MCSD, Microsoft

[2017 New Microsoft Updated] Best Microsoft MCSD 70-487 Dumps Certification New Exam Video Questions Developing Windows Azure and Web Services (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Sep 13, 2017
Q&As: 113

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the new data source.
Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. LINQ to XML
B. ADO.NET Entity Framework
C. ADO.NET DataSets
D. WCF Data Services
70-487 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Errors occasionally occur when saving data using the FlightInfoContext ADO.NET Entity Framework context. Updates to the data are being lost when an error occurs. You need to ensure that data is still saved when an error occurs by retrying the operation. No more than five retries should be performed.
Which code segment should you use as the body of the SaveChanges() method in the FlightInfoContext.es file?
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70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are adding a new REST service endpoint to the FlightDataController controller. It returns flights from the consolidated data sources only for flights that are late. You need to write a LINQ to Entities query to extract the required 70-487 dumps  data. Which code segment should you use? 70-487 dumps

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D is right because you send result as REST so if you use “AsQueryable” the result is deferred to the next enumeration of your result.
D is not optimized but will works.
A will break at runtime.
Credits to Rem
QUESTION 4
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION NO: 5
An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide to move
schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses their concerns about
having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still decide to implement your off-schedule
shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
70-487 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Who is ultimately responsible for an employee’s success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee’s mentor
C. the employee’s manager
D. the employee’s team leader
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
70-487 vce Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 8
Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System produces
performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the phone, performing wrap
up work, and not available. Reports also show the number of calls taken and the average talk-time
 per agent. Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization’s performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has theleast :not available” time
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the
morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
70-487 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What should be addressed in a support center’s marketing plan?
A. the support center’s budget requirements
B. the support center’s staffing requirements
C. the support center’s implementation timelines
D. the support center’s role in the corporate vision
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods? (Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
 D. individual assessment
70-487 dumps Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals? (Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by their
company.
70-487 pdf Answer: C

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CCNA, Cisco

[2017 New Cisco Updated] New Discount Cisco Certified 200-125 Dumps CCNA (v3.0) PDF Certification With The CCNA Video Series Knowledge And Skills (From Google Drive)

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Which material is useful for the CCNA 200-125 dumps? “CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 200-125 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New discount Cisco Certified 200-125 dumps CCNA (v3.0) pdf certification with the CCNA video series knowledge and skills. Although there are other online Cisco 200-125 dumps on the market, but the Pass4itsure’s Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-125.html dumps  are the best. 

Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 966

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1. What are three roles in HFM security? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Run Allocation
B. Delete Journals
C. Create Unbalanced Journals
D. Save System Report on Server
200-125 exam Answer: ACD
2. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are Export Data Criteria options?
A. Scenario, Year, View, Entity, Accounts
B. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Value, ICP
C. Scenario, Year, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: A
3. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are valid Import Data Method options?
A. Replace, Merge, Aggregate
B. Merge, Accumulate, Remove
C. Accumulate, Replace, Clear
D. Merge, Replace, Accumulate
200-125 dumps Answer: D
4. You are extracting information using Extended Analytics. Which list shows all the dimensions that allow
for multiple members?
A. Scenario, Year, Period, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
B. Scenario, Year, Period, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
C. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Value, Account, ICP, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: D
5. You are performing a data extract using the Extract Data module. From which three dimensions can
you make multiple selections? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: BCD
6. Extended Analytics uses which format for the extracted information?
A. ASCII File
B. Star Schema
C. Snow Flake Diagram
D. Comma Delimited File
Answer: B
7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB
8. What are three available methods for the HFM HAL adapter? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Import Data
B. Import Journals C.
Export Journals D.
Open Application
E. Set Logon Information
200-125 exam Answer: ADE
9. What types of documents can be selected as related content in Financial Reporting? (SELECT
THREE)
A. An Interactive Reporting Report
B. Any web page
C. A Web Analysis Report D. An HFM Web Form
E. A Planning form
Answer: ABC
10. Which two must be selected to enable the Data Audit feature for selected accounts? (SELECT TWO)
A. DataAuditTrail in the ApplicationSettings
B. Data Auditing in the Data Audit Window
C. EnableDataAudit on the selected Accounts
D. Y for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
E. O for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
Answer: CE
11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
200-125 dumps Answer: B
12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.
D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C
13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
Answer: ABD
14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
TWO)
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: CD
15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD
16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only
C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
200-125 exam Answer: D
17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE
18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C
19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
THREE)
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: ACD
20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?
A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C
21.Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause
of the problem?
200-125 dumps

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
22.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
23.Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port
security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
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CCNA Security, Cisco

[2017 New Cisco Updated] The Most Effective Cisco 210-260 Dumps IINS Exam Update 2017 with CCNA Security Video Series Is What You Need To Take (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Updated: Sep 04, 2017
Q&As: 275

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Question: 14
Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A – Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B – Both come into being by operation of law.
C – Both are monitored by the courts.
D – Both are required to file income tax returns.
210-260 exam Answer: D
Question: 15
A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year:
Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A – $23,000
B – $45,000
C – $52,000
D – $95,000
Answer: A
Question: 16
A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint
of providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best
choice of trustee?
A – The grantor of the trust
B – The grantor’s 70-year-old father
C – The grantor’s 22-year-old son
D – A bank or trust company
210-260 dumps Answer: D
Question: 17
A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter 10,000
What amount must be brought back to the man’s estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the
calculation of his federal estate taxes?
A – 0
B – $ 90,000
C – $280,000
D – $320,000
Answer: A
Question: 18
A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his
descendants are as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower’s will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his
children, per stripes, which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will
receive?
A – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B – $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C – $ 75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D – $ 60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
210-260 pdf Answer: A
Question: 19
Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate
planner?
A – Contracts
B – Compatibility
C – Consistency
D – Compensation
Answer: D
Question: 20
A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when
the gift was made in 1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift
tax because of the applicable credit amount. The fair market value of the property at the father’s
death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3 months after her father’s death for
$200,000. She had a gain of
A – 0
B – $130,000
C – $160,000
D – $200,000
210-260 vce Answer: A
Question: 21
The Decedent, T, died this year. The facts concerning T estate are:
Gross estate $2,700,000
Marital deduction 900,000
Charitable deduction 110,000
Gifts made after 1976 130,000
State death taxes payable 165,000
What is T taxable estate?
A – $1,285,000
B – $1,395,000
C – $1,525,000
D – $1,655,000
Answer: C
Question: 22
When the owner of a closely held business dies, the payment of a portion of the federal estate tax
may be deferred for a period of several years if the estate otherwise qualifies under the provisions
of IPC Section 6166. Which of the following statements concerning this deferral of federal estate
tax is correct?
A – The interest rate on the deferred tax is determined by the prime rate in effect on the date of
death.
B – The interest on the unpaid estate tax is payable over the first 10 years, after which the tax
plus interest on the balance is payable in equal installments for the last 5 years.
C – To qualify for the tax deferral, the closely held business must represent more than 50 percent
of the value of the decedent’s adjusted gross estate.
D – Under certain circumstances, the estate will forfeit its right to tax deferral, and all the
remaining unpaid estate tax will become due and payable immediately.
210-260 exam Answer: D

Question: 23 Which of the following could be used by Duane to attempt hiding files within the file
system?
A.Attrib
B.HideNSeek
C.Chgrp
D.Alternate Data Stream
Answer: D
Question: 24.Which of the following 210-260 dumps penetration framework is Open Source and offers features that are similar to some of its rival commercial tools?
A.CANVAS
B.CORE IMPACT
C.METASPLOIT
D.DEEP HOLE
Answer: C
Question: 25.Software Restriction Policies,if implemented correctly,can help protect against what kinds of threats?
Choose two.
A.Trojans
B.Malware
C.Spam
D.Smurf Attacks
Answer: A,B
Question: 26.If the DS Client software has been installed on Windows 95,Windows 98,and NT 4 comptuers,what
setting of the LanMan Authentication level should be applied to counteract LanMan hash sniffing and
offline cracking? Choose the best Answer.
A.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM & NTML
B.Send NTLM only
C.Send LM & NTLM responses
D.Send NTLM v2/Refuse LM
210-260 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
Question: 27. Ping utilities can be used for basic network connectivity test; the ping command sends out an ICMP
Echo Request packets and the destination host will reply with an ICMP Echo Reply packets if the host is
alive.However,in some cases the host might be alive and responses are not received.What is the most
likely cause of such behavior?
A.The packet suffers from time exceeded in transit
B.The packet did not reach the destination gateway
C.A filtering device is dropping the packets
D.The remote device OS does not support the ping command.
Answer: C
Question: 28. When doing a Half-Open Scan what packet type would be expected as a response if the port being
probed is closed?
A.FIN
B.ACK
C.RST
D.RST/ACK
210-260 vce Answer: D
Question: 29. Mae i a keen system administration; she constantly monitors the mailing list for best practices that are
being used out in the field.On the servers that she maintains,Mae has renamed the administrator account
to another name to avoid abuse from crackers.However,she found out that it was possible using the
sid2user tool to find the new name she used for the administrator account.Mae does not understand; she
has NOT shared this name with anyone.How can this be?What is the most likely reason?
A.Her system have been compromised
B.Renaming the administrator account does not change the SID
C.She has not applied all of the patches
D.Someone social engineered her
Answer: B
Question: 30.What built-in Windows command can be used to help find remote access trojans?Choose the best
Answer. A.Netstat a
B.Ipconfig/displaydns
C.Nbtstat c
D.Netdiag
210-260 exam Answer: A
Question: 31.Under the Windows platform,there is something refered to as Null Session.
Which of the following statements would best describe what a null session consists of?
A.It is a session where zero bytes of traffic have been transferred
B.It is a session where erroneous commands are being used showing the a lack of knowledge of the user
connected.
C.It is a remote session that is established anonymously to a window machine
D.It is a anonymous FTP session under the Windows platform
Answer: C
Question: 32.Why is tunneling-based trojan software so useful for hackers if it is installed inside a
corporate network?Choose the best 210-260 dumps Answer.
A.Tunneling software uses ports that are not well knwon,eg.12345
B.Stateful inspection firewalls can only filter Server ports of 1-1023
C.It makes network penetration trivial the tunneling occurs using Whatever port(s) the firewall is
configured to allow
D.Anti-trojan software do not have signatures for tunneling trojans,therefore it is easy to have end-users
install tunneling trojans.
Answer: C
Question: 33.On a Linux system,which of the following files would contain the list of user
accounts,their shell,and their home directories?
A.useradd
B.shadow
C.passwd
D.group
Answer: C

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MCSA, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated] First-hand Microsoft SQL Server 70-764 Dumps PDF Exam Sample Questions Free Download for MCSA Video Series (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure (beta)
Updated: Aug 20, 2017
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION NO: 1
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He has been sent to the California unit to
train the members of the incident response team. As a demo project he asked members of the
incident response team to perform the following actions:
Remove the network cable wires.
Isolate the system on a separate VLAN
Use a firewall or access lists to prevent communication into or out of the system.
Change DNS entries to direct traffic away from compromised system
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process includes the above actions?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Recovery
70-764 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam, a novice computer user, works primarily from home as a medical professional. He just
bought a brand new Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. After about two months
of working on his new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Adam
uses antivirus software, anti-spyware software, and keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Adam finds that his computer is even
more noticeably slow. He also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen, but they quickly
disappear. He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on the Internet.
Adam notices that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available. Since his hard drive
is a 200 GB hard drive, Adam thinks this is very odd.
Which of the following is the mostly likely the cause of the problem?
A. Computer is infected with the stealth kernel level rootkit.
B. Computer is infected with stealth virus.
C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following types of attacks is only intended to make a computer resource unavailable
to its users?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Replay attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Land attack
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following types of attack can guess a hashed password?
A. Brute force attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Teardrop attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536
bytes to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Jolt
C. Fraggle
D. Teardrop
 C. Computer is infected with the Stealth Trojan Virus.
D. Computer is infected with the Self-Replication Worm.
70-764 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Adam has installed and configured his wireless network. He has enabled numerous security
features such as changing the default SSID, enabling WPA encryption, and enabling MAC filtering
on his wireless router. Adam notices that when he uses his wireless connection, the speed is
sometimes 16 Mbps and sometimes it is only 8 Mbps or less. Adam connects to the management
utility wireless router and finds out that a machine with an unfamiliar name is connected through
his wireless connection. Paul checks the router’s logs and notices that the unfamiliar machine has
the same MAC address as his laptop.
Which of the following attacks has been occurred on the wireless network of Adam?
A. NAT spoofing
B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC spoofing
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following is a technique of using a modem to automatically scan a list of telephone
numbers, usually dialing every number in a local area code to search for computers, Bulletin board
systems, and fax machines?
A. Demon dialing
B. Warkitting
C. War driving
D. Wardialing
70-764 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Network mapping provides a security testing team with a blueprint of the organization. Which of
the following steps is NOT a part of manual network mapping?
A. Gathering private and public IP addresses
B. Collecting employees information
C. Banner grabbing
D. Performing Neotracerouting
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following statements are true about tcp wrappers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. tcp wrapper provides access control, host address spoofing, client username lookups, etc.
B. When a user uses a TCP wrapper, the inetd daemon runs the wrapper program tcpd instead of
running the server program directly.
C. tcp wrapper allows host or subnetwork IP addresses, names and/or ident query replies, to be
used as tokens to filter for access control purposes.
D. tcp wrapper protects a Linux server from IP address spoofing.
70-764 exam Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following types of attacks is the result of vulnerabilities in a program due to poor
programming techniques?
A. Evasion attack
B. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
C. Ping of death attack
D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the
security of www.we-are-secure.com. He finds that the We-are-secure server is vulnerable to
attacks. As a countermeasure, he suggests that the Network Administrator should remove the IPP
printing capability from the server. He is suggesting this as a countermeasure against
A. IIS buffer overflow
B. NetBIOS NULL session
C. SNMP enumeration
D. DNS zone transfer
70-764 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of
Internet forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets
automatically executed and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Non persistent
B. Document Object Model (DOM)
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following applications is an example of a data-sending Trojan?
A. SubSeven
B. Senna Spy Generator
C. Firekiller 2000
D. eBlaster
70-764 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security
ofwww.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters =’or”=’ as a username
and successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site.
The we-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a .
A. Dictionary attack
B. SQL injection attack
C. Replay attack
D. Land attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following statements are true about worms?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Worms cause harm to the network by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always
corrupt or modify files on a targeted computer.
B. Worms can exist inside files such as Word or Excel documents.
C. One feature of worms is keystroke logging.
D. Worms replicate themselves from one system to another without using a host file.
70-764 vce Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:

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MCP Microsoft Specialist, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated]Helpful Microsoft Azure 70-533 Dumps Practice Test Questions Guaranteed Microsoft Certification for Full Microsoft Video Series [2017 New Updated (From Google Drive)

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Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 205

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QUESTION 10
To process input key-value pairs, your mapper needs to lead a 512 MB data file in memory.
What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Serialize the data file, insert in it the JobConf object, and read the data into memory in the configure
method of the mapper.
B. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the map method of the
mapper.
C. Place the data file in the DataCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of the
mapper.
D. Place the data file in the DistributedCache and read the data into memory in the configure method of
the mapper.
70-533 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Consider the following two relations, A and B.
Which Pig statement combines A by its first field and B by its second field?
A. C = DOIN B BY a1, A by b2;
B. C = JOIN A by al, B by b2;
C. C = JOIN A a1, B b2;
D. C = JOIN A SO, B $1;
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 12
What is the disadvantage of using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner and distributing your
workload across you cluster?
A. You will not be able to compress the intermediate data.
B. You will longer be able to take advantage of a Combiner.
C. By using multiple reducers with the default HashPartitioner, output files may not be in globally sorted
order.
D. There are no concerns with this approach. It is always advisable to use multiple reduces.
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Multiple reducers and total ordering
If your sort job runs with multiple reducers (either because mapreduce.job.reduces in mapred-site.xml has
been set to a number larger than 1, or because you’ve used the -r option to specify the number of reducers
on the command-line), then by default Hadoop will use the HashPartitioner to distribute records across the
reducers. Use of the HashPartitioner means that you can’t concatenate your output files to create a single
sorted output file. To do this you’ll need total ordering,
Reference: Sorting text files with MapReduce
QUESTION 13
Identify the MapReduce v2 (MRv2 / YARN) daemon responsible for launching application containers and
monitoring application resource usage?
A. ResourceManager
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationMaster
D. ApplicationMasterService
E. TaskTracker
F. JobTracker
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Apache Hadoop YARN ?Concepts&; Applications
QUESTION 14
You have the following key-value pairs as output from your Map task:
(the, 1)
(fox, 1)
(faster, 1)
(than, 1)
(the, 1)
(dog, 1)
How many keys will be passed to the Reducer’s reduce method?
A. Six
B. Five
C. Four
D. Two
E. One
F. Three
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Only one key value pair will be passed from the two (the, 1) key value pairs.
QUESTION 15
What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reducing lets you aggregate values together. A reducer function receives an iterator of input
values from an input list. It then combines these values together, returning a single output value.
All values with the same key are presented to a single reduce task.
Reference: Yahoo! Hadoop Tutorial, Module 4: MapReduce
 QUESTION 16
The activity diagram below shows a simplified order processing procedure. Which of the following
statements is correct for this flow?
(2 Points)
A. The flow is not modelled correctly, since no condition (branch)should be present within a fork.
B. The flow is modelled correctly: the goods branch as well as the export and domestic order branch are
processed in parallel to one another.
C. The flow is not modelled correctly, since the branches for the domestic and export orders must be
consolidated via a diamond symbol.
D. The flow is modelled correctly and the “issue invoice” activity is conducted after the “compile goods”
activity.
70-533 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
For an interview, you have prepared a use case diagram for the system to be specified. You decide to talk
through a use case in detail with the stakeholder. You receive very useful feedback which must now be
documented. Which of the following means of expression is least suitable to document the details of a
single use case? (1 Point)
A. State diagram
B. Activity diagram
C. Natural language
D. Context diagram
E. Class diagram
Correct Answer: D
 QUESTION 18
What does the Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
70-533 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
What does the Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
70-533 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and
MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression
E. All of the above
70-533 pdf Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following
features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in
path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080
70-533 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the
Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
70-533 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater
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CCDP, Cisco

[2017 New Updated From Google Drive] Latest Updated CCDP ARCH v3 300–320 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers Free Download for Cisco Network Service Architectures

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Exam Code: 300-320
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 389

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QUESTION 1
When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
300-320 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is the
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning Tree Protocol but one of
the big advantages of EAPS is
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring defaultgateway redundancy.
300-320  pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin authentication. Extreme
provides a vendor specific attribute ExtremeExtreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
300-320  vce Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 8
An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path tree. This switch over
will be initiated by
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
300-320  exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Exhibit
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host A (10.10.10.100) and
Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
300-320  dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration that allows you to connect
active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet from host A to any of the
switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
300-320 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the Radius and Tacacs
+features.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all attachments are made with
a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring only.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port Translation Mode the
physical Port where the node connects to must be configured as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP address.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
An IP-only IS-IS router (or “IP-only” router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
300-320 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by the BSR towards
all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are activeIt is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.It is send by RP towards all
PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band management port and VLAN.
The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the
switch. If you want the switch to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to
enable ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-320 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 27
How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
300-320 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
300-320 dumps

Correct Answer:

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[2017 New Updated] Download Free Microsoft Azure HDInsight 70-775 Dumps and Beta 70-775 Vce Files for Microsoft Certification Is Your Best Choice on Daliymotion

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Updated: Aug 01, 2017
Q&As: 102

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1.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia When deciding on the players in the lineup, the
coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together. If George starts, Marlene
won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If George is in the starting lineup, who must also start?
A. Marlene or John
B. Dexter or Leanne
C. Dexter or John
D. John or Patricia E.
Marlene or Roger
70-775 exam Answer: D
2.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Which of the following pairs cannot start together?
A. Erwin and Dexter
B. George and John
C. Roger and John
D. John and Bart
E. Patricia and Marlene
Answer: A
3.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from thesecond group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start. The 4 fastest players are:
John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
If Marlene is on the starting lineup, which of the following players will be the first groupplayers who will
also be starting?
A. John
B. John and Dexter
C. John and Bart
D. John, Dexter and Bart
E. John, Erwin and Bart
70-775 pdf Answer: C
4.When the goalie has been chosen, the Smalltown Bluebirds hockey team has a startinglineup that is
selected from two groups:
First Group: John, Dexter, Bart, Erwin
Second Group: Leanne, Roger, George, Marlene, Patricia
When deciding on the players in the lineup, the coach considers the following requirements:
Two players are always chosen from the first group, while three are chosen from the second group.
George will only start if Bart also starts. Dexter and Bart will not start together.
If George starts, Marlene won’t start.
The 4 fastest players are: John, Bart, George and Patricia 3 of the 4 fastest players will always be chosen.
Of the following hockey players, who must start?
A. Patricia
B. John
C. George
D. Marlene
E. Bart
Answer: E
5.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill
doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger.
Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not Melville).
What is the name of the Dragon?
A. Audrey
B. Hamish
C. Melville
D. Rex
E. Dave
70-775 dumps Answer: B
6.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Who is the assistant puppeteer for Melville?
A. Dave
B. Gale
C. Pam
D. Tom
E. Ben
Answer: A
7.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam.
Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is not Jill) is assisted by Tom.
Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
Which chief puppeteer works with Tom?
A. Ben
B. Jill
C. Paul
D. Sue
E. Rex
70-775 exam Answer: A
8.On the popular children’s television show, there are four little animals that make up the Creature
Buddies are digitally animate. Since that means that they can’t make a livestage performance, while the
Creature Buddies are on tour, each is represented by apuppet that is operated by a chief and an assistant
puppeteer.
The Creature Buddies are a: Dragon, Gorilla, Kangaroo, and Tiger.
The Creature’s Names are: Audrey, Hamish, Melville, Rex
The Chief Puppeteers are: Ben, Jill, Paul and Sue
The Assistant Puppeteers are: Dave, Gale, Pam and Tom
Melville isn’t the puppet who is operated by Sue and her assistant Pam. Hamish’s chief puppeteer (who is
not Jill) is assisted by Tom. Ben is in charge of the dragon, but Jill doesn’t have anything to do with the
kangaroo.
Dave is the assistant puppeteer for the tiger. Rex, whose chief is Paul, isn’t the gorilla (who’s name is not
Melville).
With what kind of animal does Gale work?
A. Dragon
B. Gorilla
C. Kangaroo
D. Tiger E.
Lemur
Answer: C
9.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
What table is Stephen playing at, and what is the score at that table?
A. Table 1, 2.5:1.5
B. Table 1, 3:0
C. Table 2, 3:0
D. Table 2, 2.5:1.5
E. Table 3, 2:1
70-775 dumps Answer: C
10.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1,
1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Whose score is highest?
A. Mike
B. Stephen
C. Richie
D. David
E. Lenny
Answer: D
11.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5[note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike.
At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Which player has black pieces and is tied?
A. Mike
B. David
C. Richie
D. Don
E. Terry
70-775 pdf Answer: A
12.A chess tournament is occurring in the local community school, and the players at all fourof the tables
are engaged in their fourth game against their prospective opponents.
The players with white pieces are: David, Gerry, Lenny and Terry
The players with black pieces are: Don, Mike, Richie and Stephen
The scores are 3:0, 2.5:0.5, 2:1, and 1.5:1.5 [note: tied games result in a score of 0.5 points for each
player]
Lenny is playing at the table to the right of Stephen, who has lost all of his games untilnow.
Gerry is playing against Mike. At least one game at table 1 has resulted in a tie.
Richie, who is not in the lead over his opponent, has not been in a tied game.
The player who is using the white pieces at table 4 is Terry, however, the current score attable 4 is not 2:1.
Don is leading his match after his last three games.
Who is the winning player at table 4?
A. Don
B. Terry
C. David
D. Gerry
E. Richie
Answer: A

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CCNP Data Center, Cisco

[2017 New Updated] How to Get Best DCUCD v5.0 642-998 Dumps-PDF in Short Time to Guaranteed 642-998 Study Guide Pass Results Success

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Exam Code: 642-998
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Computing
Updated: Aug 02, 2017
Q&As: 182

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 642-998 Dumps Exam Q&As:

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS ?policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS ?classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
642-998 exam Correct Answer: CFH
QUESTION 2
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
642-998  dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
Which three options are examples of NHRP? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. GLBP
E. OCSP
F. EIGRP
G. MPLS
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which four components would you select to meet a customer requirement of up to 80 Gb/s Ethernet
bandwidth to a Cisco UCS M230 M3 blade server? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco UCS 5108
B. Cisco UCS 2204XP
C. Cisco UCS 6248UP
D. Cisco UCS 5596UP
E. Cisco UCS P81E
F. Cisco UCS 2208XP
G. Cisco UCS 6110XP
H. Cisco UCS VIC 1280
Correct Answer: ACFH
QUESTION 5
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A. federation and VSAN scoping
B. VM-aware discovery and path analysis
C. fabric performance monitoring
D. event lookup
E. VSAN zoning
642-998 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco VM-FEX technology is true?
A. VM-FEX collapses virtual and physical networking infrastructure into a single infrastructure that is fully
aware of the virtual machine locations and networking policies.
B. VM-FEX requires a Cisco VIC CNA and supports only static vNICs and single-OS deployments.
C. VIC CNAs provide software-based switching of traffic to and from virtual machine interfaces.
D. VM-FEX eliminates the need for VMware integration and virtual machine management performed
through the VMware vCenter.
E. The Cisco VICs supports up to 1024 dynamic virtual adapters and interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

642-998 dumps

Give the above configuration example answer the following question.
What is the Server type configured in the above example?
A. B200 M2
B. B250 M2
C. B220 M3
D. B300 M3
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which two options are benefits when you implement server virtualization in your data center? (Choose
two.)
A. No additional operating system license is required.
B. Cost effectiveness is improved.
C. This is a data center virtualization trend.
D. Power consumption is reduced.
E. Configuration of routing protocol is simplified.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
The client’s data center manager has requested the physical weights of the equipment in your Cisco UCS
design along with the power and cooling requirements. Where in cisco.com can you find this information?
A. the product datasheets
B. the Cisco UCS power calculator
C. the Cisco UCS GUI Configuration Guide
D. the Cisco UCS Hardware Installation Guide
E. the Hardware and Software Interoperability Matrix Utility Tool
642-998 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
In the Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers, which option is the first produ
FEX technology?
A. Cisco UCS P81E VIC
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-E Emulex Converged Network Adapter
C. Cisco UCS M61KR-I Intel Converged Network Adapter
D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two features are provided by Cisco Prime NAM? (Choose two.)
A. configuration management of Cisco Nexus and Cisco MDS series de
B. comprehensive analysis of deployed software versions and recomme
C. detailed insight into overlay networks and virtual machine deploymen
D. centralized management of hypervisors such as Microsoft Hyper-V a
E. detailed flow- and packet-based traffic analysis for network administr
F. basic tools for troubleshooting and managing external storage system
642-998 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12
Which three parameters are unaffected by the values on the port channe
channel? (Choose three.)
A. description
B. bandwidth
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
D. LACP port priority
E. MAC address
F. Spanning Tree Protocol
G. service policy
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which tool can you use to evaluate server containment and consolidatio
A. VMware Capacity Planner
B. Device Discovery in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. Observer Infrastructure
D. NetApp OnCommand Balance
642-998 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which option is a characteristic of the data center access layer?
A. endpoints for applications in the data center
B. route redistribution and route summarization
C. provides connectivity for network and application services
D. traffic inspection and route filtering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a vPC domain that contains a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series pair. You plan to implement HSRP.
Which feature must you enable to ensure that forwarding paths are load balanced between two active
gateways?
A. auto-recovery
B. role-priority
C. peer-switch
D. peer-gateway
642-998 dumps Correct Answer: D

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MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps, Microsoft

[2017 New Updated] Helpful Microsoft Exam 70-696 Dumps Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps on Dailymotion Guaranteed Success

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Exam Code: 70-696
Exam Name: Managing Enterprise Devices and Apps
Updated: Jul 08, 2017
Q&As: 86

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70-696

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-696  Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION: 1
Which of the following International Telecommunication Union (ITU) recommendations defines
the standard for store-and-forward fax transmission over IP networks?
A. T.37
B. S.47
C. V.235
D. Q.931
70-696 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Which media protocol is commonly used for Voice over IP (VoIP) solutions?
A. IMP
B. RTMP
C. MGCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
Users are reporting problems with voice delays on telephone calls on the corporate Voice over
IP (VoIP) network. Which of the following is a possible cause of this problem?
A. Large data packets are causing the voice packets to exceed their delay budget.
B. Echo cancellation has been enabled on the voice coders without configuring phase shifting.
C. The destination number is not contained in the local dial plan, forcing the gateway to do a
recursive number lookup.
D. The voice codec is unable to properly compress the voice stream into packets because the
sampling rate has been set too high.
70-696 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in packet-voice networks?
A. Applies differential routing to voice packets
B. Improves encoding performance for voice packets
C. Reduces serialization and propagation delay to voice packets
D. Increases the amount of available bandwidth of voice packets
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Using a T1 circuit to connect a North American company to its European branch, a technician
may choose an E1 carrier trunk. How many total and usable data and/or voice channels can be
configured?
A. 23 channels
B. 24 channels
C. 30 channels
D. 32 channels
70-696 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is a common characteristic of circuit-switched networks?
A. A call uses multiple circuits, releasing them during periods of silence for maximum
efficiency.
B. A call has exclusive use of the entire circuit for the duration of the call but is inherently
expensive.
C. A call can be completed without the need for any signaling because it uses PSTN circuits
instead of TCP/IP.
D. A call has a very robust set of Quality of Service (QoS) options that allows it to overcome
congestion and latency problems.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 7
Which Quality of Service (QoS) technology is used by applications to signal QoS requirements
to the network?
A. DSCP
B. RSVP
C. 802.1P
D. IP Precedence
70-696 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 8
What is the function of a gatekeeper in a converged network?
A. Provides network connectivity for legacy systems
B. Provides admission control and address translation between endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between packet-switched and circuit-switched
networks
Answer: B
QUESTION: 9
What is a function of a gateway in a converged network?
A. Provides Quality of Service (QoS) to converged networks
B. Provides admission translation and address control between IP endpoints
C. Manages calls between three or more endpoints to facilitate multipoint conferencing
D. Performs call setup and address translation between circuit-switched and packet-switched
networks
70-696 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 10
Which International Telecommunication Union (ITU) G Series standard defines PCM voice
coding at 64 Kbps?
A. G.711
B. G.726
C. G.728
D. G.729
Answer: A
QUESTION: 11
Which is a variable delay component in packet-voice networks?
A. Routing-queuing delay
B. Bit-serialization delay
C. End-point processing delay
D. Encoding and compression delay
70-696 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
When a technician connects a North American T1 trunk to a European E1 trunk using a
conversion device, which of the following will result?
A. No connection can be made between E1 and T1.
B. No more than 80 percent of the E1 trunk can be used.
C. The connection will be transparent to the technician.
D. No less than 80 percent of the T1 can be used or the connection will fail.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
A company has complained that its voice quality is poor and would like to switch the codec used
by its on-premise Voice over IP (VoIP) gateway from G.723.1 to G.711. How will changing the
customer’s gateway to G.711 impact the overall bandwidth consumption?
A. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will increase latency
B. Has no effect on bandwidth consumption, but will reduce jitter
C. Decreases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 8 Kbps (plus any overhead)
D. Increases the bandwidth consumption of each call to 64 Kbps (plus any overhead)
70-696 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
Which standards body is responsible for publishing the Requests For Comments (RFCs) that
establish TCP/IP specifications?
A. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
B. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 15
Through troubleshooting, a technician determines that there is a degraded clocking source on a
customer’s wide area network (WAN). Which term would that troubleshooter use to describe this
situation?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Latency
D. Attenuation
70-696 vce Answer: A

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Oracle, Server and Storage Systems

[2017 New Updated] Download 100% Pass Server and Storage Systems 1Z0-443 Dumps & 1z0-443 Exam PDF Training Youtube Study Guide Is Your Best Choice

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-443 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question: 1
This final security rule standard addresses encryption of data,
A. Security Management Process
B. Device and Media Controls
C. Information Access Management
D. Audit Controls
E. Transmission Security
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: E
Question: 2
The transaction number assigned to the Health Care Claim Payment/Advice transaction is:
A. 270
B. 276
C. 834
D. 835
E. 837
Answer: D
Question: 3
Select the correct statement regarding the 834 – Benefit Enrollment and Maintenance transaction.
A. It cannot be used to transfer enrollment information from a plan sponsor to a health care
insurance company or other benefit provider.
B. It can be used by a health insurance company to notify a plan sponsor that it has dropped one of
its members.
C. It cannot be used to enroll, update, or dis-enroll employees and dependents in a health plan.
D. A sponsor can be an employer, insurance agency, association or government agency but unions
are excluded from being plan sponsors
E. It can be used in either update or full replacement mode.
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: E
Question: 4
Implementation features of the Security Management Process include which one of the following?
A. Power Backup plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Security Testing
D. Risk Analysis
E. Authorization and/or Supervision
Answer: D
Question: 5
The Privacy Rule gives patients the following right
A. Access to the psychotherapy notes.
B. Request an amendment to their medical record.
C. Receive a digital certificate.
D. See an accounting of disclosures for which authorization was given.
E. The use of a smart card for accessing their records.
1Z0-443 exam Answer: B
Question: 6
This transaction type may be used in three ways:
1. Reply to a Health Care Claim Status Request.
2. Unsolicited notification of a health care claim status.
3. Request for additional information about a health care claim.
A. 837.
B. 820.
C. 277.
D. 835.
E. 278.
Answer: C
Question: 7
The scope of the Privacy Rule includes:
A. All Employers.
B. The Washington Publishing Company
C. Disclosure of non-identifiable demographics.
D. Oral disclosure of PHI.
E. The prevention of use of de-identified information.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: D
Question: 8
The Privacy Rule has broad administrative requirements. Which one of the following requirements is
defined under the Privacy Rule?
A. Designate a security officer.
B. Document termination procedures.
C. Use biometrics to authenticate transactions.
D. Deploy tokens and smart cards to all medical personnel.
E. Verify that business associates treat patient information respectfully.
Answer: E
Question: 9
The Privacy Rule interacts with Federal and State laws by:
A. Establishing an orderly hierarchy where HIPAA applies, then other Federal law, then State law.
B. Defining privacy to be a national interest that is best protected by Federal law.
C. Allowing State privacy laws to provide a cumulative effect lower than HIPA4.
D. Mandating that Federal laws preempt State laws regarding privacy.
E. Establishing a ‘floor” for privacy protection.
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: E
Question: 10
The code set that must be used to describe or identify inpatient hospital services and surgical
procedures is:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: D
Question: 11
The Privacy Rule’s penalties for unauthorized disclosure:
A. Imposes fines and imprisonment as civil penalties for violations.
B. Limits penalties to covered entities and their business associates.
C. Imposes criminal penalties for noncompliance with standards.
D. Limits imprisonment to a maximum often years.
E. Is $1000 per event of disclosure.
1Z0-443 exam Answer: D
Question: 12
ABC Hospital implements policies and procedures to ensure that all members of its workforce have
appropriate access to electronic protected health information. These policies and procedures satisfy
which HIPAA security standard?
A. Security Management Process
B. Facility Access Control
C. Security Awareness and Training
D. Workforce Security
E. B Security Management Process
Answer: D
Question: 13
Performing a periodic review in response to environmental or operational changes affecting the
security of electronic protected health information is called:
A. Transmission Security
B. Evaluation
C. Audit Control
D. Integrity
E. Security Management Process
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: B
Question: 14
Which transaction covers information specific to accidents?
A. Accident Report.
B. First Report of Injury.
C. Health Care Claim.
D. Health Care Claim Payment/Advice.
E. Premium Payment.
Answer: B
Question: 15
An Electronic Medical Record (EMR):
A. Is another name for the Security Ruling
B. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
C. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s health status and health care.
D. Identifies all hospitals and health care organizations.
E. Requires a P1<1 for the provider and the patient.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: C

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