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September 15, 2017 No Comments

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Exam Code: 200-125
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Updated: Sep 07, 2017
Q&As: 966

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. What are three roles in HFM security? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Run Allocation
B. Delete Journals
C. Create Unbalanced Journals
D. Save System Report on Server
200-125 exam Answer: ACD
2. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are Export Data Criteria options?
A. Scenario, Year, View, Entity, Accounts
B. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Value, ICP
C. Scenario, Year, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Entity, Accounts, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: A
3. When using the HFM HAL adapter, which are valid Import Data Method options?
A. Replace, Merge, Aggregate
B. Merge, Accumulate, Remove
C. Accumulate, Replace, Clear
D. Merge, Replace, Accumulate
200-125 dumps Answer: D
4. You are extracting information using Extended Analytics. Which list shows all the dimensions that allow
for multiple members?
A. Scenario, Year, Period, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
B. Scenario, Year, Period, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
C. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Account, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
D. Scenario, Year, Period, View, Entity, Value, Account, ICP, Custom1, Custom2, Custom3, Custom4
Answer: D
5. You are performing a data extract using the Extract Data module. From which three dimensions can
you make multiple selections? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: BCD
6. Extended Analytics uses which format for the extracted information?
A. ASCII File
B. Star Schema
C. Snow Flake Diagram
D. Comma Delimited File
Answer: B
7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (CHOOSE TWO)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB
8. What are three available methods for the HFM HAL adapter? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Import Data
B. Import Journals C.
Export Journals D.
Open Application
E. Set Logon Information
200-125 exam Answer: ADE
9. What types of documents can be selected as related content in Financial Reporting? (SELECT
THREE)
A. An Interactive Reporting Report
B. Any web page
C. A Web Analysis Report D. An HFM Web Form
E. A Planning form
Answer: ABC
10. Which two must be selected to enable the Data Audit feature for selected accounts? (SELECT TWO)
A. DataAuditTrail in the ApplicationSettings
B. Data Auditing in the Data Audit Window
C. EnableDataAudit on the selected Accounts
D. Y for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
E. O for the EnableDataAudit property in the Scenario dimension
Answer: CE
11. Which formula retrieves the data for January sales in Smart View?
A. =HsGetCell(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
B. =HsGetValue(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
C. =HsGetCell(“Account#Sales.Period#January.”)
D. =HsGetValue(“A#Sales.P#January.”)
200-125 dumps Answer: B
12. To use Multiple data sources in Financial Reporting, the data sources:
A. Need to be defined on separate reports inside a book.
B. Can be on the same page, but segregated by grid.
C. Can be assigned by Row and Column.
D. Can be assigned to specific cells.
Answer: C
13. In Smart View, Excel formulas that you add to data cells are automatically preserved in which of these
actions? (CHOOSE THREE)
A. Using the Keep Only or Remove Only function.
B. Zooming in or zooming out.
C. Pivoting data from a row to a column.
D. Refreshing the Ad Hoc grid.
Answer: ABD
14. Which two statements are true about a User Point of View in Hyperion Analyzer Reports? (CHOOSE
TWO)
A. A User Point of View cannot be deleted.
B. A User Point of View can be shared with other users.
C. Users can only superimpose a Point of View on reports using the same database connection
D. The User Point of View checkbox in Cube Navigator enables and disables the Point of View for the
database query.
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: CD
15. System Journal Reports require to be generated and saved. (CHOOSE TWO)
A. Journal Filters
B. a report description
C. a Report Style Sheet
D. the columns that have been defined
Answer: CD
16. SCENARIO: User A is created in Hyperion Reports and is assigned the role of Viewer. User A is then
assigned to Group B which has the roles of Security Administrator and System Administrator. Which
role(s) does User A have in Hyperion Reports?
A. Viewer only
B. Designer and Viewer only
C. System Administrator and Security Administrator only
D. System Administrator, Security Administrator, Designer, and Viewer
200-125 exam Answer: D
17. An HFM user is creating a journal report on the web. Which three dimensions from the POV are
available on the Properties panel to select members? (CHOOSE THREE.)
A. Value
B. Entity
C. Period
D. Account
E. Scenario
Answer: ACE
18. Which steps are needed to change a Hyperion Analyzer Spreadsheet to a Chart?
A. Tool Bar > Charts
B. Tool Bar > Tools > Charts
C. Tool Bar > Display > Charts
D. Tool Bar > Display > Pinboard
Answer: C
19. Which three functions are available in the Manage Servers and Applications window? (CHOOSE
THREE)
A. Logout Users
B. System Messages
C. Enable Connections
D. Disable Connections
200-125 ccna pdf Answer: ACD
20. Which functionality is NOT available when opening a data form in Smart View?
A. Calculating data
B. Add cell text
C. Add Member
D. Add formulas
Answer: C
21.Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause
of the problem?
200-125 dumps

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be
configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
22.What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 200-125 dumps Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that
address are received.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
23.Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port
security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame
is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
200-125 dumps

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Cisco New CCNA 200-125 PDF Routing and Switching | Free Cisco Exam Video Training Online 2017

March 9, 2017 No Comments

200-125 CCNA

At Lead4pass, we provide thoroughly reviewed Cisco CCNA 200-125 training resources which are the best for clearing 200-125 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Associated Certifications:CCNA Routing and Switching
Duration:90 minutes (50-60 questions)
Available Languages:English, Japanese
Exam Registration:Pearson VUE
Exam Policies:Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial:Review type of exam questions
Total Questions: 572 Q&As
Last Updated: Feb 28, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.leads4pass.com/200-125.html

The practice tests consists of 300+ most relevant questions with flash card explanation. The exam topics for CCENT are given below:

Network Fundamentals 20% (weightage)
LAN Switching Fundamentals 26%
Routing Fundamentals 25%
Infrastructure Services 15%
Infrastructure Maintenance 14%

The CCNA exam and training course have been revised from v2.0 to v3.0. Candidates can choose to take either the 200-120 CCNA v2.0 exam or 200-125 CCNA v3.0 exam.

Practice Cisco 200-125 Route Training Program Online Here(#1-5)

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125 pdf
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address
192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address
0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of
192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the
TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from
source to destination.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 pdf
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the
frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the
MAC header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a
packet is destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet’s network
layer header (such as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain
source and destination network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s
MAC address in the MAC header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the
following steps:
1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header. The router
checks the packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and
examines the network-layer header to determine what to do with the packet.
2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too
far to be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is
the maximum number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop
count of 15, the router discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value.
Unlike the IPX hop count, which increments as the packet is forwarded through each
router, the IP TTL value decrements as the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If
an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router discards the packet. A router cannot
decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists
available networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number),
and the distance to those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet,
the router must build a new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows
95/98 workstation, type ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC
header for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the final
destination’s MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

Question No : 3 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)
200-125 pdf
Answer:

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local
network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and
without decreasing network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D
Explanation:

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a
single physical interface.
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both
Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment
will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in
that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the
address.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on
a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network
device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with
other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each
segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of
collision domains.

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Cisco 200-120 Exam Certification, Welcome To Buy Cisco 200-120 Practice Test On Our Store

July 25, 2016 No Comments

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QUESTION 21
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches. Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge. Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.
QUESTION 23
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
A. VTP
B. 802.1q
C. IGP

D. ISL
E. 802.3u Correct Answer: BD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.
QUESTION 24
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005 Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed. VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 25
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.
QUESTION 26
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
A. Switch A – Fa0/0
B. Switch A – Fa0/1
C. Switch B – Fa0/0
D. Switch B – Fa0/1
E. Switch C – Fa0/0
F. Switch C – Fa0/1
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question is to check the spanning tree election problem.
1.
First, select the root bridge, which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the smallest will be selected. Bridge-id= bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that SwitchB is the root bridge.

2.
Select the root port on the non-root bridge, which can be completed through comparing root path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port.

3.
Next, select the Designated Port. First, compare the path cost, if the costs happen to be the same, then compare the BID, still the smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the exhibit above, we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is SwitchA’Fa0/1, because it has the smallest MAC address.
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a trunk. The “switchport mode trunk” command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not be listed over that trunk interface.
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN. In this case, the native VLANs are different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.
QUESTION 29
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network. To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50 seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure. RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to converge. RSTP bridge port roles:
*
Root port ?A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost

*
Designated port ?A forwarding port for every LAN segment

*
Alternate port ?A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port for the segment.

*
Backup port ?A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.

*
Disabled port ?Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port
QUESTION 30
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operates at Layer 2 Data Link layer -> .
QUESTION 31
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the interface if it is in its MAC address table. If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all interfaces except the one it was received on.
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?
A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not the root bridge ->
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> 0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC
address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1 Alternative port so it is
not the root bridge.

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A VLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions, project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis. Security: VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate with them LAN Segmentation
VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2 broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN, switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.
QUESTION 34
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
B. tracert address
C. traceroute address
D. arp address
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be no router hops involved.
QUESTION 35
Based on the network shown in the graphic Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: DF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.
QUESTION 37
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames. Correct Answer: BE
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked and non-marked. Non- marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports. Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports.. Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost. In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:

SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU. One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself) with an initial value of 0. Now let’s have a look at the topology again

SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port -> Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

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New Questions-100% Valid Cisco 642-447 New Questions for Cisco 642-447 Exam

May 19, 2016 No Comments

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What are the three characteristics that govern the type of Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model? (Choose three.)
A. number of applications
B. size
C. type of applications
D. network characteristics
E. services provided by the PSTN carrier
F. geographical distribution

Correct Answer: BDF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose three.)
A. It uses one-way RTP point-to-point.
B. There is a single user per audio stream.
C. Networks and devices have to support multicast.
D. It increments by IP address for different audio sources.
E. It uses the multicast group address 239.1.1.1 to 239.255.255.254.
F. It uses enterprise parameters to set the codec type or types used by music on hold services

Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The Bulk Provisioning Service needs to be activated prior to submitting a job through Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT. Where is the Bulk Provisioning Service activated?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability Service Activation
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified CM Administration
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Enterprise Parameters
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Parameters Bulk Provisioning Service

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447 Which of these statements are true?

A. 1001 can watch 1002, but not 1003.
B. 1002 can only watch 1003.
C. 1003 can only watch 1001.
D. 1001 can watch 1002 and 1003.
E. 1002 cannot watch any extension.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
If an IP phone has a device CSS that permits access to all internal and external numbers, which line CSS, would restrict access to toll free numbers?
A. block local, block international
B. block local, toll free and block international
C. block toll free
D. block local, block long distance, block toll free

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three of these are considered Cisco Unified Communications Manager Network services?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. Cisco DB Replicator
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco TFTP
F. Cisco DirSync

Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447

QUESTION 8
Which two of these describe how media resources and audio streams operate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Audio streams are terminated differently depending on the signaling protocol, such as SCCP or SIP.
B. All media resources register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Signaling between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and hardware media resources uses the same protocol as the call-signaling type
D. Audio streams are always terminated by media resources.
E. There are no situations in which IP phone-to-IP phone audio streams will go directly between endpoints.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two of these are required in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support software conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated on the server running the conferencing service in the cluster
B. The service parameter for the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to have Run Flag set to True.
C. The software conference bridge resource needs to be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated for all servers in the cluster.
E. Under the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application parameters, the conference bridge needs to have Run Flag set to True.

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
When A CSV file is created for use with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Auto-Register Phone Tool, how is the IP phone MAC address configured?
A. A dummy MAC address is entered for each phone in the CSV file.
B. The MAC address is left blank in the CSV file and Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT imports the CSV file with the Create Dummy MAC Address option selected.
C. When the CSV file is created, the Create Dummy MAC Address option must be selected before the file is uploaded into the Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT tool.
D. The MAC address is left blank in the CSV file and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447 BAT queries the Cisco Unified Communications Manager device database for the MAC address that matches the extension created in the CSV file.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window

Correct Answer: BCF Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
If no SIP dial rules are configured on an IP phone, at what point in the collection of digits does a Type A SIP phone send digits to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. when the interdigit timer expires
B. when the collected digits match a SIP dial rule
C. when the user presses the Dial softkey
D. as each digit is collected (it is sent for analysis)
E. when the user presses the # key

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447 There is a translation pattern that prefixes +1 to the calling number 3013013001. Assume the gateway is configured with a calling party transformation CSS that contains the HQ_clng_pty_pt partition. When 3013013001 places a call to the PSTN, what is the caller ID as it egresses the gateway.

A. 3013001
B. 3013013001
C. +13013001
D. +13013013001
E. 13013013001

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447 What is the output displayed on the IP phone when the incoming calling number is 00492288224002?

A. +492288224002
B. +00492288224002
C. +0049I288224002
D. +49128822400
E. +49122288224002
F. +491288224002

Correct Answer: F Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast music on hold? (Choose two.)
A. It uses one-way RTP point-to-point.
B. There is a single user per audio stream.
C. Networks and devices have to support multicast.
D. It decrements by port number for different audio sources.
E. It uses the multicast group address 239.1.1.1 to 239.255.255.254.
F. It uses service parameters to set the codec type or types that are used by conferencing services

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager BAT features provide a robust alternative to DRF? (Choose two.)
A. performs bulk transactions for Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. exports data (phones, users, gateways, and so on); exported files can be modified and re-imported
C. supports globalization
D. has an import and export function that can be used to move data records from one Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to another Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447
E. exports data (phones, users, gateways, and so on); exported files can be modified and re-imported in the Active Directory database

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which information is provided to the IP phone from the TFTP server?
A. the IP address of the DNS server
B. device configuration files and firmware upgrade files
C. time and date information
D. the name resolution protocol that allows IP applications to refer to other systems by logical names instead of IP addresses

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
What is the maximum number of call processing servers supported in a single cluster?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 20
F. 24

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
If an IP phone loses connectivity with its primary server and registers with its backup server, what happens when connectivity to the primary server is restored?
A. The IP phone will try to re-establish a connection to the primary server every 90 seconds.
B. The IP phone will continuously try to re-establish a connection with the primary server; if successful, the IP phone will re-register with the primary.
C. Once the IP phone registers with the backup server, the administrator will need to reset the IP phone for it to re-register with the primary server.
D. Once connectivity is re-established with the primary server, the IP phone will wait until there have been three successful TCP keepalive exchanges before it will re-register with the primary server.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Build Your Dreams PassGuide 642-447
DRAG DROP
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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New Questions 100% Pass Cisco 642-432 Exam By Training Pass4cert New Cisco 642-432 Exam Dumps

May 18, 2016 No Comments

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs are currently connected to T1 ISDN circuits.
Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You are meeting with a customer that has deployed IP telephony at their headquarters location. They would like to roll out IP telephony to their regional office as well. They are now using the G.711 codec at headquarters. They want to be able to maximize the number of calls carried without impacting voice quality or forcing a WAN upgrade. Which codec would be appropriate for their WAN?
A. G.726
B. G.723.1
C. G.711
D. G.729B

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Users are not able to complete a call from 678-555-1212 to 770-555-1111. What is the correct diagnosis for the problem?

A. incorrect dial-peer statement in Router 1
B. incorrect port statement in Router 1 pots dial peer
C. incorrect session-target statement in Router 2
D. incorrect destination-pattern in Router 1

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You have been forwarded some questions by a prospective VoIP customer who would like to know the Cisco default sample size for the G.729 codec. What is it?
A. 40 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 20 ms
D. 10 ms

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Examine the example output.
hostname GW1 ! interface Ethernet 0/0 ip address 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 h323-gateway voip interface h323-gateway voip id GK1-zone1.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.2 h323-gateway voip h323-id GW1 h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.1 ! dial-peer voice 1 voip destination-pattern 1212.
session-target ras ! dial-peer voice 2 pots destination-pattern 2125551212 no register e164 ! end
Choose the command that will restore communication with gatekeeper functionality to this device.
A. h323-gateway voip h323-id GK1
B. gateway
C. h323-gateway voip bind srcaddr 172.16.2.2
D. h323-gateway voip GW1-zone2.abc.com abc.com ipaddr 172.16.2.1

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which preference key word assigns top precedence to a dial peer in a hunt-group?
A. 0
B. priority
C. 1
D. high

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7

You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use Wink-Start signaling.
Which signaling type will allow you to support the customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
A 9 digit number must be dialed to reach numbers on the PSTN. What process makes sure that the first digit 9 is not transmitted as part of the called number?
A. digit alternating
B. digit masking
C. digit manipulation
D. digit seizing

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the E.164 numbering plan?
A. a proprietary PBX number plan
B. the IETF North American number plan
C. the European PBX standard telephony number plan
D. the ITU worldwide number plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?

A. 19,200 bps
B. 51,600 bps
C. 79,200 bps
D. 247,200 bps

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
In the connection between a Cisco router and an E&M port on a PBX, which side is generally the Cisco side?
A. loop start
B. trunk circuit
C. switch port
D. signaling unit

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which dial plan characteristic shows the most obvious improvement by dropping a number translation step?
A. availability
B. post-dial delay
C. scalability
D. hierarchical design

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What are two basic parameters needed to setup a dial peer connected to the PSTN? (Choose two.)
A. voice port
B. signaling type
C. interface bandwidth
D. destination pattern

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which device is used to allow an H.323 stream to transit a firewall?
A. gatekeeper
B. gateway
C. proxy
D. MCU

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
You are working with your customer in their lab to test the effect of jitter on voice quality. You have set the maximum playout delay to 40 ms on the voice enabled routers. What will be the impact on voice quality if after severe congestion the playout buffer empties and the source sends packets to the buffer faster than they are leaving?
A. There will be no noticeable drop in quality.
B. The jitter buffer will adapt to the faster-arriving packets by expanding the buffer size.
C. The jitter buffer will speed up delivery of packets to the DSP so that packets are not dropped.
D. After the jitter buffer fills up, subsequent packets are discarded.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge voice and data on the existing T1 Frame Relay WAN link between New York and Atlanta. The customer has allocated 25 percent of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. You are using 6 bytes of overhead for Frame Relay, no cRTP, and the G.729 codec.
How many calls could be placed on this link?

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
E. six
F. seven

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
In a VoIP environment when speech samples are framed every 20 ms, a payload of 20 bytes is generated. Assuming a total packet length of 60 bytes, what is the length of the packet header if cRTP is deployed without redundancy checks?
A. 1 byte
B. 2 bytes
C. 3 bytes
D. 4 bytes
E. 20 bytes
F. 40 bytes

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
You have a customer that is interested in determining the number of VoIP calls their Frame Relay WAN links can support. Each of their Frame Relay WAN links has 84 kbps of bandwidth available outside all other applications and overhead. How many G.729 calls using the 8 kbps codec and 20 byte sample size can be supported?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use an in-band signaling type.
Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. QSIG
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. E&M
F. FXO

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A network has the following characteristics:
?the use of the G.711 codec with a codec speed of 64 kbps ?a 160-byte sample size ?the use of Frame Relay without compressed Real-Time Transport Protocol (CRTP) ?FRF.12 with 6 bytes of overhead
What minimum WAN bandwidth would be required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls?
A. 247200 bps
B. 19200 bps
C. 79200 bps D. 51600 bps

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
At what point does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. does not release call path setup
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. after the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?

A. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552.[0-5]0
B. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination pattern 5552[5-6].0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 555[2-5][56]
D. dial-peer voice 1 pots destination-pattern 5552[5-6][05]0

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
King’s Mountain Cable has a pair of voice enabled routers capable of supporting only high complexity codecs. They need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which two codecs satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. G.729
B. G.729a
C. G.729b
D. G.729ab

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which gateway interface connects to the standard station port of a PBX?
A. FXS
B. E&M
C. POTS
D. FXO

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Your customer has forwarded this diagram and configuration. The customer wishes to have a connection between its PBXs, a connection that is created and dropped as required. There is one configuration statement missing from each router. What are the two missing statements? (Choose two.)

A. connection trunk 2015551000404555?
B. connection trunk 4045551200
C. connection tie-line 4045551200
D. connection tie-line 404555?
E. connection tie-line 2015551000
F. connection trunk

Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. What is the minimum WAN bandwidth required to support three simultaneous VoIP calls in this network?

A. 19,200 bps
B. 51,600 bps
C. 79,200 bps
D. 247,200 bps

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Which process changes an internal extension into a fully qualified external PSTN number before matching to a dial peer?
A. digit masking
B. forward digits
C. number expansion
D. prefix extension

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which type of signaling is DTMF?
A. supervisory
B. route
C. informational
D. address

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which type of delay is caused when large data packets block voice packets from the outbound interface?
A. queuing delay
B. serialization delay
C. propagation delay
D. packetization delay

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Drop

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You have a pair of voice enabled routers that have the capability of supporting only high complexity codecs. You need to conserve bandwidth on WAN links without major impact to call quality. Which codecs will satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. G.729
B. G.729A
C. G.729B
D. G.729.AB

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
When does the MGCP call agent release the setup of the call path to the residential gateways?
A. after the call agent has been notified that an event occurred at the source residential gateway
B. after the call agent has been notified of an event and has instructed the source residential gateway to create a connection
C. The call agent is never out of the call path setup.
D. after the call agent has sent a connection request to both the source and destination and has relayed a modify-connection request to the source so that the source and destination can set up the call path
E. ater the call agent has forwarded session description protocol information to the destination from the source and has sent a modify connection to the destination and a create-connection request to the source

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
The following are the original dial peer configurations for routers R1 and R2:R1:dial-peer voice 20 voipdestination-pattern 408…….session target ipv4:192.168.2.254!R2:dial-peer voice 21 potsdestination-pattern 4085554321port 1/0/1!Which phones can call to the other?

A. Only Phone A can call Phone B.
B. Only Phone B can call Phone A.
C. Both phones can call each other.
D. Neither phone can call the other.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Examine the following PBX system parameters: The calling side seizes the line by going off-hook on its E-lead and sends information as DTMF digits. The voice path is 4-wires, and the voice enabled router is in another building from the PBX.Select the correct set of commands to allow communication between a voice enabled router and a PBX.
A. voice port 1/0/0 signal immediate-start operation 4-wire type 2
B. voice-port 1/0/0 signal delay-dial operation 4-wire type 1
C. voice port 1/0/0 signal wink-start operation 4-wire type 3
D. voice port 1/0/0 signal immediate-start operation 4-wire type 4

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which device is used to allow an H.323 stream to transit a firewall?
A. gatekeeper
B. gateway
C. proxy
D. MCU

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
One voice packet is lost between Phone A and Phone B. What will be the result to the listener?

A. The call is terminated.
B. The listener will experience a gap in the received audio stream.
C. The listener will hear the audio normally. Packet loss concealment will make the loss inaudible.
D. The listener will hear the audio out of order when the lost packet is retransmitted.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the graphic for IP addresses and telephone numbers. You are working with a customer that is opening a small sales office in London. You would like to be able to have the user in London be able to dial into the PBX in New York over the IP WAN. The New York PBX uses loop start, a two-wire operation, and DTMF dialing. Please choose the correct FXO port configuration for New York.

A. voice-port 1/0/0 signal loop-start operation 2-wire dial-type dtmf
B. voice-port 1/1/1 destination 2015551212 signal loop-start operation 2-wire type 1 dial-type dtmf
C. voice port 1/0/0 session target ipv4:172.16.1.1 destination 2015551212 signal loop-start operation 2-wire dial-type dtmf

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the MGCP call agent?
A. acts only as a recorder of call details
B. provides only call signaling and call setup
C. manages all aspects of the call and voice stream
D. monitors the quality of each call after setup

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
What is the E.164 numbering plan?
A. a proprietary PBX number plan
B. the IETF North American number plan
C. the European PBX standard telephony number plan
D. the ITU worldwide number plan

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You have been asked to configure a dial peer on R2 that will match only the extensions of the four telephones attached. Which dial-peer statement will you use?

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11
You are working with a potential customer that would like to integrate its existing PBX telephone system into its IP network. The accompanying figure shows that the customer has two offices that need to be connected to the IP network so that the customer can exchange telephone calls without using the PSTN. Both PBXs use a proprietary signaling type.Which signaling type will allow you to support your customer?

A. E&M
B. CCS
C. CAS
D. T-CCS
E. FXO
F. FXS

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
What are the three components in an MGCP environment? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. gatekeeper
C. endpoint
D. call agent
E. proxy server

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
You are the voice technician at Certkiller . Certkiller has its offices in Great Britain. You need to install a
Cisco router to support IP Telephony services with direct-connected analog phones. You need to emulate
the local PSTN provider.
What FXS port parameter do you need to change?

A. Pulse
B. Signal
C. Cptone
D. Busyout
E. Description
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 2
Certkiller distributes computer components and has warehouses in New York and Chicago. Headquarters is located in Washington, DC. To keep costs low, all inside sales associates are located at headquarters. Your want to provide a direct analog telephone connection to the inside sales teams from the pick-up counters at the warehouses. This connection should not require the inside sales teams to dial any digits. One of the warehouses is having a problem with their sales phone. You receive the following output: altwhse#show voice port 1/0:1 Foreign Exchange Office Type of VoicePort is E&M Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP The Last Interface Down Failure Cause is Administrative Shutdown Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Music On Hold Threshold is Set to -38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attenuation is Set to 0 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancel Coverage is set to 8 ms Connection Mode is plar Connection Number is 2000 Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 s Region Tone is set for US What is the cause of the problem?
A. VoicePort type is incorrect.
B. Echo cancellation is enabled.
C. Connection Number is not required.
D. Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 seconds.
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what types of trunks Cisco support with the connection trunk command. What will your reply be? (Choose three)
A. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to FXO trunks, and FXS to E&M trunks
B. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
C. FXS to FXS trunks, FXO to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
D. FXO to FXS trunks, FXO to FXO trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks
E. FXS to FXS trunks, FXS to E&M trunks, and E&M to E&M trunks

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 4
What happens if no incoming dial peer matches a router or gateway?
A. The incoming call leg takes an alternate path.
B. The incoming call leg matches the default dial peer.
C. The incoming call leg sends a busy to the originator.
D. The incoming call leg is denied and the call is dropped.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 5
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and a branch office in New Hamshire. You want to configure a permanent connection between the PBX at headquarters and the PBX at the branch office. The following configuration is used at the New York site: destination-pattern 20 port 1.0:1 destination-pattern 41 session target ipv4:10.2.0.20 The following configuration is used at the New Hamshire site: destination-pattern 41 port 1.0:1
dial-peer voice 41 voip destination-pattern 20 session target ipv4:10.4.1.41 What must be added to the voice port configuration at the New York site?
A. connection trunk 20
B. connection trunk 41
C. connection tie-line 20
D. connection tie-line 41
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You must specify the same number in the connection trunk voice port command as in the appropriate dial
peer destination-pattern command in order to create a permanent trunk.

QUESTION 6
Certkiller sells managed IP Phone service to businesses in multi-tenant units. Certkiller has POPs in many
cities, so all of their dial peer patterns are based on 10 digit numbers.
Users dial 9 for local calls, followed by the 7 digital local number.
The following dial peer has been configured in a New York POP:
destination-pattern 595
port 1/0:24
A user dials a local number, 94422.
What command must be configured in the gateway to allow the call to complete?

A. prefix 595
B. forward-digits 7
C. rule 1 9…….595…….

D. forward 9…….595…….

E. num-exp 9…….595…….
Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
configuration would define a destination pattern for all of the 1000 and 2000 range of extensions starting
with the numbers 555.
What will your reply be?

A. 5551…
B. 5552…
C. 555[1-2]…
D. 555[100-200]…
E. 555[1000-2000]…
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 8
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . The Certkiller network uses RTCP. Your newly appointed
Certkiller trainee wants to know what RTCP does.
What will your reply be?

A. It provides independent services irrespective of RTP.
B. It provides compression techniques to save bandwidth.
C. It provides in-band control information for an RTP flow.
D. It provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RTCP provides out-of-band control information for an RTP flow.

QUESTION 9
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . The Certkiller network uses VoIP. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what the disadvantage of using VoIP rather than VoFR or VoATM are. What will your reply be?
A. Data can arrive out of sequence.
B. Networks are complicated to design.
C. Data units can arrive out of sequence.
D. Network failures are not automatically found.
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 10
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You have configured real-time call control processing on the
Certkiller VoIP network. You want to verify this configuration.
What command should you use?

A. debug voip rtcp
B. debug call control
C. debug voip ccapi inout
D. debug voip call control
E. debug voice call control
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 11
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what a
voice gateway is.
What will your reply be?

A. It is a device that connects two dissimilar networks.
B. It is a device that transports voice and restricts data.
C. It is a device that can support only a distributed call processing model.
D. It is a device that cannot be connected to the traditional PSTN network.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 12
Certkiller has its headquarters in New York and branch offices in Delaware, Detroit and Denver. Each office has an analog phone at each location. These phones are connected to an FXS port on the on-site router. The Finance department at the Denver office is unable to make any phone class from these analog phones. You receive the following output: 2611#s voice port 1/0/0 Foreign Exchange Station 1/0/0 Slot is 1, Sub-unit is 0, Port is 0 Type of VoicePort is FXS Operation State is DORMANT Administrative State is UP No Interface Down Failure Description is not set Noise Regeneration is enabled Non Linear Processing is enabled Non Linear Mute is disabled Non Linear Threshold is -21 dB Music On Hold Threshold is Set to 38 dBm In Gain is Set to 0 dB Out Attention is Set to 3 dB Echo Cancellation is enabled Echo Cancellation NLP mute is disabled Echo Cancellation NLP threshold is -21 dB Echo Cancel Coverage is set to default Playout-delay Mode is set to default Playout-delay Nominal is set to 60 ms Playout-delay Maximal is set to 200 ms Playout-delay Minimum mode is set to default, value 40 ms Playout-delay Fax is set to 300 ms Connection Mode is normal Connection Number is not set Initial Time Out is set to 10 s Interdigit Time Out is set to 10 s Call Disconnect Time Out is set to 60 s Ringing Time Out is set to 180 Wait Release Time Out is set to 30 s Companding Type is u-law Region Tone is set for US Analog Info Follows: Currently processing none Maintenance Mode Set to None (not in mtc mode) Number of signaling protocol errors are 0 Impedance is set to 600r Ohm Station name None, Station number None Voice card specific Info Follows: Signal Type is groundStart Ring Frequency is 25 Hz Hook Status is On Hook Ring Active Status is inactive Ring Ground Status is inactive Tip Ground Status is inactive Digit Duration Status is inactive Digit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms InterDigit Duration Timing is set to 100 ms No disconnect acknowledge Ring Cadence is defined by CPTone Selection Ring Cadance are [20 40] * 100 msec 2611# What is the cause of this problem?
A. The cptone is incorrect
B. The dial-type is incorrect
C. The signal type is incorrect
D. The playout-delay is incorrect
E. The disconnect-ack is incorrect
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has been using the following dial peer codec command: Codec g729r8 You reconfigure the dial peers with the following command: Codec g729ar8 bytes 10 How will this reconfiguration affect the voice network bandwidth and delay characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. There will be no change.
B. Delay will increase on a per call basis.
C. Delay will decrease on a per call basis.
D. Bandwidth consumption will decrease on a per call basis.
E. Bandwidth consumption will increase on a per call basis.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know which
features render VAD ineffective.
What will your reply be? (Choose two.)

A. Fax
B. CNG
C. Call waiting
D. Music on hold
E. Call forwarding
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 15
You are the VoIP engineer at Certkiller . A Certkiller user complains that she gets a busy tone instead of a
dial tone when she tries to call another user. You want to troubleshoot this problem.
What command should you use?

A. show voice dsp
B. show voice path
C. show voice connection
D. show voice port summary
E. show dial-peer voice summary
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 16
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
compressed RTP does.
What will your reply be?

A. It significantly reduce packet delay
B. It significantly reduce total bandwidth
C. It significantly reduce Frame Relay overhead
D. It significantly reduce the total number of packets
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 17
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has its offices in London. You are installing a voice
gateway.
What do you need to verify? (Choose two.)

A. The PSTN standards in England.
B. Encryption capabilities legalities.
C. The service provider installing the gateway.
D. Supplementary service including fax and modem.
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 18
What identifies an MGCP endpoint?
A. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and local name of the user.
B. A two part identifier that consists of the telephone number and remote name of the user.
C. A two part identifier that consists of the domain name of the user and the IP address of the gateway.
D. A two part identifier that consists of the local name of the user and the domain name of the gateway.
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 19
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You to connect a Cisco voice gateway to a PBX or the PSTN
via ISDN (PRI, QSIG, BRI).
What are two attributes of the PBX/PSTN switch that must be known to understand which features to
configure on the voice gateway to connect successfully to it? (Choose two)

A. Whether Q.921 or Q.931 is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
B. Whether Symmetric mode is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
C. Which PRI/BRI switch-type is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
D. Whether network or user side is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
E. Whether wink, delay dial, or immediate dial is supported by the PBX/PSTN switch.
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 20
Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what protocol negotiates the codec type for H.323
sessions.
What will your reply be?

A. H.225
B. H.245
C. Q.931
D. Q.932
E. H.320
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 21
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
request method initiates a SIP call setup.
What will your reply be?

A. ACK
B. INVITE
C. OPTIONS
D. REGISTER
E. DISCOVER
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 22
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You want to verify the registration of the gateway with the call
agent.
Which show command should you use?

A. show mgcp
B. show call agent
C. show gateway mgcp
D. show endpoint mgcp
E. show call active voice
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 23
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
makes it possible for gatekeepers to communicate with each other.
What will your reply be?

A. RTP
B. RAS channel
C. call signaling channel
D. H.245 control channel
E. Q.931 control channel
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 24
What does gateway require to function as a translating gateway?
A. The capacity to translate the audio.
B. The ability to recognize the call control procedures of both connecting endpoints.
C. The ability to establish separate RTP sessions with the originating and terminating endpoints.
D. The ability to recognize the call control procedures for at least one of the connecting endpoints.
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 25
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Numerous Certkiller users complain that they are unable to
complete calls through the MGCP network. You want to verify the extent of the problem by reviewing a
count of the successful and unsuccessful control commands.
Which command should you use?

A. show mgcp
B. show mgcp count
C. show mgcp statistics
D. show call active voice
E. show call history voice
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which of the following call control models are based on decentralized call control? (Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. CAS
C. H.323
D. Q.931
E. MGCP
Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 27
You are the Voice engineer at Certkiller . Certkiller has an H.323 gatekeeper. Your newly appointed
Certkiller trainee wants to know what functions are supported by this gatekeeper.
What will your reply be? (Choose four.)

A. It provides services to registered endpoints.
B. It converts an alias address to an IP address.
C. It responds to bandwidth requests and modifications.
D. It provides translation between audio, video, and data formats.
E. It provides conversion between call setup signals and procedures.
F. It limits access to network resources based on call bandwidth restrictions.
G. It provides conversion between communication control signals and procedures.
Correct Answer: ABCF Section: (none) Explanation QUESTION 28
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You are configuring a connection to a SIP proxy server. Which command would you use to specify the IP address of the server?
A. sip-ua sip-server 2.3.4
B. sip-ua sip-server target:1.2.3.4
C. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip:1.2.3.4
D. dial-peer voice 1 voip session target sip-server:1.2.3.4
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 29
With regard to SIP and SDP, which of the following statements is true?
A. SIP is similar to RAS and SDP is similar to RTP
B. SIP is similar to RTP and SDP is similar to RAS
C. SIP is similar to H.225 and SDP is similar to H.245
D. SIP is similar to H.245 and SDP is similar to H.323
E. SIP is similar to H.323 and SDP is similar to H.225
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 30
You are the Voice technician at Certkiller 60. Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know on
what type of port you would set impedance.
What will your reply be?

A. T1
B. E1
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. E&M
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
QUESTION 31
You are the network engineer at Certkiller . You are deploying an IP telephony solution using MGCP. The call agent expects the gateway to use UDP port 2427 but an application on the Certkiller network is already using that port. You want to use port 4662 instead. Which command would allow you to change the UDP port that the call agents and gateway communicate on?
A. Router(config)# mgcp UDP 4662
B. Router(config)# mgcp gateway 4662
C. Router(config)# mgcp call-agent 4662
D. Router(config-dial-peer)#application MGCPAPP 4662
E. Router(config)# mgcp default-package gm-package 4662
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
After connecting to a codec via WebGUI, you are prompted for a username and password. Which username password combination is codec by default?
A. Cisco, Cisco
B. admin, Cisco
C. Cisco, Cisco
D. admin, cisco

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1300?
A. The system is designed to support meetings of six to eight participants
B. The system features three 65-inch screens, three cameras, microphones, and speakers
C. Voice-enabled switching is performed by the codec to select the active speaker in the room and capture the video for the remote side
D. The power and Ethernet outlets must be positioned directly behind the unit

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
When using Auto-Collaborate. What two actions need to be done to display the laptop content after connecting the cable? (Choose two)
A. Press the Auto-Collaborate softkey
B. Initiate Auto-Collaborate on the codec’s GUI
C. Set the laptop resolution to 1024×768
D. Set your laptop resolution to 1024×720
E. Use function key on the laptop to send signal to external display

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
During your RRA assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room you notice. · The HVAC diffuser has noticeable noise (measured at 48dB) which sounds like rushing air. What three recommendations should be made to the customer? (Choose three)
A. The customer should turn the fan level down on the HVAC system to insure the fan noise is minimized in the Cisco TelePresence room
B. The customer should contact an HVAC specialist to review and recommend an appropriate solution
C. The customer should not worry about the HVAC fan noise because the Cisco TelePresence System uses a noise suppression algorithm designed to identify HVAC fan noise and minimize those frequencies
D. The customer should replace the diffusers with a diffuser that is rated with a noise criterion of 10 or greater
E. The customer should replace the ducting directly above the room with acoustically treated ducting to remove the sound of rushing airflow

Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
In the Cisco TelePresence administration WebGUI, the camera Auto Adjust can be used to check which setting?
A. life size
B. zoom and focus
C. white color balance
D. HDMI input threshold

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
What is the leveling process for the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 frame?
A. With only one display, there is no need to level the frame before attaching it to the wall
B. Attach the frame to the wall and level the frame by raising or lowering the feet.
C. Place a level on the middle and upper crossbars and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the frame is horizontally level
D. Place a level on the side of the frame and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the frame is vertically level

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Identify the port number where the A/V expansion box should connect
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 9
F. 10
G. 11
H. 12
I. 13

Correct Answer: H Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which statement is correct when tuning the cameras by using the WebGUI of the Cisco TelePresence codec?
A. If there is a noticeable flicker on the screen, the 60 Hz Flicker Reduction button will eliminate the flicker and improve the image quality
B. If the user is 1 2 to 1 5 meters (four to five feet) away from the display, click the 4 feet radio button for the Focus Distinct radio choice. if the user is farther than 1 5 meters (five feet) away, click the 6 feet choice
C. It the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable r.idm button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance choices
D. Auto Color Balance can produce the best results when the colors of the walls in your room are white or gray

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which three statements are correct when tuning the camera on a Cisco TelePresence System? (Choose three.)
A. Target placement should match the green and red boxes on the screen, respectively
B. Place the large target three feet behind the small target.
C. Place the large target five feet behind the small target
D. Tune the camera so that the red and green bars line up as closely as possible
E. Perform auto-adjust to optimize focus and sharpness

Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras? (Choose two)
A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to add more light
C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam A
QUESTION 1
What is the valid range of gain for the correct white color balance?
A. greater than 1 and less than 5
B. greater than 2 and less than 5
C. greater than 1 and less than 7
D. greater than 2 and less than 7

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Given the following:
Cisco Telepresence endpoint A:
-Phone field Disable Speakerphone and Headset is checked
-DN configuration Auto answer is enabled
Cisco Telepresence endpoint B:
-Phone field Disable Speakerphone and Headset is unchecked
-DN configuration Auto answer is enabled
What happens when Cisco Telepresence endpoint A calls Cisco Telepresence endpoint B?
A. Cisco Telepresence endpoint A gets a fast busy
B. Cisco Telepresence endpoint B gets a ring and the call will establish as an audio-only call out of the Cisco IP-Phone
C. Cisco Telepresence endpoint B gets a ring and the cal will establish as a video-only call
D. Cisco Telepresence endpoint B gets a ring and the call will establish, but there is no audio or video

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
How should directory number of the phone and the Cisco Telepresence endpoint be configured in the Cisco Unified CallManager?
A. As a shared line where the codec and IP Phone share the same directory number
B. As a single line for the codec and a single line for the phone using the same directory number
C. As an overlay line using the same directory number
D. As a single line for the phone and it only has a directory phone number. The codec uses the IP address of the phone

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4

What is not a feature of the Cisco Telepresence System 500?
A. The system has a built-in empedded microphone array
B. The system supports life-size images on the display
C. The system has a built-in facade lighting control
D. The system has two embedded speakers to support wideband audio

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which two statements describe the design goals for the Cisco Telepresence system? (choose two)
A. Creating a uniform feeling across all installations helps to create the illusion of participants being in the same room
B. Cisco does not recommend colors so that customers can choose a palette that best complements their corporate standards, while creating an environment that is both warm and inviting
C. Customers should use different colors in each of the Cisco Telepresence rooms to help identify the diffrent locations
D. Textures and adornments on the walls should not be similar to those of the walls in the other rooms
E. Repeatability strengthens the feeling of a common seamless environment which enhances the overall experience

Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which statement is correct when focusing the camera on the Cisco Telepresence System 500? (Choose two)
A. The green rectangle on the display is aligned with the small target
B. The green rectangle on the display is aligned with the large target
C. The red rectangle on the display is aligned with the small target
D. The red and green bars must be the exact same length for prober calibration
E. It does not matter which target is aligned with which rectangle as long as each rectangle is aligned with one of the targets

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1100?
A. The system is designed for one to two participants on camera in Cisco Telepresence meetings
B. The system is designed for two or six participants to be displayed on camera at one time
C. The system incorporates the design of the Cisco Telepresence System 1300. However, it has a single 37 inch plasma
D. Video integration with digital signage is supported during a Cisco Telepresence call

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
The Cisco TelePresence System 1100 and 1300 left and right speakers are connected to which component?
A. codec
B. audio extension box
C. POU
D. light control box

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which two statements are correct when connecting a laptop direct to a codec to issue commands from the CLI? (Choose two)
A. Connect a PC to the secondary Ethernet camera port of the Cisco TelePresence codec
B. The Cisco TelePresence codec has two internal subnets (10.0.2.x / 24 and 172.16.2.x / 24) that are reserved for the secondary camera port
C. By default the username is Admin with a password of Cisco
D. Cisco TelePresence System IP address on the secondary camera port is the first address in the subnet that is assigned to your laptop by DHCP

Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
What is the command path and action on the Cisco TelePresence codec WebGUI to place the camera in loopback mode?
A. Configuration > Hardware Setup > Cameras and click Start
B. Hardware Setup > Configuration > Cameras and click Start
C. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup > Cameras and click Start
D. Configuration > Troubleshooting > Cameras and click Start

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11
Which would be considered the best environment to house a dedicated Cisco TelePresence system?
A. a conference room in the corner of a building with the best view
B. a conference room next to the elevator for easy accesibility
C. a conference room along an interior corridor
D. an open space in the demonstration area of a briefing center
E. a large meeting room used for events

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
The customer decides to use static IP addressing for the codec. Which three parameters must be configured? (Choose three)
A. IP address
B. IP address subnet mask
C. gateway IP address
D. NTP server IP address
E. DNS server IP address

Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Identify the port number where the A/V expansion box should connect
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
F. 9
G. 10
H. 11
I. 12
J. 13

Correct Answer: I Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras? (Choose two)
A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to add more light
C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance
D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
When booting Cisco TelePresence 500, how do you determine which IP address is used by the codec before connecting to the codec via WebGUI?
A. The codec uses 10.1.1.1 as its default IP setting
B. The IP address is displayed on the phone user interface
C. The IP address is displayed during the boot process on the plasma
D. The codec uses 192.168.200.2 as its default IP setting

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Drag the CTS 1000 quick assembly functions from the left and place on the right from start to finish order
Select and Place: Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Using a supported browser, where must you navigate to test each component from the WebGUI of the Cisco Telepresence codec?
A. Configuration > Hardware Setup
B. Troubleshooting > Configuration issues
C. Configuration > System Settings
D. Troubleshooting > Hardware Setup

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which statement is correct when discussing room materials for a Cisco Telepresence room?
A. The audio subsystem is not designed to deliver excellent performance to normal drywall room surfaces
B. Standard drywall walls with a smooth finish are preferred
C. Walls and wall coverings with a heavy texture are encouraged
D. Cinder block and brick can be highly reverberant and therefore will likely require a coat of paint
E. Thin walls and doors should be enough to block unwanted sound from leaking into the room

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which device will cause a Cisco TelePresence call to drop if not plugged in?
A. Auto-Collaborate cable
B. camera HDMI
C. microphone
D. speaker

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

Identify the port number where the HFR (Presentation) Codec Ethernet should connect.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 9 F. 10
G. 11
H. 12
I. 13

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Given the following: Cisco TelePresence endpoint A: In the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, Quality is set to High Detail, Good Motion: 720p Cisco TelePresence endpoint B In the Unified CM, Quality is set to High Detail, Best Motion:1080p What happens when Cisco TelePresence endpoint A calls Cisco TelePresence endpoint B?
A. Cisco TelePresence endpoint A gets a fast busy.
B. The call connectsbut it drops with a Configuration mismatch error on Cisco TelePresence endpoint B.
C. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality upgrades to 1080p and the call goes through at 1080p.
D. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality drops down to 720p and the call goes through at 720p.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the most effective way to way improve the continuity of a Cisco TelePresence room?
A. lighting fixtures
B. adornments
C. room color
D. artwork

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which two wall treatments does Cisco recommend for a Cisco TelePresence room? (Choose two)
A. Use a glass wall.
B. Place a whiteboard on the wall.
C. Use flat paint with neutral color.
D. Use wallpaper with neutral color.
E. Use a wood paneled wall.
F. Use a cinder block wall with neutral color.
G. Use glossy paint with neutral color.
Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which measurement is performed on the Acoustilyzer AL 1 that filers out low frequency sound to approximate the response of the human ear?
A. A-weighted SPL
B. C- weighted SPL
C. RTA SPL
D. RT-60 SPL

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which is a design requirement for Cisco TelePresence room aesthetics?
A. Every room should be identical.
B. Maintain continuity in appearance among rooms.
C. Carpet patterns and textures match from room to room.
D. All rooms should be painted brown.
E. The only wall treatment should be paint.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
When performing the Auto White Balance Adjustment on a Cisco TelePresence 3000, which three statements are correct? (Choose three)
A. Lights must be set as they would be during a Cisco TelePresence meeting.
B. The RJ-45 cables must be unplugged from the cameras not being configured to ensure that each camera is set up independently.
C. Ensure that no movement in the room might cross in front of the camera or create shadows on the target board.
D. Target boards should be set up on each table segment at the same time. The adjustment runs on all segments at the same time to capture the exact lighting for a consistent configuration.
E. The adjustment must be run on eachsegment and can be run only one segment at a time.
F. The adjustment needs to be run only on the center camera. The settings are duplicated on the left and right segments.

Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27
During the RRA, how should you hold the light sensor when taking the majority of light measurements?
A. Horizontally, so it gets the direct lighting from ceiling light fixtures.
B. Vertically, toward the displays to measure the light they put off.
C. Horizontally, toward and untreated windows to measure light coming in.
D. Vertically, so it is reading light as if it were hitting the participant’s face.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
What is the additional bandwidth consumption for the High Frame Rate codec to do 30 fps data collaboration?
A. 2 Mbps
B. 4 Mbps
C. 5 Mbps
D. 6 Mbps

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which is correct when determining a background color for a Cisco TelePresence room?
A. select a bright color that draws attention
B. select white so everything stands out in front of it
C. select the darkest colors so the plasmas will render other colors more accurately
D. select neutral tones to give the appearance of warmth without too much distraction

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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2016 First-hand Cisco 642-185 Actual Test, Cisco 642-185 VCE Dumps Free Download

May 17, 2016 No Comments

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Exam A QUESTION 1
When implementing WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker, both the clients and their brokers may reside on different intranets. This causes problems when a client attempts to connect to a broker. Which of the following should be recommended if their user application uses JMS over HTTP?
A. Use the WebSphere MQ Real-time Transport (JMS/IP) method.
B. Use the WebSphere MQ Telemetry Transport (SCADA) method.
C. Use the WebSphere MQ Enterprise Transport (MQ) method.
D. Use the WebSphere MQ Mobile Transport (WMQe) method.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
An insurance company needs to integrate its IT system with another company after a merger.
WebSphere MQ is already used by both companies and WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker is being considered as a possible solution. Transformation and routing will be performed locally at each company’s data center. The WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker solution must be capable of routing to multiple end points based solely on the content of the message data. What key feature of WebSphere MQ and WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker will support this requirement?
A. Transaction support
B. MQSeries clustering
C. Destination list support
D. Multi-broker support

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A bank is implementing a process to supply the hourly currency exchange rate information to all their branches. Once every hour, the bank sends the information to the branches. The branches must receive the information. What is the simplest way to do this using WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker?
A. Build DestinationData[ ] in LocalEnvironment, then use MQOutput Destination Mode to dynamically route to branch queues.
B. Store exchange rate information in a database and send a publication to the branches every hour.
C. Send publications every hour and require branches to use content-based subscription.
D. Use persistent publications and have the branches subscribe to the corresponding topic.

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 4
A company requires a message transformation based on database lookups from multiple data sources. The user ids for these data sources are different from the broker data base user id. Which of the following WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker features is used to handle this case?
A. Use the mqsichangebroker command.
B. Use the Promote Message flow feature.
C. Use the mqsisetdbparms command.
D. Use the mqsichangeproperties command.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
A company has its legacy formats as either ‘C’ header files or COBOL copybooks. After they have been imported, and the message definition files are complete, the message set can then be generated in a form that can be used by an application. Which of the following formats will the WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker NOT be able to generate?
A. A message dictionary
B. A XML Schema file
C. Web Services Description Language (WSDL) file
D. A DTD file

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A bank implementing an Internet banking solution will allow account holders having more than one account with the bank to transfer money between their own accounts. If the transfer succeeds, then the bank must log the transfer in a database for auditing purposes. Which of the following WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker functionalities is required to determine if the database will be
updated successfully?
A. Access Control List (ACL)
B. Transactional support
C. ESQL
D. WebSphere MQ Real-time (JMS/IP) Transport

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A large manufacturing company in London has recently merged with a similar sized company in Paris. The computer systems in each company are based on different hardware and software and both have an existing WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker Configuration Manager and Broker installed. New message flows need to be defined. The London-based administration department is allowed to administer only the London system, the Paris-based administration department is allowed to administer only the Paris system. Which of the following will provide a means to jointly create and manage message flows between London and Paris with minimal changes to the topology of the two existing WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker systems?
A. Create a new execution group under the WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker in London and administer from London.
B. Create a new execution group under the WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker in London and administer from London or Paris.
C. Place both domains under the same source control manager.
D. Create a third WebSphere Business Integration Message Broker Configuration Manager and broker to manage message flows between London and Paris.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
What is the BEST practice when designing a broker domain?
A. Share the Broker’s Queue Manager with the Configuration Manager.
B. Increase the number of Brokers when handling large messages.
C. Add one UserNameServer for each Broker.
D. Use a remote database for the Broker repository.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A customer wants to build corporate data from their manufacturing equipment into their inventory control
program running on z/OS. The manufacturing equipment is currently controlled and monitored through a
set of Allen-Bradley devices. What is the simplest way to feed the manufacturing equipment data through
a message flow?
A. Write a simple WebSphere MQ Everyplace application to run on the Allen-Bradley device and feed the data into the message flow using the MQeInput node.
B. Use the WebSphere Business Integration Adapter for Allen-Bradley and send MQ messages to a queue on the broker’s queue manager where they may be read by the message flow’s MQInput node.
C. Use an Arcom Controls Director device to read the data from the Allen-Bradley devices and read it into the message flow using the SCADA input node.
D. Use the Sybase adapter for Allen-Bradley that reads the Allen-Bradley database directly and sends the data to the message flow through the MQInput node.

Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
A banking customer wants strict control of changes to their production environment by isolating their
development, test and production environments. This ensures that no changes can be implemented in the
production environment by the development or test teams. Only one broker is required for production.
Which of the following procedures and minimum broker domain definition provides this control?
A. Define three broker domains, each with one Configuration Manager, one User Name Server and one Broker. Move new or modified resources between the domains using export files.
B. Define one broker domain with one Configuration Manager, one User Name Server and two Brokers. Give administrator user ids from each domain authority to deploy from the Configuration Manager only to their own Broker.
C. Define one broker domain, three Configuration Managers, three User Name Servers and three Brokers. Give administrator user ids from each domain authority to use their own Configuration Manager to deploy to their own Broker.
D. Define three broker domains, each with one Configuration Manager, one User Name Server and one Broker. Deploy new or modified resources from one domain’s Configuration Manager to the Broker in the next domain and assume the Websphere MQ intercommunication has been set up correctly between the domains.

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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