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QUESTION 85
Which three of the following are appropriate solutions to address latency issues in a VoIP network? (Choose 3.)
A. Usedejitter buffers
B. Increase bandwidth
C. Fragment data packets
D. Prioritize voice packets

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 86
Which three headers are compressed by cRTP? (Choose 3.)
A. Data link
B. IP
C. UDP
D. RTP
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 87
Which of the following best describesa function of RTCP?

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QUESTION 77
Calculate the percentage of bandwidth that is saved for one G.729 call crossing a Frame Relay link when ip rtp header-compression is enabled. The Frame Relay overhead is 4 bytes. The G.729 codec bit rate is 8 kb/s. Assume UDP checksum is enabled.
A. approximately 55 percent
B. approximately 85 percent
C. approximately 20 percent
D. approximately 65 percent
E. approximately 60 percent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Which E1 time slots are used to carry encoded voice only?

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QUESTION 176
The ip verify reverse-path command implements which of the following on the PIX Firewall? Choose two.
A. performs a route lookup based on the source address
B. performs a route lookup based on the destination address
C. provides session state information based on source address
D. provides session state information based on destination address
E. provides ingress filtering

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 177
What is IP logging, as defined for the Cisco IDS appliance?

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QUESTION 161
Which content networking device allows bandwidth configuration settings so that streaming content will not interfere with other network traffic?
A. IP/TV Control Server
B. Content Distribution Manager
C. Content Engine
D. IP/TV Broadcast Server Correct Answer: B

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:Explanation:
The CDM enables you to configure bandwidth and distribution settings such that the streaming content will no interfere with other network traffic. It is also the central control point where the CEs that will carry the broadcast media are identified. The CDM is typically located in the server farm.

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QUESTION 191
Which MST configuration statement is correct?
A. MST configurations can be propagated to other switches using VTP.
B. After MST is configured on a switch, PVST+ operations will also be enabled by default.
C. MST configurations must be manually configured on each switch within the MST region.
D. MST configurations only need to be manually configured on the Root Bridge.
E. MST configurations are entered using the VLAN Database mode on Cisco Catalyst switches.

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QUESTION: 20
What design will effect traffic flows in the Data Center Core layer?

A. The domain needed to extend a VLAN from one switch to another is determined at the core layer
B. With a 3 layer (Access, Aggregation, Core) design the Layer 2 domain must be configured across the Core for VLAN extension to occur
C. Extending Layer 2 through a core causes path blocking by STP and has the risk of uncontrollable broadcast issues related to extending Layer 2 domains, and therefore should be avoided
D. Server-to-server traffic typically travels between aggregation modules by way of the core, while backup and replication traffic remains within the aggregation module

Answer: C
QUESTION: 21 When designing a collapsed core data center, which two technologies are used to virtualize the core and aggregation layers? (Choose two.)
A. FCoE
B. LISP
C. HSRP
D. VDC
E. VRF

Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 22 The classical aggregation layer design does not provide isolation on the control plane and on the data plane. What is the solution to thisproblem?

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QUESTION 31
Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel

E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 32
Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch?
A. MDS-A# show host login
B. MDS-A# show host data
C. MDS-A# show flogi database
D. MDS-A# show host-id
E. MDS-A# show host fcid

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets?

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QUESTION 159
Which are the attack mitigation roles for the VPN Concentrator in the SAFE standard VPN WLAN design? Choose three.
A. authenticate remote users
B. two-factor authentication
C. terminate IPsec
D. RFC 2827 filtering
E. DHCP relay
F. VPN client auto-initiate

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 160
Drag Drop question

A.

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QUESTION 136
Which are the functional areas in SAFE Enterprise Network? Choose two.
A. Enterprise Network VPN/Remote Access
B. Enterprise Network Campus
C. Enterprise Network Distribution
D. Enterprise Network Corporate Internet

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 137
How are packet sniffer attacks mitigated in the SAFE SMR small network campusmodule?

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes the ability that “Hyper Scale” provides to Cisco UCS Invicta?
A. Scale out either independently or together
B. Scale up only
C. Scale out only
D. Scale up and out but only at the same time

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which option is not a key target audience for the Cisco UCS Invicta solution?

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