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350-401 Dumps 2023 Update | Overcome All The Difficulties Of The Exam

March 28, 2023 No Comments

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free 350-401 questions	September 28, 2022

Question 1:

A client on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same.

What type of roam occurs?

A. inter-controller

B. inter-subnet

C. intra-VLAN

D. intra-controller

Correct Answer: D

Mobility, or roaming, is a wireless LAN client\’s ability to maintain its association seamlessly from one access point to another securely and with as little latency as possible. Three popular types of client roaming are:

Intra-Controller Roaming: Each controller supports same-controller client roaming across access points managed by the same controller. This roaming is transparent to the client as the session is sustained, and the client continues using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address.

Inter-Controller Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group and on the same subnet. This roaming is also transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP- or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.

Inter-Subnet Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group on different subnets. This roaming is transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between the controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode negotiate NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

B. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

C. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

D. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode auto NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

Which HTTP code must be returned to prevent the script from exiting?

A. 200

B. 201

C. 300

D. 301

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

A. VLAN

B. VTEP

C. VXLAN

D. VRF

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

import JSON from requests import get

Headers = { “Content-Type” : “application/yang-data+json”, “Accept” : “application/yang-data+json” }

Devices = open(“devices.txt”, “r”)

for Device in Devices.deadlines():Hostname, IP, Login, Pass = Device.strip().split(“,”)URL = f”https://{IP}/restconf/data/Cisco-IOS-XE-native:native”Creds = (Login, Pass)

Response = get(URL, auth = Creds, headers = Headers, verify = False)

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?

A. ETR

B. ITR

C. Proxy ETR

D. Proxy ITR

Correct Answer: C

ETR, (Egress) from internal to External ITR, (Internal) from External to Internal

Question 7:

When voice services are deployed over a wireless environment, which service must be disabled to ensure the quality of calls?

A. Aggressive load balancing

B. Dynamic transmit power control

C. Priority queuing

D. Fastlane

Correct Answer: A

To have a successful voice deployment with 792x phones, not only do you need a professional site survey, you also need to make sure that the controller and the switched network are properly configured for voice.

The controller has several settings for a proper voice configuration:

Aggressive Load Balancing should be disabled.

Reference: http://what-when-how.com/deploying-and-troubleshooting-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/configuration-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/

Question 8:

What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete

C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

Correct Answer: D

Stateful Switchover Routers specifically designed for high availability include hardware redundancy, such as dual power supplies and route processors (RPs). An RP is responsible for learning the network topology and building the routing table (RIB).

An RP failure can trigger routing protocol adjacencies to reset, resulting in packet loss and network instability.

During an RP failure, it may be more desirable to hide the failure and allow the router to continue forwarding packets using the previously programmed CEF table entries rather than temporarily drop packets while waiting for the secondary RP to reestablish the routing protocol adjacencies and rebuild the forwarding table.

Stateful switchover (SSO) is a redundancy feature that allows a Cisco router with two RPs to synchronize router configuration and control plane state information.

The process of mirroring information between RPs is referred to as checkpointing. SSO-enabled routers always checkpoint line card operation and Layer 2 protocol states.

During a switchover, the standby RP immediately takes control and prevents basic problems such as interface link flaps. However, Layer 3 packet forwarding is disrupted without additional configuration.

The RP switchover triggers a routing protocol adjacency flap that clears the roundtable. When the routing table is cleared, the CEF entries are purged, and traffic is no longer routed until the network topology is relearned and the forwarding table is reprogrammed.

Enabling nonstop forwarding (NSF) or nonstop routing (NSR) high availability capabilities informs the router(s) to maintain the CEF entries for a short duration and continue forwarding packets through an RP failure until the control plane recovers.

Question 9:

Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors?

A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes.

B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server.

C. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.

D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.

Correct Answer: A

A virtual machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical server with an operating system. From an application\’s point of view, the VM provides the look and feel of a real physical server, including all its components, such as CPU, memory,

and network interface cards (NICs).

The virtualization software that creates VMs and performs the hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run concurrently is known as a hypervisor. There are two types of hypervisors: type 1 and type 2 hypervisors. In type 1 hypervisor

(or native hypervisor), the hypervisor is installed directly on the physical server. Then instances of an operating system (OS) are installed on the hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore they are

more efficient than hosted architectures. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware vSphere/ESXi, Oracle VM Server, KVM, and Microsoft Hyper-V.

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. answer \’Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes\’ big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required.

Examples of type 2 hypervisors are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac, and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (which only runs

on Windows).

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Question 11:

Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

A. HTTP Status Code: 200

B. HTTP Status Code: 302

C. HTTP Status Code: 401

D. HTTP Status Code: 504

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/401

Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C

B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.

C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.

D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A

E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

Question 14:

What happens to the signal strength of an RF signal due to wave spreading?

A. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off equally near the transmitter and also farther away

B. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off quickly near the transmitter but more slowly farther away

C. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the receiver and more quickly farther away

D. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the transmitter but more quickly farther away

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A. sampler SAMPLER-1 mode random 1-out-of 2 flow FLOW-MONITOR-1

Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor SAMPLER-1 input

B. sampler SAMPLER-1 no mode random 1-out-of 2 mode percent 50 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

D. flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 record v4_r1 sampler SAMPLER-1 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

Correct Answer: C

Everything is complete and configured correctly, we just have to apply it on an interface.

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350-401 Dumps (r 9.27) Brand-New 350-401 ECOR Exam Preparation Materials

September 28, 2022 No Comments

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The 350-401 exam is also known as the 350-401 ENCOR. It requires you to answer 100 ± questions in two hours and get 750-850 out of 1000 points to pass. It costs $400 to take the exam.

Passing the 350-401 exam is closely linked to the following certifications:

CCNP Enterprise (CCNP Enterprise Core Exam)
CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Qualifying Exam)
CCIE Enterprise Wireless (CCIE Enterprise Wireless Qualifying Exam)

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Or read the online 350-401 exam questions directly below.

Cisco 350-401 Free Dumps: New 350-401 ENCOR Questions Test:

NEW QUESTION 1

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A. a predetermined string that is passed from client to server
B. a one-time encrypted token
C. a username that is stored in the local router database
D. a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Correct Answer: A

In REST API Security – API keys are widely used in the industry and became some sort of standard, however, this
the method should not be considered a good security measure.

API Keys were created as somewhat of a fix to the early authentication issues of HTTP Basic Authentication and other
such systems. In this method, a unique generated value is assigned to each first-time user, signifying that the user is
known. When the user attempts to re-enter the system, their unique key (sometimes generated from their hardware
combination and IP data, and other times randomly generated by the server which knows them) is used to prove that
they’re the same user as before.

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/4-most-used-rest-api-authentication-methods/

NEW QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo\\’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30
seconds and continue until stopped?

A. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life forever
B. IP SLA schedule 30 start-time now life forever
C. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life 30
D. IP SLA schedule 100 life forever

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

A. VXLAN
B. IS-IS
C. 802 1Q
D. CTS

Correct Answer: C

SD-Access Extended Nodes provide the ability to extend the enterprise network by providing connectivity to non-carpeted spaces of an enterprise – commonly called the Extended Enterprise. This allows network connectivity and management of IoT devices and the deployment of traditional enterprise end devices in outdoor and non-carpeted environments such as distribution centers, warehouses, or Campus parking lots.

This feature extends consistent, policy-based automation to Cisco Industrial Ethernet, Catalyst 3560-CX Compact, and
Digital Building Series switches and enables segmentation for user endpoints and IoT devices connected to these
nodes.

Using Cisco DNA Center automation, switches in the extended node role are onboarded to their connected edge node
using an 802.1Q trunk over an EtherChannel with one or multiple physical link members. Extended nodes are
discovered using zero-touch Plug-and-Play.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-designguide.html#Network_Components

NEW QUESTION 4

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address 50
IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
B. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast route-map ACL-to-red
C. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.256 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
D. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.265 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address acl-to-red IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast ACL-to-red

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS authentication queries the router`s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:
Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm
Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C
B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.
C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.
D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A
E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “Tommy” under normal operation?

A. Cisco
B. local
C. 0 Cisco
D. Tommy

Correct Answer: A

In this question, there are two different passwords for user “Tommy”:
+
In the TACACS+ server, the password is “Tommy”
+
In the local database of the router, the password is “Cisco”.
From the line “login authentication local” we know that the router uses the local database for authentication so the
password should be “Cisco”.
Note: “… password 0 …” here means unencrypted password.

NEW QUESTION 10

In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database?

A. fabric border node
B. fabric edge node
C. fabric wireless controller
D. control plane node

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

NEW QUESTION 13

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node.

Correct Answer: A

SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node Closer Look Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map
Server / Resolver Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+
A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)
+
Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID (EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128*, or MAC/48
+
Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+
Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+
Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility, and RLOC information

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/latam/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf

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September 26, 2021 No Comments

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This is a partial incomplete CCNP 350-401 ENCOR practice question – from Pass4itSure. Of course, this is not enough. For the complete CCNP 350-401 ENCOR practice question, please visit Pass4itSure.com.

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24.
The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface GigabitEthernet 0/1. Which configuration command set will allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

A customer has a pair of Cisco 5520 WLCs set up in an SSO cluster to manage all APs. Guest traffic is anchored to a
Cisco 3504 WLC is located in a DM2. Which action is needed to ensure that the Eola tunnel remains in a UP state in the
event of failover on the SSO cluster?
A. Use the mobility MAC when the mobility peer is configured
B. Use the same mobility domain on all WLCs
C. Enable default gateway reachability check
D. Configure back-to-back connectivity on the RP ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What is the structure of a JSON web token?
A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature
B. header and payload
C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature
D. payload and signature
Correct Answer: A

JSON Web Token (JWT) is an open standard (RFC 7519) that defines a compact and self-contained way for securely
transmitting information between parties as a JSON object. This information can be verified and trusted because it is
digitally signed. JWTs can be signed using a secret (with the HMAC algorithm) or a public/private key pair using RSA or
ECDSA. JSON Web Tokens are composed of three parts, separated by a dot (.): Header, Payload, Signature.
Therefore, a JWT typically looks like the following:
xxxxx.yyyyy.zzzzz

The header typically consists of two parts: the type of the token, which is JWT, and the signing algorithm being used,
such as HMAC SHA256 or RSA.
The second part of the token is the payload, which contains the claims. Claims are statements about an entity (typically,
the user) and additional data. To create the signature part you have to take the encoded header, the encoded payload,
a secret, the algorithm specified in the header, and sign that.
Reference:
https://jwt.io/introduction/
https://auth0.com/docs/tokens/references/jwt-structure

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. V VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
Correct Answer: B
There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A.
The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS

QUESTION 5

Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane
Correct Answer: C

The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses
EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic
across the underlying WAN architecture.

EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within
the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP
for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \’ OTP uses
LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\’ is not correct. In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP
control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \’ LISP learns the next hop\’ is not
correct).

Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running
OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as
RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\’s take an example: If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn
about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the
advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the
network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID-prefix, and take the advertising next hop
192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.

On both routers, this information would be used to populate the LISP
mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at R1, it would use its LISP mapping
tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP encapsulated and tunneled toward
198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not change; however, the native LISP
mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert
Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition

QUESTION 6

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)
A. core switch
B. vBond controller
C. edge node
D. access switch
E. border node
Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+
Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location
(EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer
device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+
Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the
SDA fabric.
+
Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+
Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access
fabric role other than underlay services.

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

A. DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+
B. Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode
C. Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network
D. Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2,
and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH that a router accepts 100 kbps?

A. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip
access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list
extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !

B. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip
access-group … out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH
!
Ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH
deny TCP any eq 22
!

C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended
CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 !
D. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! Policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH
police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! Control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! Ip access-list extended
CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !
Correct Answer: C

CoPP protects the route processor on network devices by treating route processor resources as a separate entity with
its own ingress interface (and in some implementations, egress also). CoPP is used to police traffic that is destined to
the route processor of the router such as:
+
routing protocols like OSPF, EIGRP, or BGP.
+
Gateway redundancy protocols like HSRP, VRRP, or GLBP. + Network management protocols like telnet, SSH, SNMP,
or RADIUS.

Therefore we must apply the CoPP to deal with SSH because it is in the management plane. CoPP must be put under
the “control-plane” command.

QUESTION 10

What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two)
A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information
B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF
C. in enforces configuration semantics
D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list
E. it enforces configuration constraints
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 11

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?
A. ICMP echo
B. UDP jitter
C. CMP jitter
D. TCP connect
Correct Answer: B

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA
request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the
responder.

Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a
time-stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time-stamps to the sent packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or another dedicated probe testing.

The IP SLAs responder is a component embedded in the destination Cisco device that allows the system to anticipate
and respond to IP SLAs request packets. The responder provides accurate measurements without the need for
dedicated probes.
UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation(jitter), corruption, misordering packet loss by generating periodic UDP
traffic. This operation always requires an IP SLA responder.
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2017/pdf/BRKNMS-3043.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/46sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/swipsla.pdf

QUESTION 12

Based on the output below, which Python code shows the value of the “upTime” key?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which code results in the working python script displaying a list of network devices from the Cisco DNA Center?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
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