the main battery
B. Starts the battery charging cycle over
C. Returns the hardware to default settings
D. Removes all user preferences related to power

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 149
Where is the PMU reset button for the PowerBook G4 (DVI) located?
A. Behind the I/O panel between the modem and the S-video port
B. On the upper right side of the logic board near the power button
C. The button has been removed. Holding down Command-Shift-Fn-control resets the PMU.
D. The button has been removed. Holding down the power ,button for several seconds resets the PMU.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
Which of the following items are appropriate to use for ESD prevention?
A. Metal work surface
B. CRT discharge tool
C. Grounded work mat
D. Wrist strap and cord
E. Static-shielding bags

Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 151
Which FOUR of the following actions help reduce the risk of damage from ESD?
A. Ground yourself and the equipment you are working on.
B. Always place ESD-sensitive components on metal surfaces.
C. Handle all ESD-sensitive boards by the connectors, not the edges.
D. Use static-shielding storage bags for ESD-sensitive components.
E. Do not touch anyone who is working on ESD-sensitive components.
F. Do not bring plastic, vinyl, or foamed polystyrene near ESD-sensitive components.

Correct Answer: ADEF
QUESTION 152
What humidity level should be maintained to ensure an ESD-safe environment?
A. 25%-40%
B. 50%-75%
C. 70%-90%
D. 90%-100%

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 153
Which of the following is the most common example of electrostatic discharge?
A. You touch an object and feel a brief spark.
B. You see a bright flash on the LCD display of an iBook.
C. You plug a power cord into an outlet and you see a spark.
D. You hear a crackling noise coming from inside the computer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 154
What is the BEST way to properly ground an ESD workbench mat?
A. Attach the mat to the unit being serviced.
B. Connect the mat to a grounded electrical outlet.
C. Connect only the wrist strap and cord to a grounded electrical outlet.
D. Connect the wrist strap and cord only to the mat.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 155
When practicing component isolation, which ONE of the following components would NOT be a part of a minimal system configuration for a PowerBook G4 (12-inch 1.5GHz)?
A. SDRAM
B. Speaker
C. Hard Drive
D. DC-in Board
E. Backup battery
F. Power adapter
Correct Answer: C

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-600 Preparation Materials, Money Back Guarantee 3Com 3M0-600 Exam Questions Sale

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QUESTION 142
Why should you use PortFast on the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller?
A. It enables Jumbo Frames on the port, providing higher data throughput on the link
B. It configures all the ports for 1,000 Mbps full duplex, providing maximum throughput
C. It immediately puts a port into the STP forwarding state, preventing an application from possibly timing out
D. Like Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), PortFast provides faster convergence for wireless devices when a bridge port goes up or down on the networ

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 143
Which three are standards/limitations when you are creating a mobility domain on the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller (WX)? (Choose three.)
A. Each WX must have a system IP address
B. Can define only one seed WX per mobility domain
C. Each VLAN must be locally configured on at least one WX
D. Mobility domains are limited to a single IP subnet or network
E. Each IP address on the WX must belong to the same subnet

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 144
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) IP service with its description.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 145
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com wireless component with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 146
Click the Task button.
Match each Wireless LAN Mobility term with its description.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 147
Click the Task button.
Match each 3Com Wireless Switch (WX) term with its description.
A.

B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 148
Which IP route service can be configured on 3Com Wireless Switch/Controller (WXs)?
A. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
B. Static routes to forward traffic generated by the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet
C. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is on a local VLAN or subnet
D. Static routes to forward traffic passing through the WX to a specific IP router, if the traffic is not on a local VLAN or subnet

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 149
Every mobility domain should have a minimum of two seed switches assigned one main and one backup.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 150
Click the Task button.
Arrange the steps to connect to a Wireless Network in Windows XP.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 151
What is the process for determining the best installation design of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Site survey
B. WLAN analyzer
C. Network discovery
D. Facility walk-through

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 152
Which three are concerns facing companies deploying Voice Wi-Fi (VoWi-Fi) network solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Low level of security
B. Quality of Service (QoS)
C. Multi-building campus environments
D. Roaming from access point (AP) to AP
E. Bandwidth capacity of access points (APs)

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 153
All 3Com OfficeConnect Wireless 54 Mbps 11g PC Cards support 108 Mbps data rate in Turbo mode.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point (AP) model to the set of features it supports.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 155
The 3Com Wireless LAN Access Point 8xx0 family supports a single Virtual Access Point (VAP) per RF radio installed in the unit.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 156
Click the Exhibit button at the bottom of the screen.
Choose the three features supported by the 11g 54Mbps Wireless LAN Outdoor Building-to-Building Bridge. (Choose three.)

A. Weatherproof enclosure
B. Multiple antenna options
C. Built-in 18dBi directional antenna
D. Wireless Distribution System (WDS) Bridging

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 157
What is a key alignment issue when installing an outdoor Wireless LAN (WLAN) panel antenna?
A. Fresnel zone obstructions
B. Identical vertical and/or horizontal polarization
C. Acknowledgement delay timeout (ACK) setting
D. Length of the antenna cable from the wireless bridge

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 158
Which 3Com Web Configuration Management System Advanced Settings software screen allows the network administrator to configure the authentication, encryption and key management parameters for an access point (AP)?
A. WEP settings
B. Wi-Fi settings
C. Radio settings
D. Security settings

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 159
What is the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager?
A. Configure, deploy and manage any wireless product
B. Configure, deploy and manage any 3Com wireless product
C. Configure, deploy and manage 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility Systems, i.e., Wireless LAN Controller WX4400

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 160
Which best describes the purpose of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “upload” command?
A. To deploy a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
B. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then deploy the file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. To perform an error check on a configuration file, then load the file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller to the 3WXM
D. To load a configuration file from a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller into 3WXM, perform an error check on the file and place the unit into the network plan

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 161
Which command in Windows XP would you use to begin the setup process for a wireless NIC?
A. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Load
B. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Install
C. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Configure
D. Right click the Wireless Network Connection icon and choose Properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 162
You have installed the 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna card its software. What is the next step required in the PC Card installation before you can access the Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Using Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM), choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
B. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, create a new profile, choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
C. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, click “Discover” and from the discovered-list choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
D. Using Wireless LAN Profile Manager, select the PC Card icon, click “Enable,” then choose the appropriate access point (AP) and click “Connect”
Correct Answer: B

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Free Dumps, Latest Updated CheckPoint 156-215 Exam Collection With Accurate Answers

September 2, 2016 No Comments

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UESTION 111
When you find a suspicious connection from a problematic host, you want to block everything from that whole network, not just the host. You want to block this for an hour, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base. How do you achieve this?
A. Create a Suspicious Activity rule in SmartView Tracker.
B. Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor.
C. Create an “FW SAM” rule in SmartView Monitor.
D. Select “block intruder” from the Tools menu in the SmartView Tracker.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 112
Your internal network is using 10.1.1.0/24. This network is behind your perimeter NGX VPN-1 Gateway, which connects to your ISP provider. How do you configure the Gateway to allow this network to go out to the Internet?
A. Use automatic Static NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24.
B. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the internal interface of your perimeter Gateway.
C. Use manual Static NAT on the client side for network 10.1.1.0/24
D. Use Hide NAT for network 10.1.1.0/24 behind the external IP address of your perimeter Gateway.
E. Do nothing, as long as 10.1.1.0 network has the correct default Gateway.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
Which of these changes to a Security Policy optimizes Security Gateway performance?
A. Using domain objects in rules when possible
B. Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
C. Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
D. Logging rules as much as possible
E. Removing old or unused Security Policies from Policy Packages

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 114
Nelson is a consultant. He is at a customer’s site reviewing configuration and logs as a part of a security audit. Nelson sees logs accepting POP3 traffic, but he does not see a rule allowing POP3 traffic in the Rule Base. Which of the following is the most likely cause? The POP3:
A. service is a VPN-1 Control Connection.
B. rule is hidden.
C. service is accepted in Global Properties.
D. service cannot be controlled by NGX.
E. rule is disabled.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 115
When you hide a rule in a Rule Base, how can you then disable the rule?
A. Open the Rule Menu, and select Hide and View hidden rules. Select the rule, right-click, and select Disable.
B. Uninstall the Security Policy, and the disable the rule.
C. When a rule is hidden, it is automatically disabled. You do not need to disable the rule again.
D. Run cpstop and cpstart on the SmartCenter Server, then disable the rule.
E. Clear Hide from Rules drop-down menu, then right-click and select “Disable Rule(s)”.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 116
Certkiller is the IT auditor for a bank. One of her responsibilities is reviewing the Security Administrators activity and comparing it to the change log. Which application should Certkiller use to view Security Administrator activity?
A. NGX cannot display Security Administrator activity
B. SmartView Tracker in Real-Time Mode
C. SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
D. SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
E. SmartView Tracker in Activity Mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Andrea has created a new gateway object that she will be managing at a remote location. She attempts to install the Security Policy to the new gateway object, but the object does not appear in the “install on” box. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Andrea has created the object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Edge Embedded Gateway”
B. Andrea created the gateway object using the “New Check Point > Externally Managed VPN Gateway” option from the Network Objects dialog box.
C. Andrea has not configured anti-spoofing on the interfaces on the gateway object.
D. Andrea has not configure Secure Internal Communications (SIC) for the oject.
E. Andrea created the Object using “New Check Point > VPN-1 Pro/Express Security Gateway” option in the network objects, dialog box, but still needs to configure the interfaces for the Security Gateway object.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Certkiller is recently hired as the Security Administrator for Certkiller .com. Jack Bill’s manager has asked
her to investigate ways to improve the performance of the firm’s perimeter Security Gateway. Certkiller
must propose a plan based on the following required and desired results:
Required Result #1: Do not purchase new hardware. Required Result #2: Use configuration changes the
do not reduce security. Desired Result #1: Reduce the number of explicit rules in the Rule Base.
Desired Result #2: Reduce the volume of logs.
Desired Result #3: Improve the Gateway’s performance.
Proposed solution:

*
Replace all domain objects with network and group objects.

*
Check “Log implied rules” and “Accept ICMP requests” in Global Properties.

*
Use Global Properties, instead of explicit rules, to control ICMP, VRRP, and RIP. Does Certkiller’s proposed solution meet the required and desired results?

A.
The solution meets all required and desired results.

B.
The solution meets all required, and one of the desired results.

C.
The solution meets all required, and two of the desired results.

D.
The solution meets all required, and none of the desired results.

E.
The solution does not meet the required results.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 119
You create implicit and explicit rules for the following network. The group object “internal-networks” include networks 10.10.10.0 and 10.10.20.0. Assume “Accept ICMP requests” is enabled as before last in the Global Properties.

Based on these rules, what happens if you Ping from host 10.10.10.5 to a host on the Internet, by IP address? ICMP will be:
A. dropped by rule 0
B. dropped by rule 2, the Cleanup Rule
C. accepted by rule 1
D. dropped by the last implicit rule
E. accepted by the implicit rule

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
What does schema checking do?
A. Authenticates users attempting to access resources protected by an NGX Security Gateway.
B. Verifies that every object class, and its associated attributes, is defined in the directory schema.
C. Maps LDAP objects to objects in the NGX objects_5_0.c files.
D. Verifies the Certificate Revocation List for Certificate Validity.
E. Provides topology downloads for SecuRemote and SecureClient users authenticated by an LDAP

server. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 121
Certkiller is about to test some rule and object changes suggested in an NGX newsgroup. Which backup and restore solution should Certkiller use, to ensure she can most easily restore her Security Policy to its previous configuration, after testing the changes?
A. SecurePlatform backup utilities
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. Upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. Policy Package management
E. Database Revision Control

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 122
You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule
A. internal_clear>All-GwToGw
B. Communities>Communities
C. Internal_clear>External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>Communities
E. Internal_clear>All_communities

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 123
Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown in the exhibit.

After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site
the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user?
The….

A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username nad password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 124
What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 125
Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for Ophelia’s requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 126
Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgrade_export command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 127
Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 128
In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 130
The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High Availability cluster member:

Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 131
What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway’s status, including CPU use, amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 133
Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 135
If you are experiencing LDAP issues, which of the following should you check?
A. Secure lnternal Cornrnunicalions(SIC)
B. VPN tunneling
C. Overlapping VPN Domains
D. NGX connectivity
E. VPN Load Balancing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
Which operating system is not supported byVPN-1 SecureClient?
A. IPS0 3.9
B. Windows XP SP2
C. Windows 2000 Professional
D. RedHat Linux 7 0
E. MacOS X

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which Check Point QoS feature issued to dynamically allocate relative portions of available bandwidth?
A. Guarantees
B. Differentiated Services
C. Limits
D. Weighted Fair Queueing
E. Low Latency Queueinq

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
You are running a VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence R54 SecurePlatform VPN-1 Pro Gateway. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add cd from the NGX CD, what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway
B. Both the operating system (OS) and all Check Point products
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. On~ the patch utility is upgraded using this command
E. Only the OS
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 139
Amanda is compiling traffic statistics for Certkiller .com’s Internet activity during production hours. How could she use SmartView Monitor to find this information? By
A. using the “Traffic Counters” settings and SmartView Monitor to generate a graph showing the total HTTP traffic for the day
B. -monitoring each specific user’s Web traffic use.
C. Viewing total packets passed through the Security Gateway
D. selecting the “Tunnels” view, and generating a report on the statistics
E. configuring a Suspicious Activity Rule which triggers an alert when HTTP traffic passes through the Gateway

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 140
Certkiller is the Security Administrator for a software-development company. To isolate the corporate network from the developer’s network, Certkiller installs an internal Security Gateway. Jack wants to optimize the performance of this Gateway. Which of the following actions is most likely to improve the Gateway’s performance?
A. Remove unused Security Policies from Policy Packages
B. Clear all Global Properties check boxes, and use explicit rules
C. Use groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D. Put the least-used rules at the top of the Rule Base
E. Use domain objects in rules, where possible

Correct Answer: D

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Adobe, Photoshop

Adobe 9A0-019 Exam, High Pass Rate Adobe 9A0-019 Certification Material With New Discount

September 2, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 86
You have created an image map in Adobe ImageReady. When the user click on the link in their browser, you want the link to display in a new window. Which option in the Image Map palette should you choose from the Target Pull-down menu?
A. _top
B. _self
C. _blank
D. _parent

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
Exhibit:

You have selected the shape tool, and want to draw a shape as a raster image. Which icon (designated by the red arrows) in the options bar should you select?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
You must commit changes to a type layer before you can perform other operations. Which keyboard stroke commits you changes.
A. pressing Shigt+Enter
B. pressing the Enter key
C. pressing the Enter key on the numeric keypad
D. pressing Option+Enter (Mac OS) or ALT+Enter (Windows)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Which two file formats support annotations? (Choose two.)
A. TIF
B. PSD
C. EPS
D. PDF

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 90
Which tool should you use to reposition a point on an existing path?
A. pen
B. move
C. direct-selection
D. path component selection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 91
You have created point type consisting of one word. You want the first character to be lower than the other characters in the word. After selecting the first character, what should you do?
A. increase the value for leading
B. increase the value for leading
C. enter a positive value for baseline shift
D. enter a negative value for baseline shift

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 92
You want to modify the lossiness setting to vary the compression of different areas on a Web graphic. What must be created before you can apply the settings?
A. a matte
B. a layer mask
C. a clipping path
D. an alpha channel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
Which aspect of paragraph type do the Every-line composer and single-line composer control?
A. leading
B. font size
C. breakpoints
D. character height

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 94
Which varies JPEG quality settings across a selected slice?
A. a matte
B. an ICC profile
C. an image map
D. an alpha channel

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 95
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
You have created a simple graphic with flat color and type that will be used on a Web site.
Which file format should you use to save the documents?
A. TIF
B. GIF
C. EPS
D. JPEG

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
You use the pen tool to create a new shape layer. You want to export the path you created so you can use it in a drawing program. What should you do?
A. choose Save Path form the Paths palette menu.
B. choose Clipping Path from the Paths palette menu.
C. select the shape layer and choose File>Export>Paths to Illustrator
D. select the background layer and choose File>Export>Paths to Illustrator

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
You have created a multichannel file with two spot color channels. There are no other channels inn the file. Which file format should you use when saving the file?
A. OBG
B. TIFF
C. JPEG
D. Adobe Photoshop DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 99
You have created a banner for your Web page that includes fully transparent areas. Which two file formats preserve transparency when you save the file? (Choose two.)
A. GIF
B. PDF
C. EPS
D. PND
E. BMD

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 100
You make a selection by using the rectangular marquee. How do you modify the selection marquee without effecting the image?
A. choose Edit>Free Transform
B. choose Select>Transform Selection
C. choose Filter>Distort and select an option
D. choose Edit>Transform and select and option

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 101
You want to save an image with file size compression but NO loss in image quality. Which file format should you select?
A. TUFF
B. JPEG
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshop DCS 2.0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 102
You want a color correction to be applied to images as their data is sent to a printer. Which option on the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box should you use?
A. Bleed
B. Screen
C. Transfer
D. Background

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You have created a quadtone image and need to print separations. It is important that the screen angle of each color is _______.
A. 53 lpi
B. different
C. the same
D. diamond shaped

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
You have created a Photoshop document that contains two spot channels. You need to place the graphic din a page layout application. Which file format should you use to save the document?
A. PNG
B. Scitex CT
C. Adobe Photoshop EPS
D. Adobe Photoshoe DCS 2.0
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 105
Which option is available when you save file in EPS format?
A. Matte
B. Transparency
C. Baseline Optimized
D. Include Halftone Screen
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
For duotone images, what has an impact to how the color in the image will appear in print?
A. the order in which the colors are printed.
B. the order in which the layer in file were created.
C. the Preview selected in the Save As DCS 2.0 dialog box.
D. the amount of bleed specified in the Output pop-up menu of the Print Options dialog box.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
With which format can you save a document and maintain all alpha channels and layers?
A. EPS
B. PNG
C. PDF
D. BMP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
Which three file format allow you to save layer information in the File? (Choose three.)
A. PSD
B. PDF
C. EPS
D. JPEG
E. TIFF

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 109
Which option is available when saving an image as Photoshop EPS?
A. Interlaced
B. Matte Color
C. LZW Compression
D. Include Halftone Screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 110
You are printing a 72 ppi image and choose to scale the image to 50% in the Print Options dialog box. To which resolution will the image be printed?
A. 36 ppi
B. 72 ppi
C. 144 ppi
D. 360 ppi

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 111
On PostScript Level 2 or higher printers that have interpolation capability, what occurs when you select Interpolation in the Print Options dialog box?
A. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
B. A low resolution image will automatically be resampled down.
C. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled up.
D. A high resolution image will automatically be resampled down.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
Exhibit: You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)

A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 113
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 114
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 115

What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 116
Exhibit:

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 117
You are working with a 3 inch 5 inch image that will be printed on gloss paper with a line screen of 133. Which resolution should you use for the image.
A. 60 ppi
B. 85 ppi
C. 133 ppi
D. 266 ppi

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 118
You want to place multiple copies of a source image on a single page. Which Automate command should you use?
A. Fit Image
B. Contact Sheet
C. Picture Package
D. Web Photo Gallery

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
What is and advantage of using Every-line composer when creating paragraph type?
A. Line breaks can be controlled manually.
B. Text is more evenly spaced with fewer hyphens.
C. Each line is evaluated independent for the best line break.
D. Hyphenation is preferred over compressed or expanded letter spacing.
Correct Answer: B

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-331 Study Guide, Sale Latest 3Com 3M0-331 Certification Material Online Sale

September 2, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 131
Which statement best describes the function of Stateful Packet Inspection Firewall in the 3Com Router 6000 series?
A. Mid-flow sessions can be classified
B. The origin of the packet is always know
C. Rules are applied to specific packet types
D. Packets from each side of the connection are matched

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 132
Which command shows the correct syntax (software version 2.x) to configure an IP address on the first serial interface of the router 6040?
A. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip 10.1.3.1 24
B. [RTA-Serial0/0] ip interface10.1.3.1 24
C. <RTA-Serial0/0> ip address 10.1.3.1 24
D. [RTA-Serial1/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24
E. [RTA-Serial0/0/0] ip address 10.1.3.1 24

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 133
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the 3Com Router 5000 family?
A. A family of modular routers with up to four option-module slots
B. A family of modular routers with up to eight option-module slots
C. A family of fixed-port routers with up to two 10/100 LAN ports and two WAN ports
D. A family of fixed-port routers with up to four 10/100 LAN ports and four WAN ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 135
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 136
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 137
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 139
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 140
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 142
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 143
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 144
Net-Summary LSAs are created by
A. BBR routers.
B. ASBR routers.
C. All IAR routers.
D. ABR routers only.
E. ASBR and ABR routers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 145
Which three settings are used to determine the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose three.)
A. A router with a priority of zero (0) cannot be the DR
B. The router with the highest priority is elected the DR
C. The router with the highest IP address is elected the DR
D. A router with a hexadecimal priority of F?cannot be the DR
E. If two routers have the same router priority, the highest router ID is elected the DR

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 146
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which two commands are required to complete the OSPF configuration of Router B? (Choose two.)

A. [RTB-Serial0/0]undo inarp
B. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.1
C. [RTB-ospf-1] peer 10.0.0.3
D. [RTB-Serial0/0] fr interface-type dte
E. [RTB-Serial0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 147
Which OSPF Neighbor states means that both routers have identical Link State Databases (LSDBs)?
A. Init
B. Full
C. 2-way
D. Synch
E. Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 148
The optional parameter ragment?can be added to an ACL rule. To what IP packet does this rule then
apply?
A. First fragments only
B. Non-first fragments only
C. First fragments and non-first fragments only
D. Non-fragments, first fragments and non-first fragments

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 150
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)?
A. Java Blocking
B. Site and content blocking
C. Enhanced session logging
D. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM)
E. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 151
Which two security protocols are supported in the 3Com Router 6000 Family, but not in the 3Com Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 152
Which three are examples of packet-switched data networks (PSDN)? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. xDSL
D. T1/E1
E. Frame Relay
F. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET)
G. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 153
3COM 5000/6000 routers can provide reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users by using which protocol?
A. ASPF
B. HSRP
C. SRPU
D. VRRP
E. EIRGP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 154
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 155
Which three security features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Restricted Proxy Server
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
E. Forces all WAN traffic through a VPN tunnel

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 156
Which 3Com Router 3000 model provides a single T1/CTI/PRI WAN port?
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 157
Which three IP routing protocols are supported by the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. X.25
C. HDLC
D. OSPF
E. BGP-4
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 158
A router receives BGP information about a route. Which statement about the next hop address is always true?
A. It is reachable by the router
B. It is the address of another BGP router
C. It is on a subnet directly connected to the router
D. It is within the same Autonomous System as the router

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 159
MPLS is a connection-based technology, requiring a connection setup phase before any data is exchanged between hosts.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 160
Which older technology concept does MPLS use?
A. X.25
B. ATM
C. ISDN
D. FDDI
E. Token ring

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 161
Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.)
A. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing
B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping
C. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface
D. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface
E. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification
F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification

Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 162
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 163
In a packet, what does an MPLS label identify?
A. The next hop switch
B. The destination subnet
C. The target egress switch
D. The Label Switched Path
E. The Forwarding Equivalence Class

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In the software version 2.x CLI, which of the following shows the correct syntax to add a network to OSPF Area 0?
A. <OSPF> Interface 10.1.2.0 24
B. [Router-Serial0] ospf enable area 0
C. [Router] Ospf 0 IP address 10.1.2.0 24
D. [Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0] Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255
E. <Router-OSPF-1-0.0.0.0> Network 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 165
Which four are characteristics of Frame Relay (FR) technology? (Choose four.)
A. FR is a fast packet-switching technology
B. FR only supports Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs)
C. FR supports both point-to-point and point-to-multipoint configurations
D. FR can be configured in full-mesh, partial-mesh, ring and star configurations
E. FR uses Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCIs) for virtual circuit identification
F. FR uses Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to discover DLCI/IP address mapping
G. FR implements multiplexing, error detection and retransmission operations after error detection at the Data Link Layer (DLL)

Correct Answer: ACEF
QUESTION 166
Which Router 5000/6000 protocol ensures reliable, uninterrupted and stable IP connectivity for end-users, when configured on two or more 5000/6000 series router?
A. Backup Gateway Protocol (BaGP)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Advanced Peer-to-Peer Communications (APPC)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 167
Which three types of security authentication are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS authentication
B. Message Authentication Code (MAC)
C. In-line Triple Data Encryption Algorithm (TDEA)
D. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)
E. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 168
Which type of ACL does the number range of 3000-3999 refer to in 3Com routers software version 2.x?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 169
Which protocol is used for encryption (providing confidentiality) and authentication?
A. AH
B. IKE
C. ESP
D. tunnel mode.
E. transport mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 170
Which three WAN technologies are supported on the Router 5000 series? (Choose three.)
A. ATM
B. X.25
C. ISDN
D. xDSL
E. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 171
What is the total length of an MPLS header?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 172
Which two 3Com Router 3000 models have one ISDN BRI and one serial WAN port? (Choose two.)
A. Router 3012
B. Router 3013
C. Router 3015
D. Router 3016
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 173
Quality of Service (QoS) is a general term for a set of techniques to manage network resources. Which is NOT one of those techniques?
A. Traffic Policing
B. Traffic Shaping
C. Traffic Metering
D. Congestion Avoidance
E. Congestion Management
F. Classification and Marking
Correct Answer: C

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Exam Cost, The Most Recommended CheckPoint 156-215 Study Guide Online Store

August 31, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 141
R71’s INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which tow layers of the OSl model?
A. Physical and Data
B. Session and Transport
C. Presentation and Application
D. Data and Network

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 142
After filtering a fw monitor trace by port and IP, a packet is displayed three times; in the “I”, “I”, and ‘o’ inspection points, but not in the ‘O’ inspection. Which is the likely source of the issue?
A. The packet has been sent out through a VPN tunnel unencrypted.
B. An IPSO ACL has blocked the outbound passage of the packet.
C. A SmartDefense module has blocked the packet
D. It is an issue with NAT

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 143
Your company has two headquarters, one in London, and one in New York Each office includes ActualTests.com several branch offices. The branch offices need to rate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for establishing VPN Communities for this company? VPN Communities comprised of:
A. Two star and one mesh Community: One star Community is set up for each site, with headquarters as the center of the Community and its branches as satellites The mesh Community includes only New York and London Gateways.
B. One star Community with the option to “mesh” the center of the star: New York and London Gateways added to the center of the star with the mesh canter Gateways option checked, all London branch offices defined m one satellite window, but all New York branch offices defined m another satellite window.
C. Two mesh and one star Community One mesh Community is set up for each of the headquarters and its branch offices The star Community is configured with London as the center of the Community and New York is the satellite.
D. Three mesh Communities: One for London headquarters and its branches, one for New York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
How can you configure an application to automatically launch on the Security Management Server when traffic is dropped Security Policy?
A. Pop-up alert script
B. User-defined alert script
C. Custom scripts cannot be executed through alert scripts
D. SNMP trap alert script

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 145
The command fw fetch causes the:
A. Security Management Server to retrieve the IP addresses of the target Security Gateway. ActualTests.com
B. Security Gateway to retrieve the compiled policy and inspect code from the Security Management Server and install it to the kernel
C. Security Gateway to retrieve the user database information from the tables on the Security Management Server
D. Security Management Server to retrieve the debug logs of the target Security Gateway

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credential. What must happen after authentication that
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 58 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway’s VPN domain?
A. Active-X must be allowed on the client.
B. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.
C. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.
D. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 147
Which authentication type requires specifying a contact agent in the Rule Base?
A. Client Authentication with Partially Automatic Sign On
B. User Authentication
C. Session Authentication
D. Client Authentication with Manual Sign On

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
You find a suspicious FTP connection trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block it m real time and verify it is successfully blocked?
A. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block it using Tools > ActualTests.com Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection is listed in this SmartView Tracker view as “dropped”.
B. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Active mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this SmartView Tracker view.
C. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Log mode that the suspicious connection does not appear again in this SmartView Tracker view.
D. Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode. Block it using Tools > Block Intruder menu. Observe in the Log mode that the suspicious connection is listed in this SmartView Tracker view as “dropped”.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 149
Your network includes a SecurePlatform machine running NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55. This configuration acts as both the primary Security Management Server and VPN-1 Pro Gateway. You add one machine, so you can implement Security Gateway R71 in a distributed environment. The new machine is an Intel CoreDuo processor, with 2 GB RAM and a 500-GB hard drive. How do you use these two machines to successfully migrate the NG with Al R55 configuration?
A. 1. On the existing machine, export the NG with AJ R55 configuration to a network share.
2.
Insert the R71 CD-ROM in the old machine Install the R7D Security Gateway only while reinstalling the SecurePlatform OS over the top of the existing installation. Complete sysconfig.

3.
On the new machine, install SecurePlatform as the primary Security Management Server only.

4.
Transfer the exported. tgz file into the new machine, import the configuration, and then reboot

5.
Open SmartDashboard, change the Gateway object to the new version, and reset SIC for the
Gateway object.

B. 1. Export the configuration on the existing machine to a tape drive
2.
Uninstall the Security Management Server from the existing machine, using sysconfig.

3.
Insert the R71 CD-ROM. run the patch add CD-ROM command to upgrade the existing machine to the R71 Security Gateway, and reboot

4.
Install a new primary Security Management Server on the new machine

5.
Change the Gateway object to the new version, and reset SIC
C. 1. Export the configuration on the existing machine to a network share
2.
Uninstall the Security Gateway from the existing machine, using sysconfig

3.
Insert the R71 CD ROM. and run the patch add CD-HGM command to upgrade the Security
Management Server to Security Gateway R 70
4.
Select upgrade with imported file, and reboot

5.
Install a new R71 Security Gateway as the only module on the new machine, and reset SIC to the new Gateway ActualTests.com
D. 1. Export the configuration on the existing machine as a backup only
2.
Edit $FWDIR\product. conf on the existing machine, to disable the VPN-1 Pro Gateway package

3.
Reboot the existing machine

4.
Perform an in place upgrade on the Security Management Server using the command “patch odd cd”

5.
On the new machine, install SecurePlatform as the R71 Security Gateway only

6.
Run sysconfig to complete the configuration

7.
From SmartDashboard, reconfigure the Gateway object to the new version, and reset SIC

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 150
How can you access the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) on the firewall, if you have configured a Stealth Rule as the first explicit rule?
A. You can access the Revocation list by means of a browser using the URL: <https: //IP-FW: 18264/ICA_CRLI.crl> provided the implied rules are activated per default
B. The CRL is encrypted, so it is useless to attempt to access it.
C. You cannot access the CRL, since the Stealth Rule will drop the packets
D. You can only access the CRI via the Security Management Server as the internal CA is located on that server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 151
What port is used for communication to the User Center with SmartUpdate?
A. CPMI200
B. HTTPS443
C. HTTP 80
D. TCP 8080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 152
ActualTests.com You are the Security Administrator in a large company called ABC. A Check Point Firewall is installed and in use on SecurePlatform. You are concerned that the system might not be retaining your entries for the interface and routing configuration. You would like to verify your entries in the corresponding file(s) on SecurePlatform. Where can you view them? Give the BEST answer.
A. /etc/conf/route.C
B. /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ethx
D. /etc/sysconfig/network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 153
You are Security Administrator preparing to deploy a new HFA (HOTfix Accumulator) to ten Security Gateways at five geographically separate locations.
What is the BEST method to implement this HFA?
A. Send a Certified Security Engineer to each site to perform the update.
B. Use SmartUpdate to install the packages to each of the Security Gateways remotely
C. Use a SSH connection to SCP the HFA to each Security Gateway. Once copied locally, imitate a remote installation command and monitor the installation progress with SmartView Monitor
D. Send a CD-ROM with the HFA to each location and have local personnel install it.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 154
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running SecurePlatform. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
B. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
C. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinto.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 155
Which feature or command provides the easiest path for Security Administrators to revert to earlier versions of the same Security Policy and objects configuration?
A. Policy Package management
B. dbexport/dbimport
C. Database Revision Control
D. upgrade_export/upgrade_import
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 156
Your Gateways are running near performance capacity and will get upgraded hardware next week. Which of the following would be MOST effective for quickly dropping all connections from a specific attacker’s IP at a peak time of day?
A. SAM – Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker
B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy install
C. SAM – Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView Monitor
D. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security Gateways

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 157
Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120 seconds
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 158
Certificates for Security Gateways are created during a simple initialization from______.
A. SmartUpdate
B. sysconfig
C. The ICA management tool.
D. SmartDashboard

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 159
Reviews the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties screen, as shown below: After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, when a user starts an HTTP connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line. What happens to the user? The:

ActualTests.com
A. User is prompted from that FPT site only, and does not need to enter his user name and password for Client Authentication.
B. User is prompted for Authentication by the Security Gateway again.
C. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.
D. FTP connection is dropped by rules 2.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 160
A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT Client side NAT is
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 64 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam enabled in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. On the initiating packet, NAT occurs on which inspection point?
A. I B. O
B. o
C. i

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 161
Which of the following statements about file-type recognition in Content Inspection is TRUE?
A. Antivirus status is monitored using SrnartView Tracker.
B. A scan failure will only occur if the antivirus engine fails to initialize.
C. All file types are considered “at risk”, and are not configurable by the Administrator or the Security Policy.
D. The antivirus engine acts as a proxy, caching the scanned file before delivering it to the client.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 162
Which Security Gateway R71 configuration setting forces the Client Authentication authorization time-out to refresh, each time a new user is authenticated? The:
ActualTests.com
A. Global Properties > Authentication parameters, adjusted to allow for Regular Client Refreshment
B. Time properties, adjusted on the user objects for each user, in the source of the Client Authentication rule
C. IPS > Application Intelligence > Client Authentication > Refresh User Timeout option enabled
D. Refreshable Timeout setting, in the Limits tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 163
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 65 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Most accessed Rule Base rule
B. Number of concurrent IKE negotiations
C. SIC revoke certificate event
D. Destination IP address

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 164
When configuring objects in SmartMap, it helps if you________ the objects so that they may be used in a policy rule.
A. Expand
B. Actualize
C. Physically connect to
D. Save

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 165
You have included the Cleanup Rule in your Rule Base. Where in the Rule Base should the Accept ICMP Requests implied rule have no effect?
ActualTests.com
A. First
B. Before Last
C. Last
D. After Stealth Rule

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 166
Your organization’s disaster recovery plan needs an update to the backup and restore section to reap the benefits of the new distributed R71 installation. Your plan must meet the following required and desired objectives: “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 66 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam Required Objective: The Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.
Desired Objective: The R71 components that enforce the Security Polices should be blocked up at least
once a week.
Desired Objective: Back up R71 logs at least once a week
Your disaster recovery plan is as follows:

Use the cron utility to run the upgrade_ export command each night on the Security Management Servers.
Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the files created by the upgrade_ export
command.

Configure the SecurePlatform backup utility to back up the Security Gateways every Saturday night
Use the cron utility to run the upgrade export: command each Saturday niqht on the log servers
Configure an automatic, nightly loqswitch
Configure the organization’s routine backup software to back up the switched logs every night
Upon evaluation, your plan:

A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective.
B. Does not meet the required objective.
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective.
D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 167
Your Rule Base includes a Client Authentication rule, using partial authentication and standard sign-on for HTTP, Telnet, and FTP services. The rule was working, until this morning. Now users are not prompted for authentication, and they see error “page cannot be displayed” in the browser. In SmartView Tracker, you discover the HTTP connection is dropped when the Gateway is the destination. What caused Client Authentication to fail?
A. You added a rule below the Client Authentication rule, blocking HTTP from the internal network.
B. You added the Stealth Rule before the Client Authentication rule.
C. You disabled R71 Control Connections in Global Properties.
D. You enabled Static NAT on the problematic machines.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 168
Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 169
Which of the following statements regarding SecureXL and CoreXL is TRUE?
A. SecureXL is an application for accelerating connections.
B. CoreXL enables multi-core processing for program interfaces.
C. SecureXL is only available in R71.
D. CoreXL is included in SecureXL.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 170

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3COM, 3Com Certification

3Com 3M0-600 Practice Test, Most Accurate 3Com 3M0-600 PDF Exams On Sale

August 31, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 126
Which Wireless Infrastructure Device Manager (WIDM) command
displays the generic settings of a discovered 3Com Access Point (AP), i.e., device name, type, IP address,
MAC address?

A. Show
B. Display
C. Present
D. Properties

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 127
What is displayed by the 3Com Launcher/3Com Wireless LAN Manager if the antenna is retracted on a 3Com 11a/b/g Wireless PC Card with XJACK Antenna?
A. A picture with a red line connecting the PC and AP
B. A picture with a green line connecting the PC and AP
C. A picture with a yellow line connecting the PC and AP
D. A picture with multiple curved lines showing the single strength between the PC and AP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
Which three are features of the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400? (Choose three.)
A. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
B. External redundant SuperStack RPS
C. Four 1,000 Mbps GBICs or 1000BASE-TX ports
D. Supports up to 24 fit access points with base model
E. License upgrade to support a maximum of 96 Managed Access Points
F. Stack up to four units together to support a maximum of 144 fit access points

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 129
Which functionality is transferred from 3Com Access Points (APs) to the 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/ Switch, creating Fit APs or Managed Access Points (MAPs) with the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System?
A. Encryption, roaming and security policy
B. Authentication, roaming and security policy
C. Encryption, authentication and security policy
D. Radio frequency (RF) radio, encryption and roaming
E. Encryption, authentication, roaming and security policy
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 130
Click the Task button.
Drag each 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System product to the set of features it supports.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 131
The 3Com Wireless LAN Controller WX4400 provides high-bandwidth, centralized control for up to 144 directly attached managed access points (MAPs).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 132
Which three are 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) network planning functions? (Choose three.)
A. Generate a work order
B. Define the geographical area for the wireless network
C. Launch countermeasures against rogue access points
D. Define the RF model and the coverage areas for the floor
E. Define the connection speeds for wired devices on a floor

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 133
What is required before the network administer can connect to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller via telnet?
A. Create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication
B. Assign a master password to the device and set the console port authentication
C. Enable telnet services, create an admin user/password on the device and assign the device an IP address
D. Enable privilege mode, create a user/password on the device and set the console port authentication

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 134
Which best describes the purpose of the Wireless LAN Switch/Controller “quickstart” command?
A. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform advanced system configuration
B. It is the command that allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.
C. It begins the configuration process that automatically assigns the IP address and configures the device for basic operations
D. It is the command that first deletes any configuration on the device, then allows the administrator to perform basic system configuration, i.e., IP address, date/time, etc.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
Which two are performed by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM), during the Compute and Place MAPs process of network planning, to determine the number of Managed Access Points (MAPs) for an area? (Choose two.)
A. Coverage calculation to determine RF capacity and coverage
B. Capacity calculation to determine the number of MAPs required
C. Coverage calculation to determine the RF obstacles for an area
D. Optimal MAP transmit power requirements for RF area coverage

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 136
The network administrator can draw or import a JPEG or AutoCAD building floor plan using the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM).
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 137
Which best describes the information provided with the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) work order?
A. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
B. Information for the physical installation of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System
C. Information for the physical installation and software parameters, i.e., IP addresses, VLANs, channel assignments, etc., of Managed Access Points (MAPs)
D. Information for the physical installation of Managed Access Points (MAPs), 3Com Wireless LAN Controller/Switch initial setup configuration information and projected RSSI information of the 3Com Wireless LAN Mobility System

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
Which RF obstacle-planning functions are supported by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)?
A. Remove unnecessary layers from imported JPEG floor plans
B. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported GIF floor plan
C. Assign an attenuation factor to all objects from an imported JPEG floor plan
D. Create objects that may absorb RF signals and assign each object an attenuation factor

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 139
Which two are functions of the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) “deploy” command?
A. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Managed Access Point (MAP)
B. Sends a configuration file from 3WXM to a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
C. Activates a newly loaded configuration file on a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
D. Allows a Wireless LAN Switch/Controller to be drawn into a Network Plan Mobility Domain
E. Synchronizes configuration information between the 3WXM and a 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/ Controller

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 140
Which three types of wireless devices may be detected as rogues by the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM)? (Choose three.)
A. Authorized wireless NIC
B. Wireless NIC running in ad-hoc mode
C. Unauthorized third-party access point
D. Unauthorized 3Com Wireless LAN Switch/Controller
E. Unauthorized 3Com access point (AP)
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 141
What can the 3Com Wireless LAN Switch Manager (3WXM) do when it discovers a wireless rogue device?
A. Flood the access point (AP), causing a Denial of Service (DoS) condition
B. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to a Syslog server
C. Deactivate the access point (AP) and send a message to the network management software
D. Verify the IP address of the rouge device and send the information to the management software, which blocks future packets from the device
Correct Answer: A

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3Com 3M0-212 Exam Dumps, 100% Real 3Com 3M0-212 Practise Questions With New Discount

August 31, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 108
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 109
Which three are Smart IP Switch 40×0 family features? (Choose three)
A. Switch can function as a DHCP or BootP server
B. Supports both manual and automatic IP configuration
C. Uses SNMP trap to verify the availability of IP address pool.
D. Can select a random IP address from default assress range
E. Can receive an IP address from either a DHCP or BootP server
F. Network manager must release any automatically assigned address before the switch can be manually configured

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 110
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR)
E. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
Which two are valid XRN Fabric configurations? (Choose two)
A. Switch 4050 and Switch 4070
B. Switch 4060 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4950
C. Switch 4007 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4400
D. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
E. Switch 4050 and Switch 4060,Swicth 4070 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 112
Which two 3Com switch families can currently be used to create an XRN Distributed Fabric (DF)? (Choose two)
A. 3Com Swicth 40×0 family
B. 3Com Swicth 4005 family
C. 3Com Swicth 4007 family
D. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4400 family
E. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4900 family

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 113
Which two components are required to create a geographically distributed XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches)?(Choose two)
A. 4-port GBIC module
B. 3Com Network Supervisor
C. XRN Fabric Interconnect Modules
D. High-Bandwidth Interconnect Cable
E. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V4.X

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 114
What is minimum requirement to support the Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is support by every switch
B. At least two switches must be stacked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
What is the procedure for upgrading a SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 SE to the enhanced switch feature set?
A. Enter the software upgrade code obtained from 3Com and reboot the switch
B. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to TFTP server on the same subnet as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch, reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
C. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to a TFTP server on the same network as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
D. Purchase and obtain activation key for the Switch 4400 Enhanced Software Upgrade from 3Com using Command Line Interface (CLI) entry “system license add” enter activation key confirm.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 116
Which three Physical Layer components should you check when either the Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 is having a connection problem? (Choose three)
A. Link LEDs
B. Switch ARP tables
C. Switch VLAN assignments
D. MAC address for the link
E. RX error statistics for link
F. Link Speed, duplex mode and flow control

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 117
Which three may be the cause of a Switch 7700 Network Layer 3 problem? (Choose three)
A. The switch trunk ports are not properly configured
B. The RIP versions are not the same between switches
C. The switches is not sending and receiving rout ipdates
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the switch
E. The MAC address table “aging parameter” is set too high
F. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is not properly configured on the switch

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 118
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700? (Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 120
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 121
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link

Correct Answer: BCDF
QUESTION 122
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 123
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 124
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 125
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)

Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 126
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 127
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 128
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 129
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
Correct Answer: B

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