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QUESTION 52
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 53
What protocol does a network host use to communicate with a router to join a multicast group?
A. MBONE
B. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
C. Distance-Vector Multicast Protocol (DVRMP)
D. An IP packet with a physical address of zero (0)
E. Protocol Independent Multicast-Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
What does a PIM Dense Mode-enabled router send to inform an upstream router that one of its downstream clients wants to join a multicast group?
A. IGMP query
B. Hello packet
C. Join message
D. Graft message
E. Membership report
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.)
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Dynamic Security Link
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
E. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 57
Which type of ACL must be used to define a rule for an Ethernet protocol type?
A. A basic ACL
B. An advanced ACL
C. A vlan-based ACL
D. A mac-based ACL
E. An interface-based ACL
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
Which three are characteristics of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose three.)
A. Standard ACLs use only the source/destination port to filter traffic
B. A standard ACL has a router identification number between 1 and 999
C. Wildcard mask can be used to define bits in an IP address for packet filtering
D. ACLs can be used to control data flow through a router for Quality of Service (QoS)
E. Extended access control lists (EACL) can use any information in an IP packet to filter data
F. ACLs can examine IP source/destination address, source/destination port, and MAC address
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 60
What is the speed of a digital data service (DDS) operating at the digital signal level 0 (DS0)?
A. T1/E1
B. 2,400 bps
C. 56/64 kbps
D. 155 mbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which three are Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) customer benefits? (Choose three.)
A. Fast call setup
B. Always-on service
C. Digital signal quality
D. Flexible and reliable service
E. Inexpensive compared to xDSL and cable modem services
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 62
Choose three statements that correctly describe BGP. (Choose three.)
A. BGP is a link-state routing protocol
B. BGP is a distance-vector routing protocol
C. BGP is both an internal and an external routing protocol
D. BGP is explicitly designed to avoid the occurrence of routing loops
E. BGP is an internal routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information about an autonomous system within that system
F. BGP is an external routing protocol, designed to transmit routing information between autonomous systems about each other
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 63
Which two statements are true of BGP peers? (Choose two.)
A. Wherever they are, BGP peers must be directly connected
B. Wherever they are, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
C. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers must be directly connected
D. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers must be directly connected
E. Within an Autonomous System, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
F. Between Autonomous Systems, BGP peers do not have to be directly connected
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 64
Which three statements about the BGP MED attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. It never propagates between Autonomous Systems
B. A router might receive two different MED values for one route
C. A router might advertise two different MED values for one route
D. It is used to discriminate between multiple routes to the same prefix
E. All else being equal, a router will choose a route with a lower MED value rather than a route with a higher MED value
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 65
What is the primary purpose of the Designated Router (DR) when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)?
A. It backs up the Border Gateway Router when it fails
B. It calculates all Best Path Routes for all OSPF routers in its area
C. It updates all other routers within the same network with new or changed routes
D. It updates all other routers within all reachable networks with new or changed routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of hops supported by Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 64
D. 128
E. 255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the diagram, which three OSFP routers should receive a dr-priority of 0? (Choose three.)
A. RTA
B. RTB
C. RTC
D. RTD
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 68
Which three roles can routers be assigned when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Backbone router (BBR)
B. Internal-area router (IAR)
C. Area border router (ABR)
D. Wide-area border router (WBR)
E. Independent system router (ISR)
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 69
What is the structure of all ATM cells?
A. 5 octets header 43 octets payload
B. 5 octets header, 48 octets payload
C. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 48 octets payload
D. 2 octets source, 2 octets destination, 43 octets payload
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
How is an ATM connection identified?
A. Local VPI/VCI pair
B. Global VPI/VCI pair
C. Source and destination socket pair
D. Source and destination address pair
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 71
Which is the correct ATM hierarchy?
A. Physical Paths contain Virtual Channels which contain Virtual Paths
B. Physical Paths contain Virtual Paths which contain Virtual Channels
C. Virtual Paths contain Virtual Channels, which contain Physical Paths
D. Virtual Channels contain Virtual Paths, which contain Physical Paths
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are characteristics of a router? (Choose three.)
A. Forwards packets between networks
B. Connects only networks of similar types
C. Finds the best path from one network to another network
D. Works at Layer 4, the Transport Layer according to the OSI model
E. Connects networks into physically unified internetworks, with each network retaining its own identity
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 73
The PPP LCP protocol is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Which two are limitations of using High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol for point-to-point and point-to-multipoint links? (Choose two.)
A. HDLC provides no error checking or recovery
B. HDLC does not support multi-protocol transmissions
C. As an older protocol, HDLC does not operate on many new routers
D. HDLC can only be used on point-to-point links, as it does not have a destination address
E. Each router vendor’s implementation is slightly different, making interoperability a problem
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 75
Which three are characteristics of Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol? (Choose three.)
A. PPP is a Layer 2 Data Link protocol
B. PPP supports only asynchronous links
C. Options are available for providing authentication for security
D. PPP is less capable than Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
E. PPP is extensively used today, i.e., for modem dial-up connections to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 76
Which four are important considerations when planning a wide area network design? (Choose four.)
A. Current and planned throughput requirements
B. Proper WAN traffic management to prevent serious congestion
C. Detailed plan for reconfiguring the WAN when expansion is required
D. Disaster recovery plan that facilitates backing up key corporate data
E. Determining if and how backup links will be incorporated into the WAN design
F. What is required to provide customers and partners reasonable access to your Web site
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 77
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
What OSI layer do routers operate at in the OSI model?
A. Session
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Data Link
E. Transport
F. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
What are the objectives of a good queue-scheduling scheme? (Choose three.)
A. Allocate bandwidth, taking priority into account
B. Distribute bandwidth unused by one queue to other queues
C. Stop a badly-behaved application affecting other applications
D. Assign packets to output interfaces, taking priority into account
E. Respond to changing patterns of network usage and congestion
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 80
Which queuing mechanism is most often used with RSVP to implement IntServ QoS?
A. Fair Queuing
B. FIFO Queuing
C. Priority Queuing
D. Custom Queuing
E. Class Based Queuing
F. Weighted Fair Queuing
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 81
Which pre-defined type of DiffServ Per-Hop Behaviors (PHBs) provides a premium service, with low loss, low latency, low jitter and guaranteed bandwidth?
A. Priority
B. Default
C. Class-Selector
D. Priority-Selector
E. Assured Forwarding
F. Expedited Forwarding
G. Enhanced Forwarding
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 82
Which three statements are true for Traffic Policing? (Choose three.)
A. It is used to adjust the input rate
B. It is used to adjust the output rate
C. It may cause higher layers to resend
D. Non-complying traffic is always buffered
E. It may increase network delay for some packets
F. Non-complying traffic is always dropped or remarked
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 83
When configuring Resource-Shared DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Dialer interface, but not on a Physical interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
When configuring Circular DCC, DCC parameters can be configured directly on a Physical interface, but not on a Dialer interface.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
Dialer Backup can be configured using Circular DCC, but not using Resource-Shared DCC
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What is the length of an MPLS label?
A. 16 bits
B. 20 bits
C. 24 bits
D. 32 bits
E. 40 bits
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
During the creation of a Label Switched Path (LSP), which two statements most correctly describe the binding to an FEC? (Choose two.)
A. The binding is distributed from downstream to upstream
B. The binding is distributed from upstream to downstream
C. The label for each binding is assigned by the upstream LSR
D. The label for each binding is assigned by the downstream LSR
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 88
When an IP packet traverses an LSP through an MPLS domain, what happens to the Time to Live (TTL) field in the IP header?
A. It is completely unchanged
B. It is incremented by 1 each time it passes through an MPLS router
C. It is incremented by 1 by the MPLS egress router, since the entire MPLS domain is seen as one hop
D. It is incremented by 2 by the MPLS egress router, since the ingress and egress routers are the only IP routers in the LSP
E. It is changed by the MPLS egress router to the value it would have had if it had traversed the same sequence of routers using IP routing instead of label switching
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 89
Which protocol CANNOT be monitored by ASPF on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router using V2.x code?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. H.323
D. SMTP
E. RSTP
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: F
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