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Cisco 642-164 Success Pass Cisco 642-164 To Ensure Pass Certification

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Exam Description
Cisco 642-164 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Where do you enable the CRS engine?
A. Publisher Activation page
B. Component Activation page
C. Cluster Setup page
D. Server Setup page

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 2
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 3
What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 4
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose
two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel

Correct Answer: DE Section: Section 1 Explanation Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164

QUESTION 5
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 6
Where are CTI route points added or configured for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Cisco Unified CallManager Device Configuration
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Directory Management
C. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. Cisco CRS Administration, JTAPI Trigger Creation
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Media Subsystem

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of using subflows?
A. decreases the amount of flows
B. collects information about callers to agents
C. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
D. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows

Correct Answer: E Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 8
What formula do you use to calculate the number of Voice Gateway ports?
A. Erlang A
B. Erlang B
C. Erlang C
D. IVR ports + agent phones

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which configuration object can have skills assigned to it in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? TestInside 642-164
A. resources
B. Skill Groups
C. Resource Groups
D. competence levels

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 10
When using the Call Subflow step, can variables be shared between the parent (calling) flow and the subflow?
A. No.
B. Yes.
C. Yes, but they must be manually passed via input and output mapping.
D. Yes, but they must be manually created in both flows and have the same name.

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
B. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
C. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which phone type has the following support matrix for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
version 4.0 unsupported
version 4.5 supported
version 5.0 supported
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. MGCP
D. SCCP

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 13
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool? TestInside 642-164
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool

Correct Answer: E Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 14
What can help expose problems with script logic or validity by simulating the execution of a script?
A. Alarm and Trace Configuration
B. debug session
C. script validation
D. script refresh

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 15
When a call terminates, which Cisco Unified CCX setting takes precedence over “Automated Available” to
determine the agent’s next state?
A. Automatic Work
B. Automatic WrapUp
C. Prompt for this CSQ
D. Service Level settings
E. Resource Pool selection

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which feature is added when upgrading from the Enhanced to Premium Cisco Unified Contact Center
Express?
A. sending email
B. a wrap-up timer
C. keystroke macros
D. supervisory recording
E. agent-to-agent text chatting

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 17
Which criterion can be used to control the actions of supervisor workflows?
A. average talk duration
B. number of agents logged in
C. number of calls abandoned
D. duration of oldest call in queue

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 18
What does CSQ stand for in Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?
A. Contact Skill Queue
B. Common Skill Queue
C. Contact Service Queue
D. Common Service Queue
E. Competence Skill Queue
F. Competence Service Queue

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment scenario is valid?
A. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.0
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.1
C. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.5 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 4.3
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications Manager 5.0

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 20
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 21
How many languages can be installed for the Cisco Agent Desktop (CAD) and the Cisco Supervisor Desktop TestInside 642-164
(CSD)?
A. one language for both the CAD and the CSD
B. one language for the CAD and a different language for the CSD
C. two languages for the CAD and one language for the CSD
D. two languages for both the CAD and the CSD

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 22
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route
Point in CallManager.
D. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 23
The CRS Installer is used to perform which functions? (Choose three.)
A. install CRS software
B. back up CRS data
C. repair a CRS installation
D. back up CallManager data
E. remove a CRS installation (uninstall)
F. activate CRS components

Correct Answer: ACE Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 24
In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover?
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164

Cisco 642-164 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) exam is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Entry Network Technician (CCENT) certification and is a tangible first step in achieving an Associate-level certification Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network. The exam includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting
QUESTION 25
How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used?
A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc.
B. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server.
C. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step.
D. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 26
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging
messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 27
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM
Telephony group?
A. CTI Ports
B. CRS CTI Route Point
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which three server types are supported for the installation of Cisco CRS? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco MCS 78xx servers
B. Dell PowerEdge servers
C. HP DL Cisco certified servers
D. Acer Altos servers
E. IBM xSeries Cisco certified servers
F. Apple servers

Correct Answer: ACE Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 29
Which server or servers combine with redundant Cisco CRS engines to make a valid Cisco CRS 4.0
deployment?
A. five recording servers
B. a simplex database server
C. five simplex VoIP monitoring servers
D. two VoIP monitoring servers and three recording servers

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which two steps check out a database connection from the connection pool? (Choose two.)
A. DB Get
B. DB Read
C. DB Write
D. DB Release

Correct Answer: BC Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 31
Where are users managed and their data stored in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express?
A. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
database
B. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express database
C. in Communications Manager Express with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database
D. in Application Administration with user data stored in the Communications Manager Express database

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which three components are installed from the Cisco CRS Installer media? (Choose three.)
A. iPlanet Web Server
B. Cisco CRS Engine
C. Cisco IP Telephony Windows 2000 Server OS
D. Cisco Unified CallManager
E. Cisco Recording
F. MS SQL Server

Correct Answer: BEF Section: Section 1 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 33
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
B. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
C. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco
Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails?
A. No special configuration is needed.
B. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile.
C. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI
ports.
D. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP
address.

Correct Answer: D Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which two releases require physical media to be ordered and received prior to patching or upgrading Cisco
Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose two.)
A. Minor Release
B. Major Release
C. Service Release
D. Engineering Special
E. Maintenance Release

Correct Answer: AB Section: Section 1 Explanation
QUESTION 36
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified CCX Standard?
A. ICM steps
B. e-mail steps
C. media steps
D. database steps

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express v. 5.0?
A. a two-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communications Manager cluster
B. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Communication Manager clusters
C. a one-node Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Communication Manager Express router
D. two Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Communications Manager
cluster

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 39
If an existing script is uploaded to the CRS, what does it ask?
A. Do you want to debug the script?
B. Do you want to refresh the script?
C. Do you want to save the application?
D. Do you want to return to Script Management?

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 40
What tool is used to estimate the hardware server resources required for an IPCC Express deployment?
A. IPC Resource Calculator
B. CTI Port Calculator
C. Configuration and Ordering Tool
D. CRS Applications Administration

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
TestInside 642-164
QUESTION 41
If the Call Redirect step sends a caller to a device that does not exist in the CallManager, which branch of the
step is executed?
A. Busy
B. Invalid
C. Successful
D. Unsuccessful

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 42
What is the maximum number of agents supported on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
deployment?
A. 10 agents
B. 50 agents
C. 100 agents
D. 300 agents

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Installation Wizard?
A. recover or restore a Cisco CRS system
B. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
C. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
D. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 44
For which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 packages is the preview outbound dialer available?
A. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
B. Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express packages
C. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager packages
D. Enhanced and Premium Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Unified Communications Manager
Express packages

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 45
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?
A. The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B. The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C. The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D. The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E. The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which feature is available on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 with Cisco Unified Communications
Manager Express deployments?
A. wrap-up data
B. high availability
C. preview outbound dialer
D. barge-in on Cisco Supervisor Desktop

Correct Answer: A Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 47
What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played
C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played TestInside 642-164

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which interface is used to configure debug parameters for log files?
A. Datastore Control Center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. Custom File Configuration
D. Control Center

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 49
You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with three requirements:
250 configured agents
150 agents maximum logged in at any given time
30 agents able to make outbound calls
How many seats should be purchased?
A. 120 seats with 30 outbound seats
B. 150 seats with 30 outbound seats
C. 180 seats with 30 outbound seats
D. 250 seats with 30 outbound seats

Correct Answer: B Section: Section 2 Explanation
QUESTION 50
What is the maximum number of CTI ports supported by a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Standard
deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. varies based on the number of expansion servers
E. varies based on the number of configured applications

Correct Answer: C Section: Section 2 Explanation

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Cisco 642-162 Exam Free‎ Training Download VCE And PDF With All New Exam Questions

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The actual Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-162.html exam questions and answers will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success.save your money and time on your preparation for your Cisco 642-162 certification exam. You will find we are a trustful partner if you choose us as your assistance on your Cisco 642-162 certification exam. Now we add the latest Cisco 642-162 content and to print and share content.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
When would the Cisco Supervisor Desktop fail to show an agent that is logged in?
A. The agent is not ready.
B. The agent is not on a call.
C. The agent is an IP phone agent.
D. The agent is not in the team currently being viewed by the supervisor.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What are three of the fields used in defining a CSQ in IPCC Express Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. WrapUp Time
B. Service Level
C. Overflow CSQ
D. Agent Name
E. Automatic Work
F. CRS Application

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What formula do you use to calculate the number of agents in a Call Center?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + IVR ports

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
What issues notification messages for CRS engine errors?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. syslog

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
When a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?
A. Timeout
B. SQL Error
C. Successful
D. Connection Not Available

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What is the Flush Input Buffer setting used for in the Input tab of the Menu step?
A. to release memory held by the prompt variable
B. to clear the value of the menu choice before the prompt is played
C. to prevent the previous value from being used again on the menu choice
D. to prevent the caller from entering a menu choice before the prompt has played

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
How are CTI ports in a CTI Port Group added on the CRS Server?
A. They must be created in Cisco Unified CallManager in ascending order (i.e., 1001, 1002, and 1003) with no gaps or missing numbers in the group.
B. They can be assigned as a range of ports in CRS Application Administration.
C. They are the same as the CTI Route Points in the Cisco Unified CallManager and automatically built in CRS when they are associated with the JTAPI user.
D. They are the same as the CTI Route Points in the Cisco Unified CallManager and automatically built in CRS when they are associated with the RM JTAPI user.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about the default e-mail address used in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page?
A. If no From field is specified with an address in the Send E-mail step, it will use the default.
B. All Send E-mail steps are automatically sent as a Blind cc: to the default.
C. Alarms that are generated by the CRS Server are automatically sent to it.
D. If no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step, the default is used.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

CCNA Composite Exam:Cisco 642-162 CCNAX is the composite exam associated with the Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices: Accelerated (CCNAX) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The topics include all the areas covered under ICND 1 and ICND2 Exams.

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum number of CTI ports for a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 4.0 Standard deployment?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 300
D. varies based on the number of expansion servers used
E. varies based on the number of applications configured

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources
B. User Tracking to track IP telephones
C. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity
D. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements
E. Problem alerts for operations personnel

Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which step is designed to prompt a user to press or say a single-digit number to perform a specific function?
A. Menu
B. Get Digit String
C. Get Call Contact Info
D. Extended Get Digit String

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following are automatically configured on the CallManager when entered on the CRS Application Administration? (Choose three.)
A. CTI port
B. CTI Route Point
C. agent skills
D. JTAPI user
E. CRS prompt language
F. ASR provider

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which three Cisco CRS upgrade paths are supported? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 3.5
B. Cisco CRS 2.2 to Cisco CRS 4.0
C. Cisco CRS 3.1 to Cisco CRS 4.0
D. Cisco CRS 3.5 to Cisco CRS 4.0
E. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 3.0
F. Cisco CRS 4.0 to Cisco CRS 4.5

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
In addition to writing information to a trace file, the Cisco CRS System sends standard event logging messages to a syslog server through which service?
A. SNMP Trap
B. Alarm
C. CDP
D. Win32

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Pass 642-162 Exam – Cisco 642-162 100% Pass Guarantee‎ Study Guide Ensure You 100% Pass

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which should you check to verify that you have correct software product versions installed? (Choose four.)
A. Administration Guide
B. Release Notes
C. Software Center
D. Application Administration
E. Compatibility Matrices
F. patch availability
Correct Answer: BDEF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When will a skills-based CSQ that requires a skill competency of four (4) select an IPCC Express agent?
A. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of nine (9) in another skill defined in CRS
B. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of one (1) in the required skill for the CSQ
C. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of seven (7) in the required skill for the CSQ
D. if the ICD agent is available and has a skill competency of three (3) in the required skill defined in CRS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP As an instructor at Certkiller .com you are required to drag the Wrapup Timer configuration setting to the proper definition.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
What formula do you use to compute the number of IVR ports?
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. AHT * BHCA
D. VG ports + CTI ports
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not a CRS Telephony or Media Subsystem?
A. JTAPI
B. Cisco Media
C. VXML
D. MRCP ASR
E. MRCP TTS
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP You are a network engineer at Certkiller .com. You are configuring IPCCX and you will create several items that relate to either CallManager or CRS. You are required to the configuration to what it relates to the right.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
What is the maximum number of CTI ports for an IPCC Expess Standard deployment?
A. 150 B. 200
C. 300
D. Depends upon how many expansion servers are used
E. Depends upon the number of applications configured
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP You are a Certkiller .com network consultant. At the client site you are giving a lecture and you are required to provision the JTAPI subsystem to complete the task below. You need to drag the functions to the proper tasks.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
-In JTAPI Provider you have to input the IP or the name for the Callmanager CTI Manager.
-JTAPI Call Control Groups create the CTI ports in Callmanager.
QUESTION 9
What two things happen when the CRS Publisher Database on an HRDB expansion server fails? (Choose two.)
A. All call processing immediately begins using the CRS Subscriber Database.
B. Calls in queue are dropped.
C. Agent calls are dropped.
D. Agents are automatically logged out.
E. CRS configuration changes are blocked until the CRS Publisher Database is restored and synchronized with the CRS Subscriber Database.
F. Configuration changes are buffered until the CRS Publisher Database is restored.
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A customer with IPCC Express Standard reports that a script using the Database steps is not working. What is the most likely root cause?
A. The script probably has an error in the DSN configuration.
B. IPCC Express Standard is not licensed for Database steps.
C. The script probably has an error in the query string.
D. There is probably an interoperability problem between IPCC Express and the database.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

 

Cisco 642-162 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 642-162 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 11
What features are supported in a license for IPCC Express 4.0 Enhanced? (Choose three.)
A. database integration
B. prompt and collect
C. VoiceXML
D. read HTTP and XML Documents
E. announcements
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What types of orders are exempt from using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool?
A. orders for coresident deployments
B. orders for adding more seats
C. orders for upgrading from standard
D. orders with less than five seats
E. all orders require using the IPCC Express Configuration and Ordering Tool
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid CRS deployment scenarios? (Choose three.)
A. High Availability CRS Engines running on hardware from different server classes
B. High Availability CRS Engines running on similar hardware from the same server class but from different vendors
C. High Availability CRS Engines and database and a simplex Recording Server
D. High Availability CRS Engines and four simplex VoIP Monitoring Servers
E. CCM co-resident deployment on an MCS 7815
Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
What is the typical number of trunks in a Call Center?
A. equal to half the number of IVR ports
B. greater than the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones
C. less than or equal to the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones
D. twice the number of IVR ports plus the number of agent phones

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
How does the Extended Get Digit String step differ from the Get Digit String? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used in conjunction with another step.
B. It allows the application programmer into another section of the application.
C. Most of the Extended Get Digit String variables can be changed while the application is running.
D. It allows the entry of a Boolean expression for the Interruptible and Clear DTMF Buffer on Retry fields.

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
How many skills may an agent have?
A. 25
B. 50
C. no enforced limit
D. as many as the number of ports supported on the server

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
You have just successfully added a JTAPI trigger in CRS Administration. Which two items are automatically configured on your CallManager? (Choose two.)
A. CTI dialogue control port
B. CTI Route Point
C. dialogue group
D. Call Control Group
E. CTI Route Port
F. CTI Route Point association with JTAPI User

Correct Answer: BF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What allows you to monitor the system performance of the Cisco CRS System (CPU, memory, etc.)?
A. Cisco Desktop Administrator
B. Cisco Supervisor Desktop
C. Microsoft Windows 2000 Performance Monitoring
D. CRS Application Administration
E. CRS Application Editor

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is the default filename for the component trace file?
A. CiscoMIVR.log
B. CiscoMADM.log
C. CiscoMEDT.log
D. CiscoMCVD.log

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
How do you start an event-triggered debug session?
A. Select “Start” from the Debug menu in CRS Script Editor.
B. Select “Reactive Script…” from the Debug menu in CRS Script Editor.
C. Select “Debugging” from the Trace menu in CRS Application Administration.
D. Select “Start Trace” from the Trace menu in CRS Application Administration.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
The JTAPI provider is the IP address of the _____.
A. publisher
B. CTI Manager
C. CallManager
D. CRS Server

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22
What three tasks are required to add a CRS application? (Choose three.)
A. create a trigger
B. create an application
C. restart the CRS engine
D. upload script to repository
E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP As a network technician at Certkiller .com you are asked to match the CRS objects to the correct provision configuration assignment. Not all CRS objects are used.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24

When installing the CRS software on two or more nodes in the same cluster, how do you know it is safe to start installing the next node?
A. Wait until the node is completely installed to start installation on the next one.
B. After you insert Disk 2.
C. A dialog box, “It is now safe to start installing the next node,” appears during the installation.
D. After Windows OS is installed on the first node.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Cisco 640-864 Practice Tests With VCE And PDF for Groundbreaking Results

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Exam Description
The pass 4 itsure Cisco 640-864 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four.)
A. Faster ROI
B. Improved business agility
C. Increased network availability
D. Faster access to applications and services
E. Lower total cost of network ownership
F. Better implementation team engagement
Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 2
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much information about the network as possible.Which of these choices describes the preferred order for the information-gathering process?
A. Site and network audits, traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input
B. Existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits, traffic analysis
C. Traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational input, site and network audits
D. Site and network audits, existing documentation and organizational input, traffic analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves.
Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which three are considered as technical constraints when identifying network requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Support for legacy applications
B. Bandwidth support for new applications
C. Limited budget allocation
D. Policy limitations
E. Limited support staff to complete assessment
F. Support for existing legacy equipment
G. Limited timeframe to implement
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 5
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
A. Obtain site contact information
B. Perform network audit
C. Identify customer requirements
D. Perform gap analysis
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable solution?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. QoS should only be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to enable prioritization and ensure the best performance for all time-critical applications.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What are the three primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Choose three.)
A. provide end-user connectivity
B. provide high speed transport
C. provide QoS services
D. enforce security policies
E. provide WAN connections
F. connect access devices to the core backbone
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module?
A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design?(Choose two.)
A. improves flexibility
B. facilitates implementation
C. lowers implementation costs
D. improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Switching
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 13
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise Edge Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. e-commerce module
B. Internet connectivity module
C. server farm module
D. remote access and VPN module
E. PSTN services module
F. enterprise branch module
G. building distribution module
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network management reside?
A. Enterprise data center module
B. Enterprise campus module
C. Enterprise edge module
D. Service Provider edge module
E. Service Provider data center module
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two.)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer.
B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer.
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer.
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 17
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional campus network design?
A. Layer 3 service support at the network edge
B. the routing protocol choicE.open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
C. the routing abilities of the host devices
D. the need to control the broadcast domains within the campus core
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0 architecture component of virtualization.Which of the following is not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data Center?
A. Virtualized media access utilizing Fibre Channel over Ethernet
B. VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide for virtualized LAN and SAN connectivity, separating physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
C. Virtual Machines that run an application within the client operating system, which is further virtualized and running on common hardware
D. Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network devices are virtualized using device contexts
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not relevant?
A. whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC address is required
B. the number of shared media segments
C. which infrastructure service capabilities are required
D. whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus?(Choose two.)
A. Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so on) in the access layer, offloading the work from the distribution and core layers.
B. Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid PVST+.
C. Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast propagation.
D. Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are not possible.
E. Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for operational error.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are unique from the distribution and access layers.Which of the following is true about the core layer?
A. The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and Layer 3 services and features.
B. The core layer provides high availability to support the distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge.
C. The campus core layer is optional.
D. The core layer requires high performance to manage the traffic policing across the backbone.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters apart, which two solutions can be utilized? (Choose two.)
A. multimode fiber
B. Fibre Channel
C. HVDC transmission lines
D. single-mode fiber
E. serial RS-232
F. Gigabit Ethernet 1000BASE-CX
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
Which of these statements is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the enterprise network core layer, when designing a network based on its switched hierarchical design?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which one of these statements is true concerning the data center distribution (aggregation) layer design?
A. With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed by STP.
B. The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent of any other devices such as firewalls or content switching devices.
C. A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal.
D. In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core, exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol that will allow you to track overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by traffic type, and utilization by source and destination.
Which is ideally suited for this function?
A. MRTG
B. NetFlow

C. RRD
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which of the following three options represents the components of the Teleworker Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified IP Phone
B. Cisco 880 Series Router
C. Aironet Office Extend Access Point
D. Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
E. Cisco 2900 Series Router
F. MPLS Layer 3 VPN
G. Leased lines
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 28
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the designer have their own strengths.Which one of these statements is an example of such a strength?
A. Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of oversubscription on aggregate network performance.
B. N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to minimize intercontroller roaming events.
C. N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center.
D. N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the same subnet for more efficiency.
Correct Answer: B Exam B

QUESTION 1
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?
A. signal attenuation
B. required bandwidth
C. required distance
D. electromagnetic interference
E. cost
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. access layer aggregation
B. route summarization
C. network trust boundary
D. next-hop redundancy
E. layer 2 switching
F. port security
G. broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true concerning enterprise edge distribution switches?
A. The speed of switching is the most critical feature.
B. Security requirements are offloaded to the other modules for performance reasons.
C. Edge distribution switches are only required when using a collapsed core backbone.
D. Enterprise edge distribution switches are similar to the building distribution layer.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. All areas need to connect back to area 0.
B. The OSPF process number on each router should match.
C. NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0.
D. Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links.
E. ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise campus network. In a fully redundant topology, which is likely to provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
A. redundant supervisors
B. redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
C. single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D. single supervisors
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows the network architect to create up to four separate control and data plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
A. virtual port-channel
B. virtual routing and forwarding
C. virtual switching system
D. virtual device context
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodulesare part of this module?
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center

E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure best-practice access layer design for the enterprise campus? (Choose three.)
A. Portfast
B. UDLD
C. Root Guard
D. BPDU Guard
E. Flex Links

F. SPAN
G. EtherChannel
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
A. network application characteristics
B. routing protocol characteristics
C. switching latency characteristics
D. packet filtering characteristics
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the name of the NX-OS technology that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any IP network?
A. Overlay Transport Virtualization
B. Virtual Private LAN Services
C. Generic Routing Encapsulation
D. QinQ tunneling
Correct Answer: A

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The actual Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-864.html exam questions and answers will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success.save your money and time on your preparation for your Cisco 640-864 certification exam. You will find we are a trustful partner if you choose us as your assistance on your Cisco 640-864 certification exam. Now we add the latest Cisco 640-864 content and to print and share content.

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.)
A. the monitoring of processor time on network devices
B. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic
C. the decoding and analyzing of packets
D. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network
E. the monitoring of user network utilization
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
What is the benefit of deploying a gatekeeper in an H.323 IP telephony network.?
A. provides spatial redundancy through the use of HSRP
B. provides load balancing via GUP when alternate gatekeepers are deployed
C. reduces configuration complexity by centralizing the dial plan
D. increases redundancy by allowing each gateway to maintain a copy of the dial plan
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
-Has a low initial cost
-Provides low-to-medium BW
–
Has medium-to-high latency and jitter Which technology would you suggest?

A.
ISDN

B.
X.25

C.
analog modem

D.
DSL

E.
wireless
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco security solution offers protection against “day zero” attacks?
A. Cisco IOS IPS
B. Cisco IOS Firewall
C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector
D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
E. Cisco Security Agent
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. intra-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. inter-office
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints? The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
A. RTCP
B. H.245
C. H.225
D. RAS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
B. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
C. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
D. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
E. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID Which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
F. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which two statements best describe intradomain route summarization? (Choose two.)
A. EIGRP and OSPF must be manually configured to summarize at non-classful boundaries.
B. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
C. OSPF and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
D. EIGRP and RIP automatically summarize at classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP and OSPF automatically summarize at non-classful boundaries.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two VoIP characteristics are affected most by codec choice? (Choose two.)
A. voice quality
B. voice packet header size
C. bandwidth required for voice calls
D. silent packet handling
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
A network design document is being prepared for a customer. Which three network design elements must be included? (Choose three.)
A. proof of concept
B. data sources
C. design details
D. organizational policies
E. implementation plan
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 11
Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing?
A. it always uses distance vector routing protocols
B. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored
C. it always uses permanent static routes
D. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge
E. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
A. Queuing occurs on the outbound interface.
B. Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ.
C. Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic.
D. WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed.
E. CQ is for time-sensitive protocols.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which two techniques can reduce voice packet transfer delay across a link of less than 512 kbps? (Choose two.)
A. deploy LFI
B. increase link bandwidth
C. extend the trust boundary
D. deploy software compression
E. increase queue depth
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be connected to VendorA via a single
dedicated link and to VendorB via redundant dedicated links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing.
Which of the following deployments describes the best intra-domain routing practice in this situation?

A. Redistribute the routes on each link between your company and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol.
B. Use IBGP to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
C. Use static routes to reach VendorA and EBGP to reach VendorB.
D. Use static routes to reach both VendorA and VendorB.
E. Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB using existing OSPF.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which statement can a network designer use to describe route summarization to an IT manager?
A. It is the grouping of ISP network addresses to minimize the number of routes to the Internet.
B. It is the grouping of multiple discontiguous subnets to increase routing performance.
C. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous networks and advertising as one large network.
D. It is the grouping of multiple contiguous subnets into one Class A, B, or C IP address to minimize
routing table size. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

All primary links are T1s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office from the
Headquarters office.
Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two.)

A. dial backup routing
B. shadow SVC
C. permanent secondary WAN link
D. VPDN

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation. The layer’s IT
resources include servers, storage, and clients. The layer represents how resources exist across the
network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity. Which Cisco SONA
architecture layer is being described?

A. Application
B. Integrated Transport
C. Physical
D. Networked Infrastructure
E. Interactive Services
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19

Which information should a network summary report identify?
A. actions needed to support the existing network
B. customer requirements
C. new network features
D. customer requirement modifications
E. actions needed to support existing network features
F. infrastructure shortcomings
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 20
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.711 WAN bandwidth: 768Kbps Packet Header: 6 bytes Payload: 160 bytes CRTP: No How
many calls can be made?

A. 7 calls
B. 13 calls
C. 8 calls
D. 9 calls
E. 11 calls
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
C. Perform a traffic analysis.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
F. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 22
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. matching RF power
B. matching security
C. assigned master controller
D. matching mobility group name
E. matching RF channel
F. matching RF group name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
B. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
C. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
D. over 200 users and a two-tier design
E. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
A company is designing a worldwide IPv6 network with duplicated file servers at multiple locations. Each file server contains identical reference information. Which IPv6 address type would be used to allow each end station to send a request to the nearest file server using the same destination address, regardless of the location of that end station?
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in Which Enterprise Campus layer do the Enterprise Edge and Enterprise WAN modules establish their connection?
A. Building Access
B. Building Distribution
C. Campus Core
D. Enterprise Branch
E. Enterprise Data Center
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)
A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 27
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises Which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 28
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 29
You are designing a small branch office that requires these attributes: support for 60 users the growth capacity to add another 15 users soon redundant access higher bandwidth between the Layer 2 switch and routing to the WAN Which branch office topology or technology must be used?
A. EtherChannel
B. loop-free
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
E. integrated routing and switching
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, Which
will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies:
Frame Relay ATM SONET cable DSL wireless
From a Layer 1 viewpoint,
Which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected?

A. Internet Connectivity
B. E-Commerce
C. PSTN
D. Edge Distribution
E. ISP
F. WAN/MAN
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 31
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
A. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
B. A good implementation plan.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A successful test network test.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 32
Drag and Drop A.

B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.

You are documenting the existing network of a customer with a large installed Cisco network. The routers
listed are in use on the network.
Which two additional pieces of information would be the most valuable in completing your documentation
of these routers? (Choose two.)

A. software revisions
B. interface options
C. power requirements
D. error statistics
E. management protocols
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 34
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Develop a high-level migration plan.
B. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Identify Which network management protocol will be used for Which function.
E. Order the equipment.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
You are designing IPv6 into an existing IPv4 network.
Which two strategies can you use to allow both address schemes to coexist, thus facilitating migration?
(Choose two)

A. translate one protocol into the other
B. redistribute between IPv6-capable and non-IPv6-capable routing protocols
C. encapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets
D. bridge between the IPv6 and IPv4 networks
E. enable anycast capability in the routing protocol

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 36
A network is being designed to meet the requirements listed.
Within the enterprise network:
All routers are Cisco 3800 Series routers running the latest Cisco IOS release.
The fastest convergence time possible is required.
Unequal cost load-balancing is required.
For Internet connections:
A single link is used to connect to a single ISP.Which two routing protocols should be used?(Choose two.)

A. Use Internal BGP as the IGP within the enterprise.
B. Use Static (Default) routing between the enterprise and the ISP.
C. Use OSPF as the IGP within the enterprise.
D. Use EIGRP as the IGP within the enterprise.
E. Use EIGRP between the enterprise and the ISP.
F. Use External BGP between the enterprise and the ISP.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two.)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
B. Guest tunnels have limitations on Which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
C. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
F. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.
Correct Answer: EF
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
B. QoS should be performed only in the core.
C. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
E. Policy-based traffic control is implemented in the core to enable prioritization, ensuring the best performance for all time-critical applications.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
For Which technology is IPsec required for a site-to-site enterprise WAN/MAN architecture?
A. self-deployed MPLS
B. ATM
C. Frame Relay
D. SP MPLS VPN
E. ISP Service
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 40
What does Cisco recommend as the foundation of any deployed security solution?
A. Customer needs
B. Security audit
C. Service-level agreement
D. Corporate security policy
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
What is the administrative distance of eBGP routes?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 20
D. 110
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 42
Which name is for the Cisco product that provides centralized, policy-based security management?
A. IDS
B. Out-of-band management
C. AAA
D. CSPM

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
Which statement represents a likely starting point for planning network changes?
A. Protocol assessment
B. Determining the design requirements
C. Determining the business needs
D. Determining the application requirements

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 45
What does IGMP stand for?
A. Internet Group Management Protocol
B. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
C. Interior Group Management Protocol
D. Interior Gateway Media Protocol

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
ISDN is short for Integrated Services Digital Network. Under what category of WAN technologies does ISDN belong?
A. Cell-switched
B. Circuit-switched
C. Packet-switched
D. Leased lines

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
As a network engineer, can you tell me accounting management on a network-management system allows a network manager to perform Which function?
A. Assess the network’s effectiveness and throughput
B. Charge back to users for network resources
C. Performance management
D. Identify problem areas in the network

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Which address type is 225.10.1.1?
A. Unicast
B. Anycast
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
What is the length of the key used with Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)?
A. 64 bits
B. 168 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 56 bits
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit.

Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer

Correct Answer: B

Our material on our site Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-864.html is exam-oriented, keeping in view the candidates requirements and level of understanding.Cisco 640-864 materials are in the most popular and easy-to-use PDF version. You can use it on any devices with you anywhere.

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Flydumps Free Study Guide For Cisco 640-822 Exam With New Added Questions Ensure 100% Pass

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We provide thoroughly reviewed Cisco 640-822 using the training resources which are the best for Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/640-822.html test, and to get certified by Microsoft Windows Store apps. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. Now we add the latest Cisco 640-822 content and to print and share content.

Exam Description
The Cisco 640-822 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)
Topic 2 – Implement IP addressing and Services(18 Questions) Calculate and apply a VLSM IP addressing design to a network Determine the appropriate classless addressing scheme using VLSM and summarization to satisfy addressing requirements in a LAN/WAN environment Describe the technological requirements for running IPv6 (including: protocols, dual stack, tunneling, etc) Describe IPv6 addresses Identify and correct common problems associated with IP addressing and host configurations
Topic 3 – Configure and troubleshoot basic operation and routing on Cisco devices. (69 Questions) Compare and contrast methods of routing and routing protocols Configure, verify and troubleshoot OSPF Configure, verify and troubleshoot EIGRP Verify configuration and connectivity using ping, traceroute, and telnet or SSH Troubleshoot routing implementation issues Verify router hardware and software operation using SHOW DEBUG commands Implement basic router security
Topic 4 – Implement, verify, and troubleshoot NAT and ACLs in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. (20 Questions) Describe the purpose and types of access control lists Configure and apply access control lists based on network filtering requirements Configure and apply an access control list to limit telnet and SSH access to the router Verify and monitor ACL’s in a network environment Troubleshoot ACL implementation issues Explain the basic operation of NAT Configure Network Address Translation for given network requirements using CLI Troubleshoot NAT implementation issues
Topic 5 – Implement and verify WAN links. (24 Questions) Configure and verify Frame Relay on Cisco routers Troubleshoot WAN implementation issues Describe VPN technology (including: importance, benefits, role, impact, components) Configure and vary PPP connection between Cisco routers

Exam A
QUESTION 1 Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A. show ip route
B. show interfaces
C. show s0/0 status
D. debug s0/0
E. show run
F. show version

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which commands display information about the Cisco IOS software version currently running on a router? (Choose three.)
A. show running-config
B. show stacks
C. show version
D. show flash
E. show protocols
F. show IOS

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 4 After the shutdown command has been issued on the serial 0/0 interface, what will be displayed when the show interface serial 0/0 command is issued by the administrator?
A. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down
B. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is administratively down
E. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
F. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Refer to the output of the three router commands shown in the exhibit. A new technician has been told to add a new LAN to the company router. Why has the technician received the error message that is shown following the last command?

A. The interface was already configured.
B. The interface type does not exist on this router platform.
C. The IOS software loaded on the router is outdated.
D. The router does not support LAN interfaces that use Ethernet.
E. The command was entered from the wrong prompt.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is malfunctioning.
B. The system is not powered up.
C. The system is powered up and operational.
D. The system is forwarding traffic.
E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.
“First Test, First Pass” – www.lead2pass.com 5
Cisco 640-822 Exam
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown.
According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA
handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the topology and partial configurations shown in the exhibit. The network administrator has finished configuring the NewYork and Sydney routers and issues the command ping Sydney from the NewYork router. The ping fails. What command or set of commands should the network administrator issue to correct this problem?

A. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# cdp enable
B. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# no shut
C. Sydney(config)# line vty 0 4 Sydney(config)# login Sydney(config)# password Sydney
D. Sydney(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.9
E. Sydney(config)# interface s0/0 Sydney(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.5 255.255.255.252 NewYork(config)# ip host Sydney 10.1.1.5

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method?
(Choose two.)

A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 10 Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

Correct Answer: A

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IT Exams Cisco 640-816 Pass Certification Dumps Exam Training Questions And Answers

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
A junior network engineer has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of
the planned configuration for interface fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A. The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
B. Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet.
C. The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
D. The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
E. Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is the default Local Management Interface frame type transmitted by a Cisco router on a Frame Relay circuit?
A. Q933a
B. B8ZS
C. IETF
D. Cisco
E. ANSI
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Host B should be in VLAN 13.
B. The address of host C is incorrect.
C. The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.
D. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.
E. The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands: hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248 no shutdown interface FastEthernet 0/1 ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface Serial 0/0 ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252 no shutdown ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1 What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Correct Answer: DE

 

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have just been configured by a new technician. All interfaces are up. However, the routers are not sharing their routing tables. What is the problem?

A. Split horizon is preventing Router2 from receiving routing information from Router1.
B. Router1 is configured for RIP version 2, and Router2 is configured for RIP version 1.
C. Router1 has an ACL that is blocking RIP version 2.
D. There is a physical connectivity problem between Router1 and Router2.
E. Router1 is using authentication and Router2 is not. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?

A. The output represents normal OSPF operation.
B. The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.
C. The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border router.
D. A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is the IP address of the connected interface.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Refer to the output from the show running-config command in the exhibit. What should the administrator do to allow the workstations connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to obtain an IP address?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0.
B. Add access-list 14 permit any any to the access list configuration.
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEtherent 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1.
D. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in the hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology shown in the exhibit. Originally, static routes were configured between these routers to successfully route traffic between the attached networks. What will need to be done in order to use RIP v2 in place of the static routes?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on R1, R2, and R3.
B. Dynamic routing protocols such as RIP v2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks.
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two subinterfaces and configure point-to-point links to R2 and R3.
D. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet.
E. Change the network address configurations to eliminate the discontiguous 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway. Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?

A. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26 Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26 Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24 Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24
B. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30
C. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
D. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27 Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28 Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29 Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30 Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816

A. The PVC is experiencing congestion.
B. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.
C. The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.
D. The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

A. The command establishes a static route.
B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
E. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
F. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 16
Refer to the graphic. Users on the Holyoke router are unable to access the intranet server attached to interface E0 of the Chicopee router. Inspection of the routing table of the Holyoke
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
router shows that an entry for the Chicopee E0 network is missing. Which command will configure the Holyoke router with a path to the intranet server network?

A. Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.2
B. Holyoke(config)# ip host Chicopee 201.73.127.0 255.255.255.0
C. Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.38.0
D. Holyoke(config)# ip network 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0
E. Holyoke(config)# ip route 202.18.18.0 255.255.255.0 201.73.127.2
F. Holyoke(config)# ip route 201.73.127.2 255.255.255.0 202.18.18.0

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
A network administrator would like to implement NAT in the network shown in the graphic to allow inside hosts to use a private addressing scheme. Where should NAT be configured?

A. Corporate router
B. Engineering router
C. Sales router Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
D. all routers
E. all routers and switches

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A. during high traffic periods
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SLIP
D. LCP
E. DLCI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0 /24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface
on the Ethernet network.
B. Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB.
C. Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.
D. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.
E. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero.
F. No further configuration is necessary.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 22
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23
When are packets processed by an inbound access list?
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 640-816
A. before they are routed to an outbound interface
B. after they are routed to an outbound interface
C. before and after they are routed to an outbound interface
D. after they are routed to an outbound interface but before being placed in the outbound queue

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.248
C. 0.0.0.224
D. 0.0.0.8
E. 0.0.0.7
F. 0.0.0.3

Correct Answer: E

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Exam Cisco 640-816 With New Added Questions To Ensure 100% Pass

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Exam A QUESTION 1

To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following commands could be used in R2? (Choose two.)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2

After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 2
A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 3 R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Riverside Towing is redesigning the network that connects its three locations. The administrator gave the networking team 192 168.45 0 to use for addressing the entire network. After subnetting the address, the team is ready to assign the addresses. The administrator plans to configure ip subnet-zero and use RIP v2 as the routing protocol. As a member of the networking team, you must address the network and at the same time conserve unused addresses for future growth. With those goals in mind, drag the host addresses on the left to the correct router interface. One of the routers is partially configured. Move your mouse over a router to view its configuration. Not all of the host addresses on the left are necessary.

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A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:

 

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00::/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and itis :: 1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7

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Refer to the exhibit. Given the partial configuration shown in the exhibit, why do internal workstations on the 192.168.1.0 network fail to access the Internet?
A. A NAT pool has not been defined.
B. The wrong interface is overloaded.
C. NAT has not been applied to the inside and outside interfaces.
D. The access list has not been applied to the proper interface to allow traffic out of the internal network. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 5
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
A. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
B. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
F. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 9
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 6
A. A switch in the VTP client modecannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.
B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown
C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which mask is correct to use for the WAN link between the routers that will provide connectivity while wasting the least amount of addresses?
A. /23
B. /24
C. /25
D. /30
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12

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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the interfaces of the Main_Campus router from the output shown?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 8 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 14

ActualTests.com
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C

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New Updated Cisco 640-816 Offer New Cisco 640-816 Free Dumps With PDF And VCE Download Flydumps Free Study Guide For Cisco 640-816

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
A. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
B. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23 access-list 1 premit ip any any
C. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21 access-list 1 premit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
E. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
F. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 premit ip any any
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2

A. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on s a VLAN to the Switch 2 VLAN database
B. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information will be passed on s a VLAN to the Switch 2 VLAN database
C. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on s a VLAN to add the Switch 2 VLAN database
D. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch 2 VLAN database
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3

A. Change the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 subnetworks so that at least two bits are borrowed from the last octet
B. Configure the no ip subnet-zero command on R1, R2 and R3
C. Configure the s0/0 interface on R1 as two sub interface and configure point-to-point links to R2 and R3
D. Dynamic routing protocol such as RIPv2 cannot be used across Frame Relay networks

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4

A. deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 permit ip any any
B. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80
C. permit ip any any deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 D. deny tcp 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80 permit ip any any

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5

A. They increase the size of collision domains
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function
C. They can enhance network security
D. They increase the size of broadcast while decreasing the number of collision domains
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains
F. They simplify switch administration

Correct Answer: BCE

Cisco 640-816 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism. The main purpose of Cisco 640-816 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification
QUESTION 6

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet from accessing to a switch port
B. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch managment interface over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9

A. Add an interface description to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface configuration
B. Apply access-group 14 to interface FastEthernet 0/0
C. Configure the IP address of the FastEthernet 0/0 interface to 10.90.201.1
D. Add access-list 14 permit any ny to the access list configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10

A. Replace the straight-through cable with a crossover cable
B. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /25
C. Change the subnet mask of the hosts to /26
D. Change the address of Workstation A to 192.0.2.15
E. Change the address of Workstation B to 192.0.2.111
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11

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