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QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router with firewall enabled, what happens when exact packet matching for fragments is enabled?
A. L3 information is recorded for all fragments
B. L3 information is recorded for first fragments
C. Non-L3 information is recorded for all fragments
D. Non-L3 information is recorded for first fragments

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Which three are benefits provided by Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) compared to Routing Information Protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
A. Greater network scalability
B. Performs faster network convergence
C. Supports a single routing path for faster packet routing
D. Forwards entire routing table for greater network efficiency
E. Supports unlimited number of hop counts for larger networks
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 93
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
3COM 5000/6000 routers support which two multicast routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. PIM-SM
B. PIM-DM
C. DVMRP
D. MOSPF
E. MBONE

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 95
Which two are security features supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Access Control Lists (ACL)
B. De-militarized Zone (DMZ) Firewall
C. IPSec with MD5, SHA1, 3DES and AES
D. Session Security Synchronization (SSS)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 96
Which three Quality of Service (QoS) features are supported on the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. Priority queuing (PQ)
B. Last in First Out (LIFO)
C. Committed access rate (CAR)
D. Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
E. Weighted random early detect (WRED)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 97
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 98
What are two features of the Backup Center function on the Router 5000 series? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a console port to be configured as a failover backup
B. Allows any WAN interface to be configured as a failover backup
C. Can provide additional bandwidth via load sharing on the primary link interface
D. Can automatically reconfigure an unused-physical interface to dynamically backup a link
E. Allows two Router 5000 units in the same physical location to provide backup in case one router fails

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 99
Which two commands are required to output RIP debugging information to the 3COM router (software version 2.x) console? (Choose two.)
A. [Router] Rip debug start
B. <Router>terminal debugging
C. <Router> debugging rip packet
D. <Router-console> debug enable
E. <Router> enable debugging channel 1

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 100
Which four protocols are supported by the Router 3000 family? (Choose four.)
A. IP
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX)
D. Border Gateway Protocol 4 (BGP-4)
E. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
F. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)

Correct Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 101
With software version 2.x, which command enables multicast routing for the entire router?
A. <RTA> igmp version 1
B. <RTA> PIM DM enable
C. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] PIM DM
D. [RTA] multicast routing-enable
E. [RTA-Ethernet0/0/0] igmp version 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 102
Which three are IP Multicasting advantages? (Choose three.)
A. Provides network congestion control for timely delivery of data
B. Optimizes performance and eliminates redundant network traffic
C. Uses TCP connection-oriented transmissions for reliable packet delivery
D. Makes efficient use of network bandwidth as the number of participants expands
E. Enables simultaneous delivery of information to many receivers without producing multiple copies of the same data

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 103
Which protocol, supported on the 3Com Router 5000/6000 series, should be used when the router has to send heavy amounts of traffic to different multicast groups?
A. MOSPF
B. IP Unicast
C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 104
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 105
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 106
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 107
Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows the mechanism for which PPP protocol?

A. RIP
B. LCP
C. PAP
D. NCP
E. CHAP

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 108
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Click the Exhibit button. In the Frame relay interface configuration shown, which command is unnecessary?

A. fr dlci 20.
B. link-protocol fr.
C. fr interface-type dce
D. fr map ip 192.0.0.1 20.
E. ip address 192.0.0.2 255.255.255.0.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 110
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 111
Which two statements correctly describe how the two dialer backup methods work? (Choose two.)
A. Dialer Listen backup monitors changes in the routing table
B. Circular DCC backup monitors changes in the routing table
C. Dialer Listen backup monitors packets on the main interface
D. Circular DCC backup monitors packets on the main interface
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 112
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 113
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 114
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 115
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
What is the bandwidth of an OC-3 connection?
A. 10 Mbps
B. 100 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 300 Mbps
E. 1024 Mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 118
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 119
What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection?
A. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value
B. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path
C. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path
D. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
Which two are true statements of BGP Route Reflection? (Choose two.)
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows all I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Without Route Reflection, all BGP routers in an Autonomous System must be fully-meshed
D. Route Reflection allows all E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
E. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
F. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers

Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 65
As the administrator, placing a check in the Fwd to Auto Attendant box sends a caller to the default system Auto Attendant. This overrides Voice Mail access, if the user has selected Voice Mail for call handling.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 66
Which three are features of the NBX Offsite Notification? (Choose three.)
A. Up to five different call numbers/options can be setup for a user offsite notification
B. Offsite notification privileges and options are defined in the User Configuration menu
C. Only messages tagged as “urgent” will be forwarded by the offsite notification feature
D. Offsite Notification must be enabled in the NBX Messaging, as well as, in the Class of Service (CoS)
E. Only the NBX system administrator or users with administrator privileges can use offsite notification
F. Users can be notified of voice messages to another internal extension, an external phone, a pager or via email

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 67
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Calling Group?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 68
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to create or modify a Hunt Group?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 69
Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define “ring progression” for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 70
Which four are features of the NBX Auto Attendant (AA)? (Choose four.)
A. Supports up to 100 AA
B. Can answer with or without a live attendant
C. Only answers when no live attendant is available
D. Any NBX user can create an AA for their extension
E. Can configure different AA based on time of day and day of week
F. Each AA can be configured when to time out and whether to hang up or forward the call
G. AA message can be recorded via an NBX phone or be an imported .wav or an MP3 file

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 71
Which four are attributes of the second generation NBX T1 Digital Line Card (3C10116D) and the E1 Digital Line Card (3C10165D)? (Choose four.)
A. Embedded CSU with CSU statistics
B. Requires NBX software Release 4.3 or higher
C. Provides both T1 and E1 support on the same card
D. Can be configured with up to 17 different IP addresses for Fractional Channel support
E. Includes a 100/1000 Mbps LAN port for improved packet throughput and reduced latency
F. Can be configured for G.729 audio compression and silence suppression for bandwidth efficiency
G. Has one Power Failure Transfer Port that can be used to make an outbound call in case of a power failure
H. Has remote Layer 3 support for communicating with a Network Call Processor (NCP) across a routed network

Correct Answer: ABFH
QUESTION 72
The NBX Communication System provides E911 (emergency) connectivity when the Digital Line Card is configured for T1 signaling.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
Each time a new Dial Plan is imported or modified, the system performs a consistency check.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
Which four are functions of the NBX Dial Plans? (Choose four.)
A. Dictates how calls are handled
B. Translates dialed digits into a specific destination
C. Forwards voice mail messages to internal extensions
D. Determines the route a call will take to its destination
E. Defines a set of destinations that can be reached by the NBX system
F. Translates single digit speed dial codes into full extension or outbound telephone numbers
G. Verifies if a user has the authorization to make the call, for example, long distance or trunk-to-trunk
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 75
Which three are features of the NBX Pretranslator function? (Choose three.)
A. Pretranslation is not available on Analog Line Cards
B. Each Pretranslation is used for either incoming or outgoing traffic
C. Each Pretranslation is used for both incoming and outgoing traffic
D. Outbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) supported by the Digital Line Card
E. A single outbound or inbound Pretranslation definition contains all the required translations defined in order from lowest-to-highest extension
F. Inbound Pretranslation is associated with the Dialed Number Identification Service (DNIS) or Direct Inward Dial (DID) supported by the Digital Line Card

Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 76
Which three are features of the NBX Dial Plan timed routes? (Choose three.)
A. Can designate a specific destination route for each time period
B. Can create route plans based on specific time-of-day or day-of-week
C. Can group time periods and point them to a specific route destination
D. Can disable specific routes for any time period, for example, holiday, night, etc.
E. Can create route plans based on pre-configured business hours – open, closed, lunch etc.
F. Can create route plans based on a specific date, for example, business, state or country holiday

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 77
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
Which three bandwidth reduction methods are supported by the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Pulse Code Modulation (PCM)
B. Adaptive Transform Encoding (ATE)
C. ITU-T G.723 bandwidth compression
D. ITU-T G.729 bandwidth compression
E. Silence suppression on a per-device basis only
F. Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM)
G. Silence suppression on a system-wide or per-device basis
Correct Answer: DFG
QUESTION 79
Which three are NBX IP licensing features or requirements? (Choose three.)
A. Every NBX device requires a fixed IP address
B. A DHCP server is required to use IP On-the-Fly
C. IP On-the-Fly is included with all new NBX base systems
D. Companies can upgrade their license from IP On-the-Fly to Standard IP
E. IP addresses can be supplied via static or DHCP addressing when using Standard IP
F. An NBX phone can operate as a Layer 3 “IP Phone” on a per-call basis when using IP-on-the-Fly

Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 80
Which three are important considerations when configuring/calling a remote NBX phone connected via a cable modem or DSL link? (Choose three.)
A. Enable silence suppression and low bandwidth options in the NBX
B. Fixed or DHCP IP address can be assigned to remote NBX phones
C. An NBX gateway is required to support remote users without an NBX
D. All phone calls between the central and remote sites use Layer 2 IP packets
E. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can provide the remote phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user
F. Network Address Translation (NAT) should be configured for the central site but NAT should not be used at the remote site
G. The Network Call Processor (NCP) can be configured to provide the local phone an IP address for the duration of a call to a remote user

Correct Answer: ABG
QUESTION 81
Which three are requirements for conference call support across Virtual Tie Lines (VTL)? (Choose three.)
A. Requires Standard IP license for each participating NBX system
B. Must use same range of multicast addresses on all NBX systems
C. WAN routers must support Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP)
D. Internet Gateway Multicast Protocol (IGMP) addresses must be defined
E. Music on Hold (MOH) and internal page initiation must be done from NetSet
F. Requires Network Address Translation (NAT) configuration on Virtual Tie Lines

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 82
Virtual Tie Lines allow NBX Communication Systems and legacy PBX equipment to place calls between one another without using Analog or Digital connections.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Which four are features/requirements of the NBX Desktop Call Assistant (DCA) application? (Choose four.)
A. Requires Microsoft Windows 2000 or Windows XP
B. Requires one 3Com SKU and license per NBX system
C. Supports point and click dialing to any phone in the user directory
D. Provides personal inbound/outbound call logs with caller ID information
E. Uses Microsoft Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) to manage calls
F. Computer with NBXTSP software must have a physical connection to an NBX phone
G. Users can manage all their calls from a single on-screen computer interface, for example, call transfer, conferencing, call park

Correct Answer: CDEG
QUESTION 84
Inbound NBX Computer Telephony Integration (CTI) calls support directory dialing, on-screen dialing and call processing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85

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QUESTION 55
Which two Switch Fabric Engine LED conditions indicate there is a problem with the Switch 7700? (Choose two)
A. ALMLED is off
B. ALMLED is blinking
C. RUN LED is solid green
D. RUN LED is blinking green Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 56
When two PCs on the same Virtual LAN (VLAN) are unable to communicate with each other, which three procedures will help troubleshoot the Layer 2 Data Link issue? (Choose three)
A. Flush the IP routing table
B. Check the VLAN setting for each port
C. Check the LED status on each of the ports
D. Clear and reset the Spanning Tree Protocol tables
E. Flush the Address Resolution Protocol table
F. Check the bridge forwarding table to ensure the IP/MAC address assignment is correct
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware features/functions of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Full/half duplex on all ports
B. Four traffic queues per port
C. Store and forward switching
D. GBIC interface for flexible cabling
E. 12,000MAC addresses per unit, 64 permanent
F. Smart auto-sensing across all multi-speed copper ports
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 58
Which four are switch configuration features of the Superstack 3 switch 4900 Family? (Choose four)
A. Configuration information is stored in a read-only file
B. Switch configuration can be stored or restored from a remote server
C. Up to three software images can be saved in the switch’s flash memory
D. The switch must be reset to the factory default before a configuration can be saved
E. Only a manager or security access level user can perform save or restor operations
F. All switch information is saved to the configuration file i.e, passwords, IP addresses, etc..
G. During the software upgrade the new image will always overwrite the standby image
H. The configuration of the Distributed Fabric is saved and restored with eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN)

Correct Answer: ABH
QUESTION 59
XRN Technology v2.0 allows network architects to scale bandwidth capacity.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which three are features of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing? (Choose three)
A. 15 maximum router hops
B. Uses a path cost routing metric
C. Updates routing tables when network topology changes occur
D. By default, peridoc updates are sent every 30 seconds between routers
E. Maximum hops are limited only by the size of the routing tables within routers

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which class of IP addresses is reserved for IP multicasting?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Any class of IP address may be used for IP multicasting
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 62
Which LAN technology provides both incremental bandwidth and redundancy between devices?
A. Resilient Links
B. Aggregated Links
C. IEEE 802.3 1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
E. IEEE 802.3 1W Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Your Maluti University (MU) data center design uses a single Switch 8814 to support the campus backbone, the server farm and the wiring-closet connections in Building 9. Which four current Switch 8800 features address Maluti Univerisity (MU) network requirements? (Choose four)
A. With no single point of failure, the switch creates a reliable, high-availablity solution
B. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
C. Support integrated Services (IntServ) and RSVP to provide flow-based, fine-grain control over network traffic.
D. With the load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric, the switch has a maximum aggregated throughput of more than 400 Mpps
E. Multiple priority features will ensure key applications receive the best network response,i.e;right priority queues per port,weighted Random Early Diction (WRED) queuing and DiffServ support.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 64
Which 3Com solution would you recommend for the Maluti University (MU) data center in Building 9 to create the highly-redundant campus backbone connecting the four distribution buildings?
A. Option A -One Switch 7700 8-Slot Chassis Starter Kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Option B -One Switch 8810 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CGBIC92)
C. Option C -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -One Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Module (3C17508)
D. Option D -One Switch 8814 Starter Kit with -One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17516) -Eight 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) -Two Switch 8800 360 Gbps Fabric Modules (3C17508) Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the Satellite Buildings to the data center switch?
A. One 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
B. Multiple 2-port 10 GBASE-X modules (3C17512) with 10GBASE-ER XENPAK transceivers
C. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LH SFP Transceivers (3CSFP97)
D. One 12-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17513) with multiple 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 66
You recommended a 1000BASE-X campus-backbone solution to Maluti University (MU) to connect the four distribution buildings to the data center MU is concerned that the 1000BASE-X campus backbone will not provide enough network bandwidth to support its combined data/voice network traffic. Which solution would you recommend to MU to alleviate this concern?
A. Use VLAN segmentation to reduce the traffic that traverses the campus backbone.
B. Distribute the 28 servers, currently located in Building 9 data center, throughout the network to reduce campus-backbone traffic.
C. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 4070 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches
D. Use the Switch 8800 in the data center and the Switch 7700 in the distribution centers with 10-Gig Ethernet connections between the switches

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
If you recommended the 3Com Switch 8800 for Maluti University (MU) data center solution in Building 9, which Switch 8800 interface-module solution would you use to connect the wiring-closet switches in Building 9 to the data center switch?
A. The 12-or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module
B. The 24-port 10/100/1000BASE-T Module (3C17516)
C. The 12- or 24-Port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers ( 3CSFP91)
D. The 12- or 24-port 1000BASE-X module with multiple 1000BASE-LHSFP Transceivers (3CSFP97) Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which solution would you recommend to the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) to support its wiring closet, end-user switch requirements?
A. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 FX
B. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 SE with a 1000BASE-SX Module
C. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-T Module
D. SuperStake 3 Switch 4400 24/48-Port with 1000BASE-SX Module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
Which two 3Com solution would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 70
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduce network outages, i.e, hot-swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support.
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggregation creates hih-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings.
F. IEEE 802.1X network Login and Authentication, Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by establishing what services Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 71
If you chose either the 3Com Switch 8810 or Switch 8814 for Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center solution, which interface Modules would you use to connect the four distribution centers and the nine satellite buildings?
A. Option A -One 24-port 1000BASE-X module (3C17514) with -Four 1000BASE-LX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -Nine 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings
B. Option B -Two 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
C. Option C -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) and One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514) with -26 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the distribution centers and the satellite buildings
D. Option D -One 12-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17513) One 24-port 1000BASE-X modules (3C17514)with Eight 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP92) to connect the distribution centers -18 1000BASE-SX SFP Transceivers (3CSFP91) to connect the satellite buildings

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which two 3 Com solutions would you recommend to Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) for each of the four distribution centers in Buildings 16,20,35 and 38, to connect them to the campus backbone? (Choose two)
A. Option A -Two Switch 4050 each with -One 1000BASE-SX GBIC
B. Option B -Two Switch 4060 each with -One 1000BASE-LX GBIC
C. Option C -One switch 7700 7-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CBIC91)
D. Option D Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing -One switch 7700R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Two 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)
E. Option E -One switch 7700 R 8-slot chassis starter kit with -One 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858) -Four 1000BASE-LX GBICs (3CBIC92)

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 73
Which three Switch 8800 features address the Da Silva Research Foundation (DRF) data center’s backbone-core requirements? (Choose three)
A. Protocol-based VLAN support provides the necessary flexibility to control broadcast traffic.
B. Load-sharing, redundant Switch Fabric provides higher data throughput and increased network reliability
C. With four prioritization queues per port, the switch has the QoS support required for network telephony
D. Reliability features reduces network outages, i,e hot -swappable I/O modules, power supplies fans, Switch Fabric and VRRP support
E. Resilient Links used in combination with Link Aggreation creates high-speed, redundant links from the data center to the four distribution buildings
F. IEEE802.1Xnetwork Login and Authentication Authorization, Accounting (AAA) capabilities provide the necessary network security by eastablishing what services employees can use and preventing unauthorized users from gaining access to the network

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 74
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Da Silva Research Fundation (DRF) Building 9 data center to support both the campus/building backbone and the server farm with a single switch? (Choose two)
A. One Switch 4070
B. One Switch 7700 7-Slot Chassis
C. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis
D. One Switch 8807
E. One Switch 8810

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 75
Which solution would you recommend as the distribution-layer switch for each of
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the Bantry Bay four main buildings that connect to the data center and to the smaller buildings on campus?
A. Two Switch 4050
B. Two Switch 4060
C. Two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924
D. Two SuperStake 3 Switch 4950

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 76
If you choose two Switch 4060s for each of the Bantry Bay distribution layer buildings, which three would you recommend to the customer to provide maximum resiliency and throughput? (Choose three)
A. Redundant internal power supplies
B. Resilient Links to maximize backbone redundancy
C. SuperStack 3 Advanced Redundant Power System
D. XRN Interconnect Kit to connect the two distribution-layer switches
E. IEEE802.3 ad Link Aggregation to maximize backbone bandwidth and reliability
F. SuperStack 3 Switch 4900 1000BASE-T module to connect the two distribution-layer switches

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
If you choose the SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 to support the Bantry Bay server farm, which three customer benefits are attained from using an XRN interconnection Kit with the two SuperStack 3 Switch 4924 server-farm switches? (Choose three)
A. The Fabric Interconnect has an 8-Gbps (16-Gbps full duplex)switching limit
B. The two switches would share one IP address and be managed as a single entity
C. Any number of ports can join a Link Aggregation trunk with all ports active and transporting data
D. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) uses a “Master Router” to perform all the routing across the Fabric.
E. XRN Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR) allows switches in the Fabric to act as a single logical router, which provides router resiliency in the event of a unit failure in the Fabric
F. XRN Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA) guarantees high levels of resiliency, because a failure in one of the member links results in automatic redistribution of traffic across the remaining links

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 78
If you reocommend a single Switch 7700R 8-Slot Chassis to create the hihly-resilient backbone, which three switch components would Bantry Bay require for the data center’s backbone-core switch? (Choose three)
A. One Switch 7700R Starter Kit (3C16852)
B. One Switch 7700 AC Power Supply (3C 16854)
C. Three Switch 7700 AC Power Supplies (3C 16854)
D. One Switch 7700R 8-Slot Fan Assembly (3C 16855)
E. One Switch 7700R Gigabit Ethernet Redundant Switching Fabric (3C 16857R)

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 79
Which two 3Com solutions would you recommend for the Bantry Bay data center, backbone core? (Choose two)
A. Two Router 6040
B. One Router 6080
C. Two Switch 7700 4-Slot Chassis
D. Two switch 7700 7-s;ot chassis
E. One switch 7700R 8-slot Chassis

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 80
If you recommend a Switch 7700 for the data center backbone-core solution, which three modules/ interfaces would the customer require for each of the two data center backbone-core switches? (Choose three)
A. Eight 1000BASE-SX GBICs (3CGBIC91)
B. Eight 1000BASE-LH70 GBICs (3CGBIC97)
C. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
D. One Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
E. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-T module (3C16859)
F. Two Switch 7700 8-port 1000BASE-X module (3C16858)
Correct Answer: ACD
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QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 51
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 90
In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, if the firewall is enabled, which packet is NOT inspected by default?
A. Non-fragments
B. First fragments
C. Non-first fragments

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)

A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site

Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP

Correct Answer: F

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QUESTION 41
Which three are Multilayer Giabit Software features of the Switch 40×0 Family? (Choose three)
Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing
A. Supports RIP, RIP2 and ODPF
B. Protocol-based VLAN support
C. Link Aggregation and Resilient Links support
D. IP unicast routing with up to 256 router interfaces
E. Routed Access Control Lists based on application filtering
F. Multicast filtering with internet Group Multicast Protocol (IGMP) snooping and IGMP querier

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 42
Which three are Smart IP Switch 40×0 family features? (Choose three)
A. Switch can function as a DHCP or BootP server
B. Supports both manual and automatic IP configuration
C. Uses SNMP trap to verify the availability of IP address pool.
D. Can select a random IP address from default assress range
E. Can receive an IP address from either a DHCP or BootP server
F. Network manager must release any automatically assigned address before the switch can be manually configured

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 43
Which component of XRN technology is defined as: “An advanced routing implementation that allows multiple interconnected switches in an XRN solution to behave as a single active routing entity”?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. Distributed Link Aggregation (DLA)
D. Distributed Resilient Routing (DDR)
E. Distributed Device Management (DDM)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which two are valid XRN Fabric configurations? (Choose two)
A. Switch 4050 and Switch 4070
B. Switch 4060 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4950
C. Switch 4007 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4400
D. SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900
E. Switch 4050 and Switch 4060,Swicth 4070 and SuperStack 3 Switch 4900

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 45
Which two 3Com switch families can currently be used to create an XRN Distributed Fabric (DF)? (Choose two)
A. 3Com Swicth 40×0 family
B. 3Com Swicth 4005 family
C. 3Com Swicth 4007 family
D. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4400 family
E. SuperStack 3 Swicth 4900 family

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 46
Which two components are required to create a geographically distributed XRN solution (excluding the appropriate 3Com switches)?(Choose two)
A. 4-port GBIC module
B. 3Com Network Supervisor
C. XRN Fabric Interconnect Modules
D. High-Bandwidth Interconnect Cable
E. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V4.X

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 47
What is minimum requirement to support the Resilient IP address feature of the SuperStack 3 Switch 4400?
A. Nothing – it is support by every switch
B. At least two switches must be stacked together
C. All the switches in a stack must have their own IP address
D. At least two switches in a stack, and both switches must have an IP address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
What is the procedure for upgrading a SuperStack 3 Switch 4400 SE to the enhanced switch feature set?
A. Enter the software upgrade code obtained from 3Com and reboot the switch
B. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to TFTP server on the same subnet as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch, reboot the switch when the Power LED stops flashing
C. Copy the 3Com upgrade file to a TFTP server on the same network as the switch, start the TFTP server and configure the switch reboot the switch when the Power LED stops Actualtests.com – The Power of Knowing flashing
D. Purchase and obtain activation key for the Switch 4400 Enhanced Software Upgrade from 3Com using Command Line Interface (CLI) entry “system license add” enter activation key confirm.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Which three Physical Layer components should you check when either the Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 is having a connection problem? (Choose three)
A. Link LEDs
B. Switch ARP tables
C. Switch VLAN assignments
D. MAC address for the link
E. RX error statistics for link
F. Link Speed, duplex mode and flow control

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 50
Which three may be the cause of a Switch 7700 Network Layer 3 problem? (Choose three)
A. The switch trunk ports are not properly configured
B. The RIP versions are not the same between switches
C. The switches is not sending and receiving rout ipdates
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the switch
E. The MAC address table “aging parameter” is set too high
F. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is not properly configured on the switch

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 51
Which Switch 7700 command shows the prority used for input/output packet operations?
A. display priority-trust
B. display qos-interface all
C. display qos-interface traffic-priority
D. display qos-interface traffic-statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which three can be used to download a configuration fole on the Switch 7700?
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(Choose three)
A. Use IP PROTOCOL
B. Use FTP protocol
C. Use TFTP protocol
D. Use HTTP protocol
E. Use XMODEM protocol
F. Use the system “dump” command
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 53
Which two are syslog features/ functions on the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800? (Choose two)
A. Responsible for all system information on output
B. By default, the syslog automatically clears its file every 30 days
C. Is divided into eight levels, which can be filtered based on a level
D. Serves as an information center of the system’s software modules
E. Can be dumped to aconsole, monitor, SQL database or ASCII text file

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 54
Which four are Link Aggregation features/functions on the Switch 7700? (Choose four)
A. The switch supports the IEEE 802.3ad standard
B. Link Aggregation ports must be consecutive switch ports
C. Link Aggregation ports should be set to TRUNK or HYBRID
D. Use the “display interface” command to see all ports within a group
E. Use the “display link-aggregation” command to see all ports within a group
F. A Link Aggregation port should be set to “access” if more than one VLAN is supported on the link

Correct Answer: BCDF

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QUESTION 37
When setting up QoS, Which of the following DSCP values have a higher priority than af11?
A. af43
B. cs1
C. cs7
D. ef

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
For Maximum efficiency and assured Quality of Service, If Traffic has been marked on the ingress of all edge router interfaces. Where should the QoS policy be applied?
A. egress of all edge router interfaces
B. egress of all core router interfaces
C. egress of all router interfaces
D. ingress of all core router interfaces
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What attribute is essential to the method that BGP uses to avoid routing loops?
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Local preference
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following statements about BGP Route Reflection is true?
A. There can be no more than one Router Reflector in an Autonomous System
B. Route Reflection allows some I-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
C. Route Reflection allows some E-BGP routers to re-advertise routes obtained from I-BGP peers
D. Router 5000 series router does not support Route Reflection

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 41
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) RFC 1771 defines an autonomous system (AS) as a set of routers under a single technical administration, using an interior gateway protocol and common metrics to route packets with the AS.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 42
Router A, B and C are in one Autonomous System, while Router D is in another AS. Router A can only talk to Router D via Router B or if the Local-preference of Router B is set to 200 and the local-preference of Router C is set to 150. How will traffic be affected?
A. Traffic will be balanced
B. Traffic priority will be through Router B
C. Traffic priority will be through Router C
D. local-preference has nothing to do with traffic priority

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
After issuing a default local preference 200 command, What other command needs issued before the local preference can take effect?
A. save
B. reset bgp all
C. reset recycle
D. reset saved configuration

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 44
Which of the following commands is NOT required for MPLS to work?
A. lsr-id
B. mpls ldp enable
C. mpls l2vc 2.2.2.2

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
True or False: The lsp statistics Index begins at 0, but the lsp display starts at 1, therefore FEC1=LSP index 0
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
An IP frame in an Ethernet packet enters an MPLS domain. Where is the MPLS header inserted?
A. After the IP header
B. Before the Ethernet header
C. Between the Ethernet header and the IP header

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 47
When must clock master be set when using IPoA on the Router 5000/6000 series routers?
A. never
B. only when configuring a CPE device connecting to the network
C. only when configuring back to back connections between CPE devices
D. always

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 48
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49
What does the following command do? [RTA-Serial 0/0] standby interface dialer0
A. defines the ISDN interface that will be used only if the primary interface fails
B. defines ISDN as the primary link and that there is a standby link called dialer0
C. shares the traffic load with the primary interface and will take the full load if primary fails
D. temporarily puts interface into standby state, interface will reconnect when link-state changes

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 50
Which of following QoS methods does nothing when used with DSCP to provide QoS for Voice?
A. Class-based Queuing
B. Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Weighted Random early Detection
D. Traffic Shaping Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 33
Which four components are required to use the NBX CTI Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) solution? (Choose four.)
A. NBX CTI license
B. Any NBX system
C. H.323 protocol support
D. NBX TAPI service provider (NBXTSP) software
E. Computer supporting TAPI, for example, Microsoft Windows
F. Either IP On-the-Fly or Standard IP license for each NBX system
G. Desktop TAPI application software, for example, Desktop Call Assistant
Correct Answer: BDEG
QUESTION 34
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
B. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route decisions

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Requires NBX pcXset client software
B. Can use the computer default media player to listen to a message
C. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
D. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM and full-duplex sound card
E. Users can use a TAPI4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a computer
F. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a computer

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 36
Call Detail Reports can be customized, generated and printed by the administrator from the NetSet Operations Window.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
Which four are NBX Call Report (CDR) configuration options for an NBX system? (Choose four.)
A. Default setting is Disabled
B. Scramble the last digits for security
C. Determine if trunk-to-trunk calls are recorded
D. Choose how often a new tracking file will be created
E. Select what data fields will be tracked, for example, time of call, length, etc.
F. Compatibility format option, for example, Microsoft Excel or Lotus 123 formatting
G. Determine how long the tracking information will be retained before it is purged by the system

Correct Answer: ABCG
QUESTION 38
Which four are NBX CDR requirements? (Choose four.)
A. 24 MB of RAM
B. Linux Operating System
C. TAPI compliant application
D. Windows Operating System
E. IMAP4 compliant application
F. Adequate disk space for records
G. 12 MB of disk space for application
Correct Answer: ADFG
QUESTION 39
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. New software version
B. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
C. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
D. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
F. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card, etc.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 40
Which four are NBX configuration backup/restore attributes? (Choose four.)
A. By default, NBX voice mail messages are backed up
B. Backup should be done after each major configuration change
C. Backup is normally onto the hard disk of the PC where you are running NetSet
D. To run a backup choose: System Configuration Icon, then Manage Data Tab and click Backup Database button
E. Data in a backup includes the Configuration database, Auto Attendant prompts, user voice mail greetings, and optionally all voice mail messages
F. To restore configuration information, choose the Operations Icon, Manage Data Tab, then select Browse to locate the configuration file and click Restore
G. To restore an individual user’s voice messages choose the Operations Icon, Manage Data Tab, input the users extension and click Restore Voice Mail Messages
Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Click theTask button.
Which of the interfaces is not currently active and reserved for future use?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 42
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems supports software version R4.4?
A. NBX 100
B. NBX V3000
C. All NBX Systems
D. SuperStack 3 NBX

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which four components are included with the NBX V3000 IP Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. System disk drive
B. One Analog FXS port
C. 16 MB memory module
D. Four Analog FXO ports
E. Two T1/E1 Digital Line ports
F. Network Call Processor (NCP)
G. Two Failover 10/100 Mbps Ethernet LAN ports

Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 44
Which of the following NBX V5000 system components is field upgradeable or field replaceable?

A. CPU
B. Mirrored Disk drive
C. Analog Port Modules
D. Paging Port Modules
E. Redundant Power supply

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
The NBX V3000 disk drive is field replaceable.

A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 46
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to add a Page Zone or make modifications to an existing Page Zone?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 47
Which four steps should the NBX administrator perform to set up a new Page Zone that includes an external broadcast over a public address (PA) system? (Choose four.)
A. Specify the MAC or IP address of PA system
B. Checkbox “Add External Page” to include PA system
C. Specify the Page Zone name and associated zone extension
D. Add new members by clicking on members in the “Member” list
E. Select User Configuration / Page Zones / Add to create a new page zone
F. Add new members to the page zone by typing in their extension and name
G. Select Device Configuration / Telephone Groups / Page Zones to create a new page zone

Correct Answer: BCDE QUESTION 48
NBX code releases prior to 4.4 have which paging capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Up to nine (9) paging zones can be created
B. Users can disable paging on their individual phones
C. There is no limit on the number of users in a page zone
D. Page users through telephone speakers and/or external Public Address system
E. Can page all phones with speakers or devices connected to the paging port or both simultaneously

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 49
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to change configurable operator system default values?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 50
Click theTask button.
To override the default destination for System and Personal Operators what tab would a user select?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 51
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 52
Which three are features of the SuperStack 3 NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Operates at 10Mbps
B. Supports up to 1500 devices
C. Supports up to 200 devices, including up to 100 central office lines
D. Redundancy options include dual power supplies and disk mirroring
E. Has two integrated, failover 10/100 Mbps Ethernet ports for LAN connectivity
F. System scales to 12 auto-attendant voice messaging ports and 80 hours of voice-mail storage
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 53
Which of the following is not a benefit of convergence?
A. Single wiring infrastructure
B. Reduced cost
C. Increased costs
D. Increased productivity
E. Reduced maintenance
F. Simple moves, adds and changes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Which two are required to use standards based 802.1p voice prioritization for an NBX phone system? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN tagging must be turned on
B. Requires NBX 3XXX model phones
C. Network switches must support IEEE 802.1p
D. Each NBX phone must be attached to the network through a PC that supports VLAN tagging
E. SuperStack 3 NBX Network Communication System and the NBX 100 Communication System do not support packet prioritization

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 55
Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
C. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only.
D. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a “silence indicator,”rather than a full packet of “digitized silence”

Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 56
When Silence Suppression is enabled, a device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the period of silence.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Which four are hardware redundancy features of the SuperStack 3 NBX Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Disk mirroring on the NBX V5000 Call Processor
B. Dual NCP support in the NBX V5000 Call Processor
C. Dual-homing support for T1/E1 Digital Line Card ports
D. Failover 10/100 Mbps Ethernet uplink ports for LAN connectivity
E. External Redundant Power Supply (RPS) for NBX V5000 Chassis
F. NBX V5000 Chassis internal backup power supply with load sharing
G. NBX V5000 Call Processor internal backup power supply with load sharing
Correct Answer: ADEG QUESTION 58
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to view current system settings such as software version, serial number, host name, and the NBX IP Address?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 59
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communication System? (Choose three.)
A. Offers optional hot-swap power supply
B. Requires a Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
C. Provides one 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
D. Is a combination of two required chassis ?the Network Call Processor and the interface chassis
E. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are installed on a LAN
F. Has 7 card slots, 6 of which are useable with the top useable slot designated for the Network Call Processor Card
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 60
Click theTask button.
Which NBX Phones support the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard? (Choose all that apply.)

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: QUESTION 61
An Analog Terminal Card has how many RJ-11 ports?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 62
Click theTask button.
What icon would the administrator select to modify an Analog Terminal Adapter (ATA) bandwidth compression settings?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer:
QUESTION 63
Your department employees all have the same NBX Business telephones on their desktop. As the NBX system administrator for your group, you have been asked to setup the programmable buttons on the phones so they all have the same function. What is the easiest way to configure the NBX phones for your department?
A. Create a new Telephone Group with the required settings. Assign the users in the department to the new group
B. Program your phone with the button settings. Have the users copy the button settings by entering your extension in the User Device Setup menu
C. Program your phone using the NBX user configuration software. E-mail the file to the users in your department. The users load the file using the TAPI software
D. Create a new Telephone Group with the required settings. Have the users in the department choose the new Telephone Group in the User Device Setup menu
E. Program your phone with the button settings. Forward your user configuration via the phone to all the users in your department. Have them apply the configuration to the phone

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station Appearance.
You have already setup the secondary phones button mappings. In the illustration of the primary phone button mappings, what is the correct extension number to add to the Bridged Extension Number Field?

A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type?
A. Hello
B. Goodbye
C. Link-state request
D. Database description
E. Link-state acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram and configuration, which command is needed to complete the configuration of Router B?

A. [Router B-Serial1/0/0] OSPF area 0
B. [Router B-loopback1] IP address 2.2.2.2 24
C. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.1] vlink-peer 3.3.3.3
D. [Router B-ospf-1-0.0.0.0] vlink-peer 1.1.1.1
E. [Router B-Ethernet2/0/0] Ospf network-type NBMA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Choose three reasons for using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol versus Routing Information Protocol (RIP) with the Router 5000/6000 series? (Choose three.)
A. When the network has more than 10 routers
B. When hop count is the primary path cost determinate
C. When voice or video multicasting is used extensively on a network
D. When very quick, network convergence is required by the customer
E. When the network employs multiple IP addressing schemes and subnet masks
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 24
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support?
A. PVCs only
B. SVCs only
C. PVCs and SVCs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which three WAN Multifunction Interface Modules (MIM) is available for the 3Com Router 5232/5642/5682 series? (Choose three.)
A. One-port, OC-3 MIM
B. Four-port, ISDN MIM
C. Four-port, serial MIM
D. Two-port, E1/CE1/PRI MIM
E. Eight-port enhanced serial MIM

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 28
Which 3COM router supports 64 serial interfaces?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29
Which two protocols does the Router 5000/6000 series use to exchange network reachability information with other Internet systems or routers? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. IPX
C. IS-IS
D. BGP-4
E. PPPoE
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 30
Which three resiliency features are supported on both the Router 3000 and Router 5000 products? (Choose three.)
A. The router shuts down any WAN interfaces without active traffic
B. Standby ports can provide both backup and load-sharing capabilities
C. Built-in Standby Center can provide standby ISDN BRI or ISDN PRI backup
D. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the lowest priority is activated
E. When the traffic threshold is reached on all active ports, the standby interface with the highest priority is activated

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button. The 3Com 1-Port Channelized T3/E3 FIC module (3C13888) pictured is supported on which two 3COM routers? (Choose two.)

A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 32
Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules?
A. 4300
B. 5012
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
Your customer has a requirement to support 28 ISDN ports. Which 3COM router should you recommend?
A. 5012
B. 5232
C. 5682
D. 6040
E. 6080

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
What are two typical uses of MPLS? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP
B. VPNs
C. Traffic Engineering
D. Reduce transit delays
E. Encapsulate protocols other than IP

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 35
What is the disadvantage of using Label Switched Paths, rather than IP routing?
A. QoS is not possible
B. Labels are local, not global
C. No routing protocol can be used
D. Route aggregation is not possible
E. Labels must be swapped at every switch on the path
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 38
What is the key technology used by routers to filter IP data packets to or from the Internet?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Access control lists (ACL)
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
Which three are physical operations performed by IP Multicasting? (Choose three.)
A. Allows hosts to join and leave multicast groups
B. Supports router Link State Advertisements (LSA) broadcasting
C. Routers communicate with lower switches through delivery trees
D. Switch trees forward all multicasting packets to network receivers
E. Reduces load on each receiving station by sending a single packet multiple times

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 41
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other

Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 45
Which three are attributes of Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose three.)
A. It is a link-state routing protocol
B. It is an external routing protocol
C. It supports route updating by transmitting complete router tables
D. Is a connection-oriented service protocol that runs on top of TCP
E. Used to transmit routing information between autonomous systems

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 46
What are five most common BGP route attributes? (Choose five.)
A. MED
B. Origin
C. AS path
D. Next hop
E. Path cost
F. Availability
G. Local preference

Correct Answer: ABCDG
QUESTION 47
Each of the following queuing schemes has an associated classification mechanism. Which three schemes support user-defined classes? (Choose three.)
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 48
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) is backwards-compatible with IP-Precedence?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 49
How many bits are there in the DiffServe Code Point (DSCP)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which two applications are very sensitive to delay and jitter, but can still work well enough with the loss of a few packets? (Choose two.)
A. E-mail
B. Voice over IP
C. Web browsing
D. Streaming video
E. Image storage and retrieval applications
F. Business accounting software such as SAP
Correct Answer: BD
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