CCNP Wireless, Cisco

Easy and Guaranteed Cisco 642-742 PDF Success

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Where to find the new Cisco 642-742 pdf exam questions to pass the exam easily? Now, Pass4itSure has publised the new version of Cisco 642-742 exam dumps with new added exam questions. http://www.pass4itsure.com/642-742.html  offer the latest Cisco 642-742 PDF and VCE dumps with New Version VCE Player for free download, and the new Cisco 642-742 pdf ensure your exam 100% pass.

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QUESTION 1
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
B. bandwidth reservation
C. optimized power-save mode periods
D. increased call capacity
E. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
Which two options allow a Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7925G to conserve its battery? (Choose two.)
A. PS-Poll
B. S-APSD
C. U-APSD
D. 802.11h
E. 802.11r

Correct Answer: AC 352-001 pdf
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the benefit of WMM U-APSD over legacy 802.11 power-save mode?
A. Client can burst data without standard interframe spacing.
B. Client can burst data without ACKs.
C. Client no longer sends null frame to notify of sleep mode.
D. Client sleep mode is scheduled by AP to reduce jitter.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two items enable WMM to expedite frames from respective traffic categories? (Choose two.)
Consistent CWmin and CWmax values Dynamic CWmin and CWmax values
A. AIFS
B. SIFS
C. PIFS
D. DIFS
E. U-APSD
F. PS-Poll
Correct Answer: BC

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/iuwvn.html

 

642-742 pdf
QUESTION 5
When a VoWLAN client is in the range of two cells, which two statements describe how the client makes a decision about which cell is the best to associate with? (Choose two.)
A. The client will associate with the cell with the highest RSSI value.
B. The client will associate with the cell with the lowest SNR value.
C. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest 802.11e value.
D. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest TSPEC value.
E. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the lowest mandatory date rate.
F. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest data rate.
G. The client will associate with the first cell that advertises U-APSD.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
The AP has been properly configured for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm. What would be the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -55 dBm
B. -60 dBm
C. -62 dBm
D. -67 dBm
E. -70 dBm
F. -73 dBm

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?
A. 11 Mb/s
B. 12 Mb/s
C. 18 Mb/s
D. 36 Mb/s
E. 54 Mb/s

Correct Answer: B   http://www.ccna100-101.com/cisco-300-320-dumps.html
QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true about load-based Call Admission Control? (Choose three.)
A. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on the number of active clients associated to the AP
B. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on channel bandwidth capacity
C. uses the 802.11i specifications
D. uses ADDTS action frames
E. requires a WMM-enabled client

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11g cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11a cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20

E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A VoWLAN site survey was performed and equipment installed based on recommended design guidelines. Which two statements describe reasons to perform a post-deployment survey? (Choose two.)
A. There is insufficient information about the number of people in the area when the survey is performed.
B. There is insufficient information by AirMagnet VoFi Analyzer.
C. There are elevator shafts.
D. There are roaming pathways.
E. There are changes in temperature in the indoor environment.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which attribute does the VoWLAN Readiness Tool of WCS v7.0 use to predict acceptable conditions?
A. SNR
B. RSSI
C. PER
D. WMM
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 14
You have recently added Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G to your branch office. The new wireless and wired IP phones are experiencing poor call quality when receiving calls across the IP WAN from the remote HQ. What is the most likely issue?
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth for the IP WAN link is not properly configured and is allowing more calls than the link can accommodate.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth settings have not been increased to support the new wireless IP phones.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth is set too low, resulting in poor call quality.
D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager gatekeeper-controlled CAC has been set too low, resulting in poor call quality.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G are associated with the VoWLAN at your branch office. When they attempt to place a call, the call fails to go through and you receive a fast busy tone. What is the issue?
A. The wireless phones failed to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster invoked CAC to preserve IP WAN voice bandwidth.
C. The local gateway rejected the call because of high IP WAN utilization.
D. Automatic alternate routing has been invoked.

Correct Answer: B

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VCP6-NV, VMware

100% Real New Updated VMware 2V0-620 Dumps

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Practice what you preach is the beginning of success. Since you have chosen to participate in the demanding IT certification exam. Then you have to pay your actions, and achieve excellent results. Pass4itSure’s VMware 2V0-620 exam cost are the best training materials for this exam. With it you will have a key to success. Pass4itSure’s VMware 2V0-620 Dumps are absolutely reliable materials. You should believe that you can pass the exam easily, too.

2V0-620 Dumps

Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Exam
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
2V0-620 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 10-16,2016

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NO.1  An administrator has recently installed a new ESXi 6.x Host, and during the configuration
notices sporadic network problems.
To check whether the issue occurred sometime during the configuration, the administrator would like
to reset the system.
How can this be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?
A. Select the Reset System Configuration option from the vSphere Client when connected directly to
the host.
B. Use a host profile to reset the configuration to a default state.
C. From the Direct Console User Interface, select Reset System Configuration.
D. Run the ESXi installer again and reinstall the host.
Answer: C

NO.2 An administrator is deploying multiple Windows 2003 Virtual Machines from the same
template.
What two steps should be taken to avoid network conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. Install VMware Tools into the new virtual machines.
B. Copy the Microsoft Sysprep tools onto the vCenter Server system.
C. Customize the guest operating system.
D. Ensure the e1000 vmnic is selected for each new virtual machine.
Answer: B,C

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Microsoft, Microsoft Windows Store apps

Where Can I find The Reliable Microsoft Exam 70-480 Dumps Download

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070-480 dumps

Exam Code: 070-480
Exam Name: Microsoft (Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-28

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NO.1 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id.”txtValue” /> A customer must enter a value in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need
to add validation to the text box control. Which HTML should you use?
A. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” required=”required”/>
B. <input id=”txtValue” type=”text” pattern=”[A-Za-z]{3}” />
C. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” />
D. <input id=”txtValue” type=”required” autocomplete=”on” />
Answer:A

NO.2 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<label id=”txtValue”X/label> Information from the web form is submitted to a web service. The web
service
returns the following JSON object.
{ “Confirmation”: “1234”, “FirstName”: “John”}
You need to display the Confirmation number from the JSON response in the txtValue label field.
Which JavaScript code segment should you use?
A. $(“#txtValue”).val = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
B. $(“#txtValue”).val(JSONObject.Confirmation);
C. $(“#txtValue”).text = (JSONObject.Confirmation);
D. $(“#txtValue”).text(JSONObject.Confirmation);
Answer:D

NO.3 You are developing a customer web form that includes the following HTML.
<input id=”txtValue” type=”text” />
A customer must enter a valid age in the text box prior to submitting the form.
You need to add validation to the control.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer:D

NO.4 You are developing a web page that enables customers to upload documents to a web server.
The
page includes an HTML5 PROGRESS element named progressBar that displays information about the
status of the upload. The page includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference
only.)
An event handler must be attached to the request object to update the PROGRESS element on the
page.
You need to ensure that the status of the upload is displayed in the progress bar. Which line of code
should you insert at line 03?
A. xhr.upload.onloadeddata =
B. xhr.upload.onplaying =
C. xhr.upload.onseeking =
D. xhr.upload.onprogress =
Answer:D

NO.5 You are developing a customer contact form that will be displayed on a page of a company’s
website. The page collects information about the customer. If a customer enters a value before
submitting the form, it must be a valid email address. You need to ensure that the data validation
requirement is met. What should you use?
A. <input name=”email” type=”url”/>
B. <input name=”email” type=”text” required=”required”/>
C. <input name=”email” type=”text”/>
D. <input name=”email” type=”email”/>
Answer:D

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Exam 70-480: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

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CCNA Collaboration, Cisco

Download Free Cisco 210-065 Dumps For All

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The 210-065 PDF helps you in using this product across multiple devices including mobiles and tablets. Making to possible to take the 210-065 exam reading, questions and answers, with you at ease. Whereas, the 210-065 practice test software simulates the real 210-065 dump scenario, where you can practice for the actual Cisco exam. http://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 5)

An important Cisco TelePresence video multipoint call is in progress and you are getting
complaints of pixilation of the video and poor audio quality on one of the involved systems.
Which page would be a good place to start for troubleshooting the issue on the affected
endpoint?

210-065 dump

210-065 dump

210-065 dump

210-065 dump

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Answer: A

Question No : 2 – (Topic 5)

210-065 dump

An H.323 endpoint that is registered to Cisco VCS Control is not able to make B2B calls.
Calls to other internal endpoints are working fine. What is the likely cause of the issue?

A. The Conductor H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
B. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
C. The Production CUCM H.323 zone is set to “Off.”
D. The Traversal Zone H.323 zone is in a “Failed” state.

Answer: B

Question No : 3 – (Topic 5)

What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX,Series endpoint running software version TC7?

A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password
“TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password
using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light
blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to
the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use
Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.

Answer: C

Question No : 4 – (Topic 5)

When placing a call from Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence to the Cisco TelePresence
System Codec C40, which FECCs are available?

A. Only zoom-in and zoom-out are available.
B. Only left and right are available.
C. Only up and down are available.
D. No FECC is available.
E. Left, right, up, down, zoom-in, and zoom-out are all available.

Answer: E

Question No : 5 – (Topic 5)

An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700
endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?

A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four
screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.

Answer: D

Question No : 6 – (Topic 5)

Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration
applications to support medianet functionality?

A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN

Answer: A

Question No : 7 – (Topic 5)

A voice engineer installed and configured Cisco TMSXE in a Windows Server and
integrated with Cisco TMS. Which action can now be taken?

A. Use Windows PC as a Cisco TelePresence endpoint.
B. Start Cisco TelePresence meetings online.
C. Schedule Cisco TelePresence meetings through Outlook.
D. Start Cisco TelePresence meetings with Cisco TelePresence endpoints

Answer: C

Question No : 8 – (Topic 5)

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various
capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which
two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)

A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during
processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media
requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format
streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format

Answer: A,C

Question No : 9 – (Topic 5)

Which two of these can cause registration problems for a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40
endpoint running in H.323 mode? (Choose two.)
A. The IP default gateway address is incorrect for the endpoint.
B. The H.323 license stack is not added to the endpoint.
C. The MAC address for the endpoint has not been added to the Cisco TelePresence VCS.
D. The E.164 H323Alias has not been configured on the endpoint.
E. The URI address has not been configured on the endpoint.

Answer: A,D

Question No : 10 – (Topic 5)

A company wants to enable a mobile user to connect to the corporate network to access
calls, messages, video conferencing, and web collaboration. Which product provides these
features for the user?
A. Cisco WebEx Connect
B. Cisco Unified Presence
C. Cisco TelePresence SX20
D. Cisco Jabber

Answer: D

 

 

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RedHat, RHCSA

Get All Free The latest EX200 Exam Dumps

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Today I got the results for the RHCSA EX200 exam which I took yesterday and passed with full marks, I received a score of 300/300 with the passing score being 210. This is just a quick review about the materials I used and how I studied to pass the exam, I hope that this guide will help you study! I will not be discussing any of the contents that were within the exam, if you’re interested in what is covered have a look at the exam objective page here.

I’ve taken a break from the Microsoft world since earning my MCSA 2012 in December last year – the time of my last blog post here. I started studying for the Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) for something different however towards the end of my study for that my work was able to send me on the RHCSA Rapid Track Course with Exam (RH200) which is something I’d asked if I could do. After a while I was given approval for it so put the Cisco study on hold and got straight into Red Hat. As a system administrator that deals primarily with Linux I was keen to get some Linux based certification as prior to the RHCSA I had 5 different Microsoft certifications which might give people the wrong impression about my skills.

ex200 exam

The EX200 exam is practical, you sit at a computer with Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) installed and have to complete a series of tasks. For this sort of exam the best way to practice is by doing, that’s not to say all of the videos and books listed previously are useless as I found them very useful, but actually installing the OS and doing the things yourself is probably the most important thing that you should look at doing. This is why I found the RH200 course so great, because the whole thing was basically a hands on lab where you have to work through things and complete various tasks.

If you’re practicing on your own you can download the EX200 exam and install it, I did this in a virtual machine for educational purposes. You can use the free trial and you don’t need a subscription to use it, this just means you will not get updates and support which should be fine for practicing.

A great alternative is to look at using another distribution like Pass4cert. I’ve been using Pass4cert for about 3 years and it aims to be 100% binary compatible with RHEL which is the upstream provider. What’s great about Pass4cert is that it’s free, so you can download it and install it and all of the commands and tasks you would do in your practice would apply to EX200 exam.

ex200 exam

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Cisco, Others

Cisco 640-460 Exam, Prepare for the Cisco 640-460 Exam Questions For Sale

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Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-470 dumps 

Review all FLYDUMPS Cisco 640-460 exam sample questions carefully, we guarantee you wiil pass the Cisco 640-460 exam for you first attempt and get the Cisco 640-460 Certification successed. The only thing you need to do just is memorizing all the FLYDUMPS Cisco 640-460 exam questions and answers. There are number of IT certifications popular today, on account of their market potential in the field of Information technology. Cisco 640-460 exam is one of these popular certifications which remain the preference of all IT professionals who want to improve their career opportunities.

QUESTION 101
Please match the description to the signaling type it corresponds to. (1)events that occur on the trunk, including seizure, wink, and answer (2)tones such as ringing or busy and announcements such as “no longer in service” (3)digits dialed or called party number that can be sstem-specific or variant-specific (I) Address Signaling (II)Supervisory Signaling (III)Informational Signaling
A. (I)-(3);(II)-(2);(III)-(1)
B. (I)-(1);(II)-(2);(III)-(3)
C. (I)-(3);(II)-(1);(III)-(2) PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
D. (I)-(1);(II)-(3);(III)-(2)
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 102
Which ephone-dn type does the picture represent?

A. shared ephone-dn
B. overlaid ephone-dn
C. two ephone-dns with one number
D. single-line ephone-dn
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 103
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company has successfully installed the CUE module in its router’s chassis. Which two configuration items are necessary for the module to function properly?
A. You need assign a default gateway to the service module
B. You need use the ip numbered command to save the subnet PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
C. You need create a subnet that appears in all of the routing tables to make the module reachable.
D. The interface service engine needs to have an IP address that is on the same subnet as the service module.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 104
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company is trying to configure MoH for their Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. What are two possible problems with this configuration? HHTrenton(config)#telephony-service HHTrenton(config-telephony)#moh minuet.au HHTrenton(config-telephony)#multicast moh 224.10.16.4 port 2000 route 10.10.29.17 10.10.29.33 HHTrenton(config-telephony)#exit HHTrenton(config)#telephony-service HHTrenton(config-telephony)#moh.rockin.au HHTrenton(config-telephony)#multicast moh 224.10.16.4 port 2001 HHTrenton(config-telephony)#exit
A. The second multicast entry does not have a route listed.
B. The ip-source address command has not been configured
C. IP phones do not support multicast at 224.x.x.x addresses.
D. You must disable the use of the first moh file with the no moh command before configuring the second file
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 105
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. Your company has a few slow links in its voice and data network. Which two techniques can be used to reduce delay in voice transmission?
A. Framerelay
B. buffering voice packets
C. fragmentation of large packets
D. compression of IP, RTP, and UDP headers
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 106
You are CCNA VOICE associate in PassGuide.com. PassGuide is setting up Call Transfer for its Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express solution. PassGuide uses 5-digit extensions and wants to transfer calls outside the network to the CEO’s home. The CEO’s telephone number is 877-666-3333. Which configuration command will allow this to occur?
A. SBB(config)#transfer-pattern .T
B. SBB(config-telephony-service)#transfer-pattern .T PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
C. SBB(config-telephony-service)#transfer-pattern 8776663333
D. SBB(config-ephone-dn)#transfer-pattern 8776663333
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
LAB This task requires you to access the cisco Unified Communication 500 Series GUI to configure it per the given requirements as stated in the scenario. From the choices on the left you may select Scenario, Cisco Unified Communication Server (CUC) Device, or Topology. The Scenario link provides the details of the task to be accomplished. The Topology link displays the network. To get access to UC500. click on the PC shown in the topology or you can click on the CUC Device button on the left. You have been asked to implement an SBCA solution for a stratup company that has two technical support staff. The IP Phone use 4 digit extensions starting with 5001. Using the information in tables 1 and 2, configure the following: 1.Configure the AA & Voicemail features 2.Add the two IP Phones with extensions/user given in table 2 including Voicemail. 3.Configure Hunt Group so that all incoming PSTN calls always go to extension 5001. If extension 5001 is not available, route the call to extension 5002. If both extensions are busy or unavailable then send the call to Voicemail. About this question, we do not have proper answer, if you have then please contact us.

A. Pending
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108
Exhibit
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 109
Which protocol is used to inform the IP phone of its voice VLAN ID?
A. Cisco keepalives
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Cisco VLAN Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
What protocol does a Cisco IP phone use to indicate to the switch how much power is needed?
A. PoE
B. CDP
C. VTP
D. cRTP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 111
What protocol is used to monitor and provide control information about the quality of an RTP session?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 640-460
A. UDP
B. RTP
C. NTP
D. RTCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
What device is responsible for converting analog voice packets from traditional voice formats to IP packets?
A. MGCP gateway
B. H.323 gateway
C. Media Termination Point
D. Digital signal processor
E. Transcoder
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Exhibit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 114
LAB
Instructions:
To configure the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express click on the console host icon that is connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express by a serial console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line). You can click on the buttons below to view the different windows. Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar. The “Tab” key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system.
Scenario:
You are required to manually configure a Cisco Unified Unified Communications Manager
Express to support two IP phones with directory numbers starting with 5001.
The phones need to be configured as dual-line phones as per the following table:
The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express should be configured as a DHCP and TFTP server.
The IP phones should obtain their IP addresses via DHCP in the range 10.3.130.10 –

10.3.130.254. IP addresses in the range 10.3.130.1 to 10.3.130.9 should be excluded.
The IP phones are connected to an EtherSwitch module, interface GigabitEthernet1/0 on a Cisco 2811
router as per the topology diagram. The voice VLAN ID is 130 and default router for the IP phones is

10.3.130.1.
The EtherSwitch module has been preconfigured and is not configurable.
You are also required to configure a second directory number 5010 as a shared directory number on line 2
of each IP phone.

Topology:

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Cisco 640-460 Certification Material, Best Quality Cisco 640-460 Exam Sale

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QUESTION 85
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)
A. Usedejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Fragment data packets
D. Prioritize voice packets

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 86
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describes a function of RTCP?
A. RTCP provides encryption, message authentication and integrity, and anti-replay service for voice streams.
B. RTCP uses even-numbered UDP ports in the range 16,384-32,767 to transport voice payloads
C. RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow
D. RTCP caches an RTP packet’s Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers in the routers at each end of a link, resulting in lower bandwidth demand for subsequent RTP packets.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88
Which two of the following VoIP gateway platforms are considered to be Integrated Services Routers (ISRs)? (Choose 2.)
A. Cisco 2600XM Series
B. Cisco 2800 Series
C. Cisco 3700 Series
D. Cisco 3800 Series

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 89
In a Cisco UCM single-site deployment, what is the maximum number of IP phones that can register with a UCM cluster?
A. 2500
B. 7500
C. 10,000
D. 30,000
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 90
In a Cisco UCM multisite WAN with centralized call-processing deployment model, what redundancy feature should be configured on remote site routers to provide basic IP telephony services in the event of a WAN outage?
A. AAR
B. SRST
C. CAC

D. V3PN
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 91
Which option cannot be configured using Cisco Configuration Assistant?
A. voice VLAN only
B. voice and data VLANs
C. script selection for theAutoAttendant
D. SIP trunk to an ITSP

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which four of the following are Cisco-supported IP telephony deployment models?
A. Single site
B. Multisite with centralized call processing
C. Clustering over the IP WAN
D. Multisite with distributed call processing

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 93
Identify two gateway supplementary services. (Choose 2.)
A. Hold
B. DTMF relay
C. Transfer
D. Transcoding

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 94
According to the G.114 recommendation, the maximum one-way delay for voice should ideally not exceed how much delay?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 250 ms
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
did not have question?!?!?!?!
A. national destination code
B. station code
C. country code
D. subscriber number
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96
Identify the preferred voice quality measurement approach for VoIP networks.
A. MOS
B. PESQ
C. QRT
D. PSQM
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
Which method of fax relay uses a store-and-forward approach?
A. T.30
B. T.37
C. T.38
D. Cisco Fax Relay
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What codec is required for fax pass-through and/or modem pass-through?
A. G.711
B. G.723
C. G.729
D. G.729ab
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99
Identify three quality issues that can result because of a lack of network bandwidth. (Choose 3.)
A. Jitter
B. Impedance
C. Delay
D. Packet loss

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 100
What protocol is used to communicate between a DSP farm configured on an IOS router and a Cisco Unified Communications Manager server?
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
What is the Layer 2 overhead (in bytes) for Frame Relay traffic?
A. 3 bytes
B. 5 bytes
C. 6 bytes
D. 18 bytes
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 102
What are the functions of an H.323 gateway?
A. Converts an alias address to an IP address
B. Responds to bandwidth requests and modifications
C. Transmits and receives G.711 PCM-encoded voice
D. Performs translation between audio, video, and data formats

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 103
Which call control model does MGCP use?
A. Distributed
B. Centralized
C. Ad hoc
D. Hybrid “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 53

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104
Which command displays a count of successful and unsuccessful control commands?
A. showmgcp calls
B. showmgcp statistics
C. showmgcp
D. debugmgcp statistics

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 105
Identify four SIP servers. (Choose 4.)
A. Registrar
B. Gateway
C. Redirect
D. Location
E. Proxy

Correct Answer: ACDE QUESTION 106
The call leg and the dial peers are both logical connections used to complete an end-to-end call.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 107
A call leg is a virtual connection that is set up and torn down before the dial peer is established.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 54
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
The call leg and the dial peer are both physical connections used to complete an end-to-end call.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 109
Which of the following is not the function provided by a switching system in a traditional telephony network?
A. call setup
B. call supervision
C. customer IDs and telephone numbers
D. codec processing

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
Which two of the following signaling protocols are peer-to-peer protocols? (Choose two)
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 111
Case Study#1
Instructions:
This task requires you to access the Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series GUI to configure it per the
given requirements as stated in the scenario.

From the choices on the left you may select Scenario, Cisco Unified Communications Server (CUC)
Device, or Topology. The Scenario link provides the details of the task to be accomplished. The Topology
link displays the network. To get access to UC500, click on the PC shown in the Topology or you can click
on the CUC Device button on the left.

Scenario:
You have been asked to implement an SBCA solution for a startup company that has two technical support
staff. The lP Phones use 4 digit extensions starting with 5001. Using the information in tables 1 and 2,
configure the following

1.
Configure the AA & Voicemail features

2.
Add the two IP Phones with extensions/users given in table 2 including Voicemail.

3.
Configure Hunt Group so that all incoming PSTN calls always go to extension 5001. If extension 5001 is not available, route the call to extension 500: If both extensions are busy or unavailable then send the call to Voicemail

Table1
Username Cisco Password Cisco Voicemail 5111 Auto Attendant 5000 Hunt Group Pilot 5010
Table2

Phone Primary Ext. LastName FirstName UserID 00115C0E5EDA 5001 (Phone1I Doe John Jdoe 003094C3 D18C 5002 (Phone2) Brown Jane jbrown CUC Device: Topology:

A. Pending
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 112
Case Study# 2 Instructions: To configure the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express click on the console host icon that is connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express by a serial console cable (shown in the diagram as a dashed black line).
You can click on the buttons below to view the different windows. Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar. The “Tab” key and most commands that use the “Control” or “Escape” keys are not supported and not necessary to complete this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system.

Scenario:
You are required to manually configure a Cisco Unified Unified Communications Manager
Express to support two IP phones with directory numbers starting with 5001.
The phones need to be configured as dual-line phones as per the following table:
The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express should be configured as a DHCP and TFTP
server.

The IP phones should obtain their IP addresses via DHCP in the range 10.3.130.10 –
10.3.130.254. IP addresses in the range 10.3.130.1 to 10.3.130.9 should be excluded. The IP phones are connected to an EtherSwitch module, interface GigabitEthernet1/0 on a Cisco 2811 router as per the topology diagram. The voice VLAN ID is 130 and default router for the IP phones is 10.3.130.1.
The EtherSwitch module has been preconfigured and is not configurable.
You are also required to configure a second directory number 5010 as a shared directory number
on line 2 of each IP phone.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?
A. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 31
B. time slots 1 to 32
C. time slots 1 to 15, and 17 to 31
D. timeslots to 15, and 17 to 32
E. timeslots to 31
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79

Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN?
A. bits 0,1
B. bits 0,1,2
C. bits 2, 3,4 D. bits 5, 6, 7
E. Bits 6, 7

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
These three-class policies use MQC tools whenever possible. Which of the policies will effectively provision for IP telephony traffic being carried over a 768 kb/s Frame Relay PVC using Cisco recommended best-practice parameters?
A. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 960
B. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 768000 7680 0 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
C. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 compress header ip rtp class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 fragment frfl2 960 service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
D. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE
priority percent 70
class CALL-SIGNALING
bandwidth percent 5
!
policy-map HQC-FRTS-768
class class-default
shape average 729600 7296 0
service-policy WAN-EDGE
!
interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point
frame-relay interface-dlci 102
ip rtp header-compression
class FR-HAP-CLASS-768
!
map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768
service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768
frame-relay fragment 960

E. policy-map WAN-EDGE class VOICE priority percent 33 class CALL-SIGNALING bandwidth percent 5 ! policy-map HQC-FRTS-768 class class-default shape average 729600 7296 0 compress header ip rtp service-policy WAN-EDGE ! interface Serial2/0.12 point-to-point frame-relay interface-dlci 102 class FR-HAP-CLASS-768 ! map-class frame-relay FR-HAP-CLASS-768 service-policy output HQC-FRTS-768 frame-relay fragment 640

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard?
A. !
B. +
C. *
D. .
E. ?
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 82
How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec?
A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled.
B. When the TGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.
C. When the OGW detects the CED tone from the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled.
D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 83
According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, cRTP is recommended on which link speed?
A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s
B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s
C. lower than or equal to 1.544 Mb/s
D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s
E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 84
An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event?
A. Station Media Port List message
B. Station Set Ringer message
C. Station Stop Tone message
D. Station Start Media Transmission message
E. Station Open Receive Channel message
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones.
B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones.
C. VAD is disabled.
D. VAD is enabled.
E. NLP is disabled. F NLP is enabled.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 86 PS：由于原CCIE语音群已满请大家转到新 CCIE-QQ(500人)群：53357075 —王Sir

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
You are deploying a new Cisco Unified Communications solution that utilizes a centralized call processing model. Which method of CAC is recommended for this type of solution?
A. RSVP-based
B. gatekeeper-based
C. CUBE-based
D. locations-based

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway?
A. show call active voice brief
B. show voip rtp connections
C. show voice dsp detailed
D. show voice call summary
E. show policy-map interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89

Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct?
A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover
D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.)
A. FXS
B. E&MTypel
C. E&MTypell
D. E&MTypelV
E. FXO

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 91
When using DNS, what does the TC bit indicate?
A. The total response size was greater than 512 bytes, and the data that does not fit was required CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0
B. The DNS response was less than 512 bytes, and the data required padding.
C. The packet was greater than 1024 bytes, and the data was possibly damaged.
D. The pointer to the RRset that will provide the correct data due to possible damage

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 92
Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified from the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?
A. server name
B. server IP address
C. DNS domain D. SIP proxy domain
E. enable presence

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours
E. 48 hours

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What will occur if a video bridge is not available during a video call setup on Cisco Unified Communications Manager using the Intelligent Bridge Selection feature?
A. The video call will fail, and the caller will receive a busy tone.
B. The video call will succeed, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will use the default video image.
C. The video call will fail and will be forwarded to voice mail.
D. The video call will fall back to an audio-only call.
E. The video call will fail, and the caller will hear a message.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 95
Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end-to- end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco RTP
B. H.245 signal
C. H.245 alphanumeric
D. RTP-NTE
E. H.225 Notify
F. in-band voice

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 96
What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages for a Cisco Unity Connection user?
A. 2 MB
B. 4MB
C. 10 MB
D. 14 MB
E. 20 MB
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 97
Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio streams?
A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.
C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold.
D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
When a call is being established on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager to inform the gateway where to send RTP traffic?
A. MDCX
B. RTPX
C. CRCX
D. NTFY
E. RQNT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 99

Refer to the exhibit. When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of 2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, from highest to lowest priority?
A. II,III, IV
B. II,IV, III,I
C. III,IV,II,I
D. III, II, IV,I
E. II, III, IV, I

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 100
CCIE WRITTEN v 3.0

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission?
A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN
D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN
E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101
On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway with a voice ISDN PRI connection to the PSTN, which two PSTN signals are processed locally by the gateway? (Choose two.)
A. MGCP endpoint configuration
B. T1 framing and line code
C. ISDNQ.921
D. ISDNQ.931
E. ISDN call setup

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 102
A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 700
D. 1000
E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect? (Choose three)
A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both.
B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups.
C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL.
D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group.
E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines which MOH server is used to play music to the held device.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 104
Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service
D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine
E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent
F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 105
Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct?
A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech
B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay.
C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay.
D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed.
E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 106
When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS WAN.
B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.
C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resides must be enabled as a CE device.
D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.
E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement-based CAC.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 107
An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway?
A. No Route To Destination
B. Normal Call Clearing
C. Subscriber Absent
D. User Busy
E. Network Busy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 108
Which three statements are correct with regard to the Certificate Trust List file? (Choose three.)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. It is signed using the administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key, and role information.
D. It is created by the CTL client on the administrator workstation.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 109

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QUESTION 176
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on source address
D. provides session state information based on destination address
E. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 177
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?
A. IDS logs IP address information for hosts being attacked
B. IDS logs user information from an attacking host
C. IDS captures packets from an attacking host
D. IDS logs IP address information from an attacking host

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 178
LAB

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Answer: Check certifyme eEngine, Download from Member Center
QUESTION 179
As an alternative design in the SAFE SMR small network campus module, a small filtering router can be placed between the rest of the network and which devices?
A. Layer 2 switches
B. management stations
C. corporate users
D. routers

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 180
What signature actions can be configured on an IDS Sensor in the SAFE SMR medium network design? Choose two.
A. UDP reassembly
B. none
C. IP log
D. total reassembly

Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 181
Which of the following is not a SAFE guideline to proactively mitigate Code Red attacks?
A. host intrusion prevention system
B. network-based application recognition
C. antivirus
D. access control

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 182
What are the two options in the SAFE SMR midsize network design for WAN connections? Choose two.
A. IPSec VPN tunnel connections
B. only frame relay connections
C. private WAN connections
D. ATM connections

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 183
How does Java applet filtering distinguish between trusted and untrusted applets?
A. examines the applet for suspicious code
B. relies on a list of applets that you designate as hostile
C. relies on a list of applets that you designate as friendly
D. relies on a list of external sites that you designate as friendly

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 184
Which two are design alternatives in the SAFE SMR midsize network design corporate Internet module? Choose two.
A. place a URL filtering server on the public services segment
B. eliminate the router between the firewall and the campus module
C. set up a small filtering router between the management stations and the rest of the network
D. eliminate HIDS

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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CheckPoint, CheckPoint Certification

CheckPoint 156-215 Dumps, Download Latest CheckPoint 156-215 Exam Cost Download Online Store

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QUESTION 224
VPN routing provides a way of controlling how VPN traffic is directed. There are two methods for doing this. Which of these two methods will Route VPN traffic based on the encryption domain behind each Gateway in the community?
A. Dynamic Based VPN
B. Domain Based VPN
C. Static Based VPN
D. Route Based VPN
E. Routing Based VPN

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 225
Study the diagram and answer the question below. What rule would allow access from your local ActualTests.com network using FTP service with User Authentication as a method of authentication?

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 119 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. 5
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
E. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 226
Which of the following is true regarding SmartDirectory (LDAP) Groups? Select all the correct answers.
ActualTests.com
A. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be grouped logically
B. SmartDirectory (LDAP) groups are created in order classify users within certain group types
C. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be created with SmartView Monitor GUI
D. SmartDirectory (LDAP) users can be grouped dynamically according to a dynamic filter
E. Once SmartDirectory (LDAP) groups are created, they can be applied in various policy rules
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 227
What will be the consequence of disabling TCP state check in the IPS tab?

ActualTests.com
A. This will boost your overall Firewall performance
B. This will disable your IPS
C. This will disable your firewall
D. This will have adverse effect on your Firewall performance
E. This will degrade your overall Firewall performance

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 228
You are responsible for the configuration of MegaCorp’s Firewall you need to allow two NA rules to match a connection. Is it possible? Give the best answer
A. Yes it is possible to have the NAT rules which match a connection, but only in using manual NAT (bidirectional NAT)
B. No, it is not possible to have more one NAT rule matching a connection. When the firewall receives a packet belonging to a connection, it compares it against the first rule in the rule base, and then the second rule, and so on. When it finds a rule that matches, it stops checking and applies that rule.
C. Yes, there are always as many active NAT rules as there are connections.
D. Yes it is possible to have two NAT rules which match a connection, but only when using Automatic NAT (Bidirectional NAT)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 229
A third shift Security Administrator configured and installed a new Security Policy early this morning when you arrive he tells you that he has been Receiving complaints that Internet very slow. You suspect the security Gateway virtual memory might be the problem. Which smart console component would you use to verify this?
ActualTests.com
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Monitor
C. This information can only be viewed with fw ctl pstat command from the CLI
D. Eventia Analyzer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 230
Which of the following is NOT true for Clientless VPN?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 123 Checkpoint 156-215-71: Practice Exam
A. The Gateway accepts any encryption method that is proposed by the client and supported in the VPN
B. Secure communication is provided between clients and servers that support HTTP
C. User Authentication is supported
D. The Gateway can enforce the use of strong encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 231
A rule_______ is designed to log and drop nil other communication that does not match another rule.
A. Stealth
B. Cleanup
C. Reject
D. Ann-Spoor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 232
You currently do not have a Check Point software subscription for one of your products. What will happen if you attempt to upgrade the license for this product?
A. The license will be upgraded with a warning
B. It is deleted ActualTests.com
C. It is upgraded with new available features, but cannot be activated
D. The license is not upgraded

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 233
Which could be an appropriate solution for assigning a unique office mode IP address to secure client users?
A. Configure a DHCP server with IP reservation using the information gathered by the utility vpn macutil.
B. Edit $ PWDIA/conf/SCM_ assignment. conf on the management server with the correct user name and office mode ip address
C. Create a DHCP resource with the fixed IP address to use name mapping.
D. Fixed office mode IP can be configured as a user property in smart dash board

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 234
How are cached usernames and passwords cleared from the memory of a R71 Security Gateway?
A. By retrieving LDAP user information using the command fw f etchldap
B. By using the Clear User Cache button in Smart Dashboard
C. Usernames and password only clear from memory after they time out
D. By installing a Security Policy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 235
When you use the Global Properties default settings on R71. Which type of traffic will be dropped?
A. RIP traffic
B. Smart Update connections
C. Outgoing traffic originating from the Security Gateway
D. Firewall logging and ICA key-exchange information ActualTests.com

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 236
URL Filtering Policy ran make exceptions for specific sites by being enforced?
A. Only for specific sources and destinations
B. For all traffic, except on specific sources and destinations
C. For all traffic, except blocked sites
D. For all traffic, There are no exceptions

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 237
You are the Security Administrate for university The University’s FTP servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP command causes the FTP servers to malfunction Upgrading the FTP servers is not an optional this time. Where you can define blocked FTP commands passing through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. IPS > Protections > By Protocol > IPS Software Blade > Application Intelligence > FTP > FTP advanced protections>FTP Commands
B. FTP Service Object > Advanced > Blocked FTP Commands
C. Global Properties > Firewall > Security Server > Allowed FTP Commands
D. Rule Base > Service Field > Edit Properties

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 238
Spoofing is a method of:
A. Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.
B. Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through port address Translation.
C. Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address
D. Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 239
You plan to migrate a Windows NG with Application Intelligence (Ai) R55 SmartCener server to R71. You also plan to upgrade four VPN-1 pro Gateways at remote offices and one local VPN-1 pro gateway at your company’s head quarter to R71. The management server configuration must be migrated. What is the correct procedure to migrate the configuration?
A. 1. Upgrade the remote gateway via smartUpdate.
2. upgrade the security management server, using the R71 CD
B. 1. From the R71 CD-ROM on the security management server, select Upgrade
2.
Reboot after installation and upgrade all licenses via SmartUpdate

3.
Reinstall all gateways using R 70 and install a policy
C. 1. Copy the $PWDIR\ conf directory from the security management server
2.
Save directory contents to another file server

3.
Uninstall the security management server, and install anew security management server

4.
Move the saved directory contents to $ PWDIR\conf replacing the default installation files

5.
Reinstall all gateways using R71 and install a security policy
D. 1. From the R71 CD- ROM in the security management server, select export
2.
Install R 70 on a new PC using the option installation using imported configuration

3.
Reboot after installation and update all licenses via smartUpdate

4.
Upgrade software on all five remote Gateway via SmartUpdate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 240
When john first installed the system, he forgets to configure DNS servers on the security Gateway. How could John configure DNS servers now that his security gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, than select domain name servers
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwn, than select system configuration and domain name servers.
C. Login to the smart dashboard, edit the firewall gate object, select the tab interface, than domain name servers
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select domain name servers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 241
You have an NGX R65 have gateway running on Security platform. The Gateway also serves as a Policy Server. When you run patch add CD from security Gateway R71 CD-ROM. what does this command allow you to upgrade?
A. Only the R71 Security Gateway
B. Only the patch utility is upgraded using this command
C. All products, except the Policy Server
D. Both the operating system and all Check Point products
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 242
Which of the following explanations best describes the command fw logswitch {-h taeget} {+ 1 -} {oldlog}
A. Display a remote machine’s log-file list.
B. Control Kernel
C. Display protocol Hosts
D. Create a new Log file. The old log has moved
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 243
Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Dynamic encryption

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 244
NAT can be implemented on which of the following lists of objects?
A. Domain network
B. Host network
C. Host user
D. Network, Dynamic Object

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 245
Which security servers can perform authentication task, but CANNOT perform content security tasks?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. HTTPS

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 246
Central license management allows a Security Administrator to perform which of the following functions? 1) Check for expired licenses. 2) Sort licenses and view license properties 3) Attach both R71 Central and Local licenses to a remote module 4) Delete both R71 Local licenses and Central licenses from a remote module 5) Add or remove a license to or from the license repository 6) Attach and/or delete only R71 Central licenses to a remote module (not local licenses)
A. 2.5.&6
B. 2.3.4.&5
C. L 2. 5.& 6
D. 1.2.3.4.&5

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 247
Which smear view tracker selection would most effectively show who installed a security policy blocking all traffic from the corporate network?
A. Custom filter
B. Network and Endpoint tab
C. Management Tab
D. Active tab

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 248
Identify the ports to which the Client authentication daemon listens default?
A. 256, 600
B. 80, 256
C. 8080, 529
D. 259, 900

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 249
Select the correct statement about secure internal communication (S|C) certificates, S|C certificates?
A. Increase network security by securing administrative communication with a two factor challenge response authentication.
B. Uniquely identify the machines installed with check point software only. They have the same function as RSA authentication certificates.
C. Are for security Gateways created during the security management server installation. ActualTests.com
D. Can be used for securing internal network communication between the security gateway and an OPSEC device.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 250
What is the syntax for uninstalling a package using newpkg?
A. -s (pathname of package)
B. -u (pathname of package)
C. Newpkg CANNOT be used to install
D. -i (full pathname of package)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 251

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