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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-29)

QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.


When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.


Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.


International calls are also failing. Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?
A. Prefix should be 00
B. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C. The port should be 0/0/0:12
D. The destination pattern is missing a “0”
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.


Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
210-060 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11. What is the most efficient development tool to use for rapid deployment of formatted reports without requiring coding?
A. Essbase Objects application
B. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files
C. Essbase Web Gateway deployed over their Intranet
D. basic Spreadsheet Add-In with template files and Extended Spreadsheet Macros
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 12. Given the Input data and the Outline in the exhibits, if Product and Market are sparse, which is an input level data block?
A. East->Root Beer
B. New York->Colas
C. New York->Diet Cola
D. New York->Root Beer
Answer: ABD

QUESTION 13. Given that Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, which file(s) would be restructured if a new member were added to the Product dimension?
A. none
B. data files only
C. index files only
D. both index and data files
210-060 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 14. Given the Outline in the exhibit, if Incremental Restructuring is enabled and Product and Market are the only sparse dimensions, what is the incremental restructuring implication if the Product dimension is moved after the Market dimension?
A. none
B. restructure deferred
C. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures data files only
D. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures index files only
E. overrides incremental restructuring and restructures both index and data files
Answer: D

QUESTION 15. If the average block density is between 10% and 90% and there are few consecutive repeating values or zeros, which data compression type is recommended?
A. RLE
B. Bit-Map
C. No Compression
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 16. When would disabling data compression be recommended?
A. when the average block density is very low (<3%).
B. when the average block density is very high (>95%) and few consecutive repeating values exist.
C. when the database contains many consecutive zero values or other consecutive repeating values.
Answer: B

QUESTION 17. In the Outline in the exhibit, Year and Measures are dense dimensions. Data is loaded for every Month, Measure, Market and Scenario. After a CALC ALL is run, how many blocks are there?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 24
D. 30
210-060 exam Answer: A

QUESTION 18. During calculation, what is the calculator cache used for?
A. for storing blocks
B. for tracking index page usage
C. for storing dynamically calculated values
D. for tracking calculation progress through the blocks
Answer: D

QUESTION 19. The BeginArchive and EndArchive commands are used for which procedure?
A. Exporting only a partial area of a database.
B. Backing up Essbase files while Essbase is still running.
C. Backing up Essbase files after Essbase has been shut down.
D. Shutting down Essbase and making a complete backup of the current database.
210-060 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION 20. If Committed Access is being used, which statements are true?
A. It retains redundant data until a transaction commits.
B. It acquires and releases Write locks as needed during the transaction.
C. It retains Write locks on all affected blocks until the transaction commits.
D. It does not restrict Read/Write access on data blocks during the transaction.
Answer: AC

QUESTION 21. Within Database | Statistics, what does block density indicate?
A. the actual number of blocks existing within the database
B. the average percentage of data cells within each block that contain data
C. the maximum possible number of blocks that could exist for this database
D. the percentage of blocks that exist compared to the total potential number of blocks
210-060 pdf Answer: B

QUESTION 22. What would defragment defrag a fragmented database?
A. adding a dense member to the outline
B. adding a sparse member to the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc and Store
Answer: A

QUESTION 23. What would cause fragmentation in a database?
A. deleting a dense member from the outline
B. deleting a sparse member from the outline
C. changing a member formula in the outline
D. redefining a Stored dense dimension member as Dynamic Calc (Non-Store)
210-060 vce Answer: B

QUESTION 24. The stored members in the dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded. Which statement is true about Database B?
A. The index would be half as large as Database A.
B. Half the number of blocks exist as in Database A.
C. Block density is reduced by 50% from Database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks would fit in the Data Cache as in Database A.
Answer: C

QUESTION 25. If you have a production database named Sales, which files should be backed up to perform a complete system backup?
A. sales.db
B. sales.otn
C. essbase.sec
D. ess00001.ind
210-060 exam Answer: ACD

QUESTION 26. An application on a test server is ready to be put into production. The production server already has three applications. What should you do to move the application from development to production?
A. Use the Application | Copy command.
B. Export data from the development application.
C. Copy the Essbase.sec file from development to production.
D. Copy the application directories from development to production.
Answer: B

QUESTION 27. What does the setting NETDELAY 500 represent?
A. the number of times the network will retry a connection before failing and reporting an error
B. the amount of time in seconds allowed to a Named Pipes network to establish a connection to your server
C. the amount of time in milliseconds an unsuccessful operation waits before Essbase retries the operation
D. the number of seconds an Agent thread waits for a resource to become available so it can perform a specific action
210-060 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION 28. Which file descriptions are correct?
A. basic.otl contains the outline
B. ess00001.ind stores data blocks
C. basic.esm is a storage manager file
D. basic.mdb is a partition definition file
E. ess00001.pag stores the database index
Answer: AC

QUESTION 29. What occurs upon execution of DISABLELOGIN in ESSCMD?
A. All server logins are disabled.
B. Logins to a specific database are disabled.
C.Logins to a specific application are disabled.
D. It logs out any users currently on a specific database.
210-060 pdf Answer: C

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