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New AZ-204 Dumps Practice Questions 2024 | Candidates Want To Have

April 12, 2024 No Comments

There has never been a time when opportunities and challenges coexisted. The Microsoft AZ-204 exam is the same. To pass the exam, you need to possess the new AZ-204 dumps with practice questions 2024.

Download new AZ-204 dumps 2024 https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-204.html You can choose two ways to pass (PDF or VCE).

In 2024, everything has changed. exam AZ-204: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure has also changed.

What should you do in the face of changes to the AZ-204 exam?

Are you ready for the challenges of the Microsoft AZ-204 exam? As the Azure platform and technology are constantly evolving, the specific content and requirements of the exam may change, and the process of earning this certification can sometimes seem overwhelming, filled with countless tasks that require your attention.

However, keep one thing in mind and choose the most up-to-date resources (AZ-204 dumps as well as practice questions 2024), and you will surely be able to complete this process and achieve your goals.

New Microsoft exam AZ-204:

The AZ-204 exam was updated on January 22, 2024. Overall, the changes are minor. A new topic has been added to the new AZ-204 exam called Microsoft Fabric.

For details, you can check out this video (shared by Scott Duffy @ GetCloudSkills), which shows a comparison of the changes between the old and new content of the exam, which is clear at a glance.

The AZ-204 exam needs to be equipped with new learning resources.

So, the new Microsoft AZ-204 exam study resources 2024 are collated for you (Attach a link):

Video:

Documentation:

Book:

Updated in 2024, some AZ-204 dumps practice questions are shared online

Source: Pass4itSure AZ-204 Dump 2024

Questions: 15 (495)

Other related Microsoft exams: AZ-104, AZ-305, DP-500

Question 1:

You are updating an application that stores data on Azure and uses Azure Cosmos DB for storage. The application stores data in multiple documents associated with a single username.

The application requires the ability to update multiple documents for a username in a single ACID operation.

You need to configure Azure Cosmos DB.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create a collection based on username to store documents.

B. Configure Azure Cosmos DB to use the Gremlin API.

C. Create an unshared collection to store documents.

D. Configure Azure Cosmos DB to use the MongoDB API.

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:

C: Multi-document transactions, Requirements

Multi-document transactions are supported within an unshaded collection in API version 4.0. Multi-document transactions are not supported across collections or in shared collections in 4.0.

D: In Azure Cosmos DB for MongoDB, operations on a single document are atomic. Multi-document transactions enable applications to execute atomic operations across multiple documents. It offers “all-or-nothing” semantics to the

operations. On commit, the changes made inside the transactions are persisted and if the transaction fails, all changes inside the transaction are discarded.

Multi-document transactions follow ACID semantics:

Atomicity: All operations are treated as one Consistency: Data committed is valid Isolation: Isolated from other operations Durability: Transaction data is persisted when the client is told so

Reference: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/mongodb/use-multi-document-transactions

Question 2:

HOTSPOT

How should you configure the Azure Table Storage service? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: AllowedOrigins

A CORS request will fail if Access-Control-Allow-Origin is missing.

Scenario:

The following error message displays while you are testing the website:

Box 2: http://test-shippingapi.wideworldimporters.com

Syntax: Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *

Access-Control-Allow-Origin:

Access-Control-Allow-Origin: null

Specifies an origin. Only a single origin can be specified.

Box 3: AllowedOrigins

Box 4: POST

The only allowed methods are GET, HEAD, and POST. In this case, POST is used.

“allowed methods” Failed to load no “Access-control-Origin” header is present

References:

https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Headers/Access-Control-Allow-Origin

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You are creating an app that uses Event Grid to connect with other services. Your app\’s event data will be sent to a serverless function that checks compliance. This function is maintained by your company.

You write a new event subscription at the scope of your resource. The event must be invalidated after 3 specific period of time. You need to configure the Event Grid to ensure security.

What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: SAS tokens

Custom topics use either Shared Access Signature (SAS) or key authentication.

Microsoft recommends SAS, but key authentication provides simple programming and is compatible with many existing webhook publishers.

In this case, we need the expiration time provided by SAS tokens.

Box 2: ValidationCode handshake

Event Grid supports two ways of validating the subscription: ValidationCode handshake (programmatic) and ValidationURL handshake (manual).

If you control the source code for your endpoint, this method is recommended.

Incorrect Answers:

ValidationURL handshake (manual): In certain cases, you can’t access the source code of the endpoint to implement the ValidationCode handshake. For example, if you use a third-party service (like Zapier or IFTTT), you can\’t

programmatically respond with the validation code.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/security-authentication

Question 4:

You are developing an Azure-based web application. The application goes offline periodically to perform offline data processing. While the application is offline, numerous Azure Monitor alerts fire which results in the on-call developer being paged. The application must always log in when the application is offline for any reason.

You need to ensure that the on-call developer is not paged during offline processing.

What should you do?

A. Add Azure Monitor alert processing rules to suppress notifications.

B. Create an Azure Monitor Metric Alert.

C. Build an Azure Monitor action group that suppresses the alerts.

D. Disable Azure Monitor Service Health Alerts during offline processing.

Correct Answer: C

You can use alert processing rules to add action groups or remove (suppress) action groups from your fired alerts. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/alerts/alerts-action-rules

Question 5:

You are implementing an Azure API app that uses built-in authentication and authorization functionality.

All app actions must be associated with information about the current user.

You need to retrieve the information about the current user.

What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. HTTP headers

B. environment variables

C. /.auth/me HTTP endpoint

D. /.auth/login endpoint

Correct Answer: AC

A: After App Service Authentication has been configured, users trying to access your API are prompted to sign in with their organizational account that belongs to the same Azure AD as the Azure AD application used to secure the API. After signing in, you can access the information about the current user through the HttpContext.Current.User property.

C: While the server code has access to request headers, the client code can access GET /.auth/me to get the same access tokens (

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/app-service-web-tutorial-auth-aad https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/dev/spfx/web-parts/guidance/connect-to-api-secured-with-aad

Question 6:

DRAG DROP

You plan to create a Docker image that runs as an ASP.NET Core application named ContosoApp. You have a setup script named setupScript.ps1 and a series of application files including ContosoApp.dll.

You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:

1. Call setup script.ps1 when the container is built.

2. Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.

The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setupScript.ps1 are stored.

Which four commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Step 1: WORKDIR /apps/ContosoApp

Step 2: COPY ./The Docker document must be created in the same folder where ContosoApp.dll and setup script.ps1 are stored.

Step 3: EXPOSE ./ContosApp/ /app/ContosoApp

Step 4: CMD powershell ./setupScript.ps1

ENTRYPOINT [“dotnet”, “ContosoApp.dll”]

You need to create a Dockerfile document that meets the following requirements:

Call setup script.ps1 when the container is built.

Run ContosoApp.dll when the container starts.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/tutorial-custom-docker-image

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You plan to deploy a new application to a Linux virtual machine (VM) that is hosted in Azure.

The entire VM must be secured at rest by using industry-standard encryption technology to address organizational security and compliance requirements.

You need to configure Azure Disk Encryption for the VM.

How should you complete the Azure CLI commands? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: key vault

Create an Azure Key Vault with az key vault and enable the Key Vault for use with disk encryption. Specify a unique Key Vault name for keyvault_name as follows:

keyvault_name=myvaultname$RANDOM

az key vault create \ –name $keyvault_name \ –resource-group $resourcegroup \ –location east us \ –enabled-for-disk-encryption True

Box 2: key vault key The Azure platform needs to be granted access to request the cryptographic keys when the VM boots to decrypt the virtual disks. Create a cryptographic key in your Key Vault with az key vault key create. The following example creates a key named myKey:

az key vault key create \ –vault-name $keyvault_name \ –name myKey \ –protection software

Box 3: vm

Create a VM with az vm create. Only certain marketplace images support disk encryption. The following example creates a VM named myVM using an Ubuntu 16.04 LTS image:

az vm create \ –resource-group $resourcegroup \ –name my VM \ –image Canonical:UbuntuServer:16.04-LTS:latest \ –admin-username azure user \ –generate-ssh-keys \

Box 4: vm encryption

Encrypt your VM with az vm encryption enable:

az vm encryption enable \ –resource-group $resourcegroup \ –name my VM \ –disk-encryption-key vault $keyvault_name \ –key-encryption-key myKey \ –volume-type all

Note: There seems to be an error in the question. Should have enabled it instead of creating it.

Box 5: all

Encrypt both data and operating system.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/disk-encryption-cli-quickstart

Question 8:

A company is developing a solution that allows smart refrigerators to send temperature information to a central location. You have an existing Service Bus.

The solution must receive and store messages until they can be processed. You create an Azure Service Bus instance by providing a name, pricing tier, subscription, resource group, and location.

You need to complete the configuration.

Which Azure CLI or PowerShell command should you run?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

A service bus instance has already been created (Step 2 below). Next is step 3, Create a Service Bus queue.

Note:

Steps:

Step 1: # Create a resource group

resourceGroupName=”myResourceGroup”

az group create –name $resourceGroupName –location east

Step 2: # Create a Service Bus messaging namespace with a unique name

namespaceName=myNameSpace$RANDOM

az service bus namespace create –resource-group $resourceGroupName –name $namespaceName –location east

Step 3: # Create a Service Bus queue

az service bus queue create –resource-group $resourceGroupName –namespace-name $namespaceName –name BasicQueue

Step 4: # Get the connection string for the namespace

connectionString=$(az service bus namespace authorization-rule keys list –resource-group $resourceGroupName –namespace-name $namespaceName –name RootManageSharedAccessKey –query primaryConnectionString –output tsv)

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-quickstart-cli

Question 9:

You are developing a complex workflow by using Azure Durable Functions.

During testing, you observe that the results of the workflow differ based on how many instances of the Azure Function are running.

You need to resolve the issue.

What should you do?

A. Ensure that all Orchestrator code is deterministic.

B. Read all state data from the durable function context

C. Configure the Azure Our able function to run on an App Service Plan with one instance.

D. Implement the monitor pattern within the workflow.

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You are developing and deploying several ASP.Net web applications to Azure App Service.

You plan to save session state information and HTML output.

You must use a storage mechanism with the following requirements:

1.Share session state across all ASP.NET web applications

2.Support controlled, concurrent access to the same session state data for multiple readers and a single writer

3.Save full HTTP responses for concurrent requests

You need to store the information.

Proposed Solution: Add the web applications to Docker containers. Deploy the containers. Deploy the containers to Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS).

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Instead, use Azure Cache for Redis.

Note: Azure Cache for Redis provides a session state provider that you can use to store your session state in memory with Azure Cache for Redis instead of a SQL Server database. To use the caching session state provider, first, configure your cache, and then configure your ASP.NET application for the cache using the Azure Cache for Redis Session State NuGet package.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-cache-for-redis/cache-aspnet-session-state-provider

Question 11:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You develop and deploy an Azure App Service API app to a Windows-hosted deployment slot named Development. You create additional deployment slots named Testing and Production. You enable auto swap on the Production

deployment slot.

You need to ensure that scripts run and resources are available before a swap operation occurs.

Solution: Enable auto swap for the Testing slot. Deploy the app to the Testing slot.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. No

B. Yes

Correct Answer: B

Instead, update the web. config file to include the application initialization configuration element. Specify custom initialization actions to run the scripts.

Note: Some apps might require custom warm-up actions before the swap. The application initialization configuration element in web. config lets you specify custom initialization actions. The swap operation waits for this custom warm-up to finish before swapping with the target slot. Here \ is a sample web. config fragment.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/deploy-staging-slots#troubleshoot-swaps

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

You are preparing to deploy an application to an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.

The application must only be available from within the VNet that includes the cluster.

You need to deploy the application.

How should you complete the deployment of YAML? To answer, drag the appropriate YAML segments to the correct locations. Each YAML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between

panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

To create an internal load balancer, create a service manifest named internal-lb.yaml with the service type LoadBalancer and the azure-load-balancer-internal annotation as shown in the following example:

YAML:

apiVersion: v1

kind: Service

metadata:

name: internal-app

annotations:

service.beta.kubernetes.io/azure-load-balancer-internal: “true” spec:

type: LoadBalancer

ports:

-port: 80 selector: app: internal-app

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/internal-lb

Question 13:

You are a developer at your company.

You need to update the definitions for an existing Logic App.

What should you use?

A. the Enterprise Integration Pack (EIP)

B. the Logic App Code View

C. the API Connections

D. the Logic Apps Designer

Correct Answer: B

Edit JSON – Azure portal

From the left menu, choose All Services. In the search box, find “logic apps”, and then from the results, select your logic app.

On your logic app\’s menu, under Development Tools, select Logic App Code View. The Code View editor opens and shows your logic app definition in JSON format.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-enterprise-integration-overview

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-author-definitions

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

You are developing an Azure App Service hosted ASP.NET Core web app to deliver video-on-demand streaming media. You enable an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) Standard for the web endpoint. Customer videos are downloaded

from the web app by using the following example URL.: http://www.contoso.com/content.mp4?quality=1

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour. Customer videos with varying quality must be delivered to the closest regional point of presence (POP) node.

You need to configure Azure CDN caching rules.

Which options should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Override

Override: Ignore the origin-provided cache duration; use the provided cache duration instead. This will not override cache-control: no-cache.

Set if missing: Honor origin-provided cache-directive headers, if they exist; otherwise, use the provided cache duration.

Incorrect:

Bypass cache: Do not cache and ignore origin-provided cache-directive headers.

Box 2: 1 hour

All media content must expire from the cache after one hour.

Box 3: Cache every unique URL

Cache every unique URL: In this mode, each request with a unique URL, including the query string, is treated as a unique asset with its cache. For example, the response from the origin server for a request for example.ashx?q=test1 is

cached at the POP node and returned for subsequent caches with the same query string. A request for example.ashx?q=test2 is cached as a separate asset with its time-to-live setting.

Incorrect Answers:

Bypass caching for query strings: In this mode, requests with query strings are not cached at the CDN POP node. The POP node retrieves the asset directly from the origin server and passes it to the requestor with each request.

Ignore query strings: Default mode. In this mode, the CDN point-of-presence (POP) node passes the query strings from the requestor to the origin server on the first request and caches the asset. All subsequent requests for the asset that are

served from the POP ignore the query strings until the cached asset expires.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-query-string

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

You develop and deploy an Azure App Service web app. The web app accesses data in an Azure SQL database.

You must update the web app to store frequently used data in a new Azure Cache for the Redis Premium instance.

You need to implement the Azure Cache for Redis features.

Which feature should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate feature to the correct requirements. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view

content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.red-gate.com/simple-talk/development/dotnet-development/overview-of-azure-cache-for-redis/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/best-practices/caching

Questions you want to ask: AZ-204 exam

Is there any change in difficulty after the AZ-204 exam 2024 update?

I don’t think so, passing the AZ-204 exam is still the same level of difficulty as before, you need a new AZ-204 dumps, you need a new AZ-204 practice, you need to prepare carefully.

Treat the new AZ-204 exam, do I still need to prepare?

Yes, just like any exam or certification, preparation is crucial. Preparation means planning, understanding exam details, dedicating spare time to study and study.

Where should the AZ-204 exam be focused?

I think the focus is: how do you as a software engineer or a cloud engineer solve any cloud-related use case scenarios. This is the point.

The new AZ-204 dumps 2024 and the new AZ-204 practice questions 2024 are the ones that will really help you to prepare for the exam easily and get certified.

What you need to do is: Download the newly updated AZ-204 practice questions 2024 inside the AZ-204 dumps 2024 https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-204.html (PDF or VCE) exercises, prepare diligently, and win the exam.

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Authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 Dumps New Practice Questions Share

December 1, 2023 No Comments

Authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps and new practice questions are the best way to solve the puzzle by passing the Microsoft Azure Administrator exam.

The AZ-104 exam is very content, and there are a lot of fake AZ-104 dumps and practice questions online. Without good learning resources, it is very difficult and time-consuming to understand and gain hands-on experience with so much content. Authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps will help you understand exam questions and how to pass the Microsoft Azure AZ-104 exam.

Download the authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps PDF or VCE mode https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-104.html to get Microsoft Azure certified and start your journey.

First of all, you need to understand the Microsoft AZ-104 exam, for which I have roughly sorted out the key points of the exam:

The AZ-104 exam is divided into six main sections, specifically:

AZ-104: Prerequisites for Azure administrators
AZ-104: Manage identities and governance in Azure
AZ-104: Implement and manage storage in Azure
AZ-104: Deploy and manage Azure compute resources
AZ-104: Configure and manage virtual networks for Azure administrators
AZ-104: Monitor and back up Azure resources

This learning path helps you prepare for Exam AZ-104: Microsoft Azure Administrator. For details, please click here https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/training/paths/az-104-administrator-prerequisites/

Microsoft Azure Certification-related exams are:

AZ-204
AZ-305
DP-500

It costs $165 to take the Microsoft Azure Administrator exam, the total number of questions is about 40-60, and you need to reach 700 (in units of 1000) to pass, and the time limit for the exam is 120 minutes, so you need to hurry.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 Exam has changed on October 26, 2023, so stay tuned

It is important not to use old resources to prepare for the exam, which will not be useful for the changed AZ-104 exam. You’ll need to learn more about the latest changes.

The AZ-104 update adds the following:

The storage section has been re-documented with a new AZ-104 video on web applications, containers, and Kubernetes.
Updated videos for ACI Container Instances, ARM Templates, Azure AD, Public and Private DNS, Azure Site Recovery, Load Balancer, Application Gateway, Firewall, Storage Access Layer, Lifecycle Management, AD Access Storage, and Virtual WAN.
Added Powershell section of PowerShell 7, virtual machine section, and content on virtual machine encryption

Changelog
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/credentials/certifications/resources/study-guides/az-104#change-log (Official Credibility 100)

It’s been a long time coming, and it’s time for the sharing session that interests you the most! Authentic AZ-104 dumps and new practice questions for free!

Share some of the authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps new practice questions for free:

The information is briefly summarized below:

The 15 exam questions shared are from Pass4itSure. This is only a part of the full Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps, all of which have 763 practice questions in the AZ-104 dumps.

Alright, let’s get down to business.

Question 1:

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.

You plan to grant three users named User1, User2, and User3 access to a temporary Microsoft SharePoint document library named Library1.

You need to create groups for the users. The solution must ensure that the groups are deleted automatically after 180 days.

Which two groups should you create? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Security group that uses the Assigned membership type

B. an Office 365 group that uses the Assigned membership type

C. an Office 365 group that uses the Dynamic User membership type

D. a Security group that uses the Dynamic User membership type

E. a Security group that uses the Dynamic Device membership type

Correct Answer: BC

You can set expiration policy only for Office 365 groups in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). Note: With the increase in usage of Office 365 Groups, administrators and users need a way to clean up unused groups. Expiration policies can

help remove inactive groups from the system and make things cleaner.

When a group expires, all of its associated services (the mailbox, Planner, SharePoint site, etc.) are also deleted.

You can set up a rule for dynamic membership on security groups or Office 365 groups.

Incorrect Answers:

A, D, E: You can set expiration policy only for Office 365 groups in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/create-groups/office-365-groups-expiration- policy?view=o365-worldwide

Question 2:

You have an Azure Storage account named storage1.

You plan to use AzCopy to copy data to storage1.

You need to identify the storage services in storage1 to which you can copy the data.

What should you identify?

A. blob, file, table, and queue

B. blob and file only

C. file and table only

D. file only

E. blob, table, and queue only

Correct Answer: B

AzCopy is a command-line utility that you can use to copy blobs or files to or from a storage account.

Incorrect Answers:

A, C, E: AzCopy does not support table and queue storage services.

D: AzCopy supports file storage services, as well as blob storage services.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy-v10

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the quotas shown in the following table.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q3-2

Hot Area:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q3-3

Correct Answer:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q3-4

Question 4:

You have the Azure virtual network named VNet1 that contains a subnet named Subnet1. Subnet1 contains three Azure virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address.

The virtual machines host several applications that are accessible over port 443 to users on the Internet.

Your on-premises network has a site-to-site VPN connection to VNet1.

You discover that the virtual machines can be accessed by using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) from the Internet and from the on-premises network.

You need to prevent RDP access to the virtual machines from the Internet, unless the RDP connection is established from the on-premises network. The solution must ensure that all the applications can still be accessed by the Internet users.

What should you do?

A. Modify the address space of the local network gateway.

B. Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines.

C. Modify the address space of Subnet1.

D. Create a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1.

Correct Answer: D

You can filter network traffic to and from Azure resources in an Azure virtual network with a network security group. A network security group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic to, or outbound network traffic from, several types of Azure resources. You can use a site-to-site VPN to connect your on-premises network to an Azure virtual network. Users on your on-premises network connect by using the RDP or SSH protocol over the site-to-site VPN connection. You don\’t have to allow direct RDP or SSH access over the internet. And this can be achieved by configuring a deny rule in a network security group (NSG) that is linked to Subnet1 for RDP / SSH protocol coming from internet.

Modify the address space of Subnet1 : Incorrect choice Modifying the address space of Subnet1 will have no impact on RDP traffic flow to the virtual network. Modify the address space of the local network gateway : Incorrect choice Modifying the address space of the local network gateway will have no impact on RDP traffic flow to the virtual network. Remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines : Incorrect choice If you remove the public IP addresses from the virtual machines, none of the applications be accessible publicly by the Internet users.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/network-best-practices

Question 5:

You have an Azure subscription.

You have an on-premises virtual machine named VM1. The settings for VM1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

You need to ensure that you can use the disks attached to VM1 as a template for Azure virtual machines.

What should you modify on VM1?

A. Integration Services

B. the network adapters

C. the memory

D. the hard drive

E. the processor

Correct Answer: D

From the exhibit we see that the disk is in the VHDX format. Before you upload a Windows virtual machines (VM) from on-premises to Microsoft Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX). Azure supports only generation 1 VMs that are in the VHD file format and have a fixed sized disk. The maximum size allowed for the VHD is 1,023 GB. You can convert a generation 1 VM from the VHDX file system to VHD and from a dynamically expanding disk to fixed-sized. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/prepare-for-upload-vhd- image?toc=%2fazure%2fvirtual-machines%2fwindows%2ftoc.json

Question 6:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription named Sub1 that contains the resources shown in the following table.

Sub1 contains the following alert rule:

Name: Alert1 Scope: All resource groups in Sub1

-Include all future resources Condition: All administrative operations Actions: Action1

Sub1 contains the following alert processing rule:

Name: Rule1 Scope: Sub1 Rule type: Suppress notifications Apply the rule: On a specific time

-Start: August 10, 2022

-End: August 13, 2022

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q6-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q6-3

Explanation:

Box 1: Yes

The alert processing rule Rule1 suppresses notifications between August 10. 2022 and August 13. 2022.

However:

Suppression: This action removes all the action groups from the affected fired alerts. So, the fired alerts won\’t invoke any of their action groups, not even at the end of the maintenance window. Those fired alerts will still be visible when you list

your alerts in the portal, Azure Resource Graph, API, or PowerShell

Note: Alert processing rules allow you to apply processing on fired alerts. Alert processing rules are different from alert rules. Alert rules generate new alerts, while alert processing rules modify the fired alerts as they\’re being fired.

Use case, Suppress notifications during planned maintenance

Many customers set up a planned maintenance time for their resources, either on a one-time basis or on a regular schedule. The planned maintenance might cover a single resource, like a virtual machine, or multiple resources, like all virtual

machines in a resource group. So, you might want to stop receiving alert notifications for those resources during the maintenance window.

Box 2: No

The alert action is suppressed.

Box 3: Yes

No suppression.

Reference:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/alerts/alerts-processing-rules

Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You deploy an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster that has the network profile shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q7-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q7-3

Box 1: 10.244.0.0/16

The Pod CIDR.

Note: The –pod-cidr should be a large address space that isn\’t in use elsewhere in your network environment. This range includes any on-premises network ranges if you connect, or plan to connect, your Azure virtual networks using Express

Route or a Site-to-Site VPN connection.

This address range must be large enough to accommodate the number of nodes that you expect to scale up to. You can\’t change this address range once the cluster is deployed if you need more addresses for additional nodes.

Box 2: 10.0.0.0/16

The –service-cidr is used to assign internal services in the AKS cluster an IP address.

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/configure-kubenet

Question 8:

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that is used be several departments at your company. Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table:

Another administrator deploys a virtual machine named VM1 and an Azure Storage account named storage2 by using a single Azure Resource Manager template.

You need to view the template used for the deployment.

From which blade can you view the template that was used for the deployment?

A. RG1

B. VM1

C. Storage1

D. Container1

Correct Answer: A

1.View template from deployment history

Go to the resource group for your new resource group. Notice that the portal shows the result of the last deployment. Select this link.

2.You see a history of deployments for the group. In your case, the portal probably lists only one deployment. Select this deployment.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q8-2

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q8-3

The portal displays a summary of the deployment. The summary includes the status of the deployment and its operations and the values that you provided for parameters. To see the template that you used for the deployment, select View template.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q8-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-export- template

Question 9:

HOTSPOT

You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Storage account named storageaccount1.

You export storageaccount1 as an Azure Resource Manager template. The template contains the following sections.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

Hot Area:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q9-2

Correct Answer:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q9-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/templates/microsoft.storage/storageaccounts?tabs=json

Question 10:

You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal. What should you do?

A. From the Azure portal, change the directory.

B. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzContext.

C. From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings.

D. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Select- AzSubscription.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Note: The question is included in a number of questions that depicts the identical set-up. However, every question has a distinctive result. Establish if the solution satisfies the requirements.

Your company has an azure subscription that includes a storage account, a resource group, a blob container and a file share.

A colleague named Jon Ross makes use of a solitary Azure Resource Manager (ARM) template to deploy a virtual machine and an additional Azure Storage account.

You want to review the ARM template that was used by Jon Ross.

Solution: You access the Virtual Machine blade.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

You should use the Resource Group blade

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-export-template

Question 12:

You have an Azure subscription that contains the following storage account:

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q12

You need 10 create a request to Microsoft Support to perform a live migration of storage1 to Zone Redundant Storage (ZRS) replication. How should you modify storage1 before the Live migration?

A. Set the replication to Locally-redundant storage (IRS)

B. Disable Advanced threat protection

C. Remove the lock

D. Set the access tier to Hot

Correct Answer: A

If you want to live migration from RA-GRS to ZRS, at first you have to Switch the storage tier to LRS and then only you can request a live migration.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q12-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/redundancy-migration?toc=%2Fazure%2Fstorage%2Fblobs%2Ftoc.jsonandtabs=portal

Question 13:

You create an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and an associated Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Tenant1. Tenant1 contains the users in the following table.

Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 q13

You need to add an Azure AD Privileged Identity Management application to Tenant1. Which account can you use?

Correct Answer: B

For Azure AD roles in Privileged Identity Management, only a user who is in the Privileged role administrator or Global administrator role can manage assignments for other administrators. You can grant access to other administrators to manage Privileged Identity Management. Global Administrators, Security Administrators, Global readers, and Security Readers can also view assignments to Azure AD roles in Privileged Identity Management. Only owner can create an subscription and only global administrator can perform Privileged Identity Management changes. So you can create subscription with external user and then promote him to global administrator to get things done. As it is mentioned as it is associated with azure tenant so that tenant has an AD domain. So in azure AD the default domain ends with onmicrosoft.com. So you can\’t have Hotmail IDs there. Moreover always remember the principle of least privileges, when you can get your job done with Global Administrator then you should not look for owner for security purpose. [email protected] : Correct Choice As Admin1 is Global Administrator and part of default AD domain so Admin1 can add an Azure AD Privileged Identity Management application to Tenant1 [email protected] : Incorrect Choice As per the above explanation Admin3 is not Global Administrator, so this option is incorrect. [email protected] : Incorrect Choice As per the above explanation Admin2 is not Global Administrator, so this option is incorrect. [email protected] : Incorrect Choice Although this user is Global Administrator but referring to the least privileges principal and default domain consideration this option is incorrect.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-getting-started https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/tutorial-create-instance

Question 14:

You create the following resources in an subscription:

1.An Azure Container Registry instance named Registry1

2.An Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named Cluster1

You create a container image named App 1 on your administrative workstation.

You need to deploy App1 to cluster 1.

What should you do first?

A. Run the aa aks create command.

B. Create a host pool on Cluster1.

C. Upload App1 to Registry 1.

D. Run the kubect1 apply command.

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that has the following providers registered:

1.Authorization

2.Automation

3.Resources

4.Compute

5.KeyVault

6.Network

7.Storage

8.Billing

9.Web

Subscription1 contains an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that has the following configurations:

1.Private IP address: 10.0.0.4 (dynamic)

2.Network security group (NSG): NSG1

3.Public IP address: None

4.Availability set: AVSet

5.Subnet: 10.0.0.0/24

6.Managed disks: No

7.Location: East US

You need to record all the successful and failed connection attempts to VM1.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Register the Microsoft.Insights resource provider

B. Add an Azure Network Watcher connection monitor

C. Register the Microsoft.LogAnalytics provider

D. Enable Azure Network Watcher in the East US Azure region

E. Create an Azure Storage account

F. Enable Azure Network Watcher flow logs

Correct Answer: ADE

NSG flow log data is written to an Azure Storage account. You need to create an Azure Storage account, With an Azure Storage account NSG flow logs can be enabled.

Enable network watcher in the East US region.

NSG flow logging requires the Microsoft.Insights provider.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-nsg-flow-logging-portal

More ……Microsoft exam.

Study smart: effective and authentic AZ-104 resources (continue)

In order to respect your preferences, we have prepared a variety of Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 learning materials (free and from the official one) to ensure that they are authentic and effective.

If you prefer video mode, check it out below
AZ-104 Exam Preparation Videos (of five):

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-104-manage-azure-identities-and-governance-1-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-104-implement-and-manage-storage-2-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-104-deploy-and-manage-azure-compute-resources-3-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-104-configure-and-manage-virtual-networking-4-of-5
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/shows/exam-readiness-zone/preparing-for-az-104-monitor-and-maintain-azure-resources-5-of-5

If you prefer the online practice mode, please take the free practice assessment (Microsoft official) https://login.microsoftonline.com/

If you like the kind of instructor-led courses, check it out here

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/training/courses/az-104t00

As you can see, the authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps help you pass the exam. Download the authentic Microsoft of Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps for new practice questions https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-104.html PDF or VCE.

Keep in mind that success on the AZ-104 exam ultimately depends on a combination of authentic Microsoft Azure Administrator AZ-104 dumps, practice tests, and hands-on experience with Microsoft Azure.

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From	Number of exam questions	Price	Associated certifications
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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the configuration protocols they describe on the right.

Select and Place:

new Cisco 300-420 dumps exam questions 1

Correct Answer:

new Cisco 300-420 dumps exam questions 1-1

Question 2:

Which design element should an engineer consider when multicast is included in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. PIM SSM must run in the underlay.

B. Multicast clients reside in the underlay, and the multicast source is outside the fabric or in the overlay.

C. Rendezvous points must be used in a PIM SSM deployment.

D. Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay and the EID space for wired and wireless clients.

Correct Answer: D

Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay, in the EID space, for both wired and wireless clients https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/deploy-guide/cisco-dna-center-sd-access-wl-dg.pdf

Question 3:

An architect is creating a migration strategy for a large organization in which the choice made by the application between IPv6 and IPv4 is based on the DNS request. Which migration strategy does the architect choose?

A. AFT for public web presence

B. host-initiated tunnels

C. dual stack

D. site-to-site IPv6 over IPv4 tunnels

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

An organization plans to deploy multicast across two different autonomous systems. Their solution must allow RPs to:

discover active sources outside their domain

use the underlying routing information for connectivity with other RPs

announce sources joining the group

Which solution supports these requirements?

A. SSM

B. MSDP

C. PIM-DM

D. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/16-10/configuration_guide/ip_mcast_rtng/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg_chapter_010001.pdf

Question 5:

An existing network solution is using BFD in echo mode. Several of the network devices are experiencing high CPU utilization which an engineer has determined is related to the BFD feature. Which solution should the engineer leverage to reduce the CPU load?

A. Implement slow timers between peers with low CPU resources.

B. Implement BED asynchronous mode between peers with low CPU resources.

C. Enable BFD multi-hop on the devices with low CPU resources.

D. Utilize carrier delay on all routers in the network.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees. Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?

A. PIM-SSM

B. PIM-SM

C. MSDP

D. BIDIR-PIM

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.

Question 7:

Which two functions are provided by the Cisco SD-WAN orchestration plane? (Choose two.)

A. centralized provisioning

B. primary authentication point

C. NAT traversal facilitation

D. Zero Touch Provisioning

E. troubleshooting and monitoring

Correct Answer: BC

Question 8:

An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be grouped in two SIP instances.

Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?

A. MSTP

B. RSTP

C. Rapid PVST

D. STP

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

A company uses cloud-based applications for voice and video calls, file sharing, content sharing, and messaging. During business hours, these applications randomly become slow and unresponsive. However, other applications work smoothly with the current applied QoS polices. Which solution must the company choose to resolve the issue?

A. Identify the applications with NBAR2 and allocate the required bandwidth accordingly.

B. Identify the port used by each application and apply a minimum bandwidth guarantee.

C. Identify the applications and reserve the required bandwidth on the perimeter routers.

D. Identify the application ports, create groupings, and rate-limit the required bandwidth.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: using NBAR to identify application and bandwidth usage, then adjust existing QoS polices would be a more simple option. Of course, B is still ok if the network admin know all traffic and bandwidth consumption by other tools, say netflow. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_nbar/configuration/15-mt/qos-nbar- 15-mt-book/nbar-protocl-discvry.html#GUID-ED1AEDA1-AE69-45C3-A77E- 2AF881CA9C36 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ios-nx-os-software/network-based-application- recognition-nbar/index.html

Question 10:

How is sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.

B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.

C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.

D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

In a cisco SD-Access brownfield deployment scenario, which configuration deployment must be taken with Cisco DNA center?

A. Subnet stretching

B. LAN automation

C. Automated UNDERLAY

D. Manual underlay

Correct Answer: B

Question 12:

What is the role of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. fabric device that connects wired endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

B. map system that manages endpoint to device relationships

C. fabric device that connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric

D. map system that manages External Layer 3 networks

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://netaavi.com/my-blog-1/f/overview-of-sda-fabric-solution

Question 13:

Which two steps can be taken to improve convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)

A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

B. Merge all the areas into one backbone area

C. Tune OSPF parameters

D. Make all non-backbone areas stub areas

E. Span the same IP network across multiple areas.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 14:

Which type of rendezvous point deployment is standards-based and support dynamic RP discovery?

A. Auto-RP

B. Anycast-RP

C. bootstrap router

D. static RP

Correct Answer: C

Question 15:

What is the purpose of a control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access network fabric?

A. to maintain the endpoint database and mapping between endpoints and edge nodes

B. to detect endpoints in the fabric and inform the host tracking database of EID-to-fabric-edge node bindings

C. to identify and authenticate endpoints within the network fabric

D. to act as the network gateway between the network fabric and outside networks

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-design-guide.html

…

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From	Number of exam questions	Type	Online download	Associated certifications
Pass4itsure	13	Exam questions and answers	220-1101 PDF	CompTIA A+ , CompTIA Network+

QUESTION 1:

Which of the following is a valid use for PaaS?

A. Off-site backups

B. An application development environment

C. A virtual server installation and configuration model

D. A web application for asset management

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning
correctly yesterday.

Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been
filed?

A. Inquire about possible changes.

B. File a damage report.

C. Requisition of a new scanner.

D. Attempt to clean the scanner.

Correct Answer: A

http://www.221021.com/Hardware/input-output-devices/32310.html

1.
Identify the problem.
Gather information from the user, identify user changes, and, if applicable, perform backups before making changes.
Inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes.

2.
Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious).
If necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.

3.
Test the theory to determine the cause.
Once the theory is confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory or escalate.

4.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
Refer to the vendor\’s instructions for guidance.

5.
Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

6.
Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

QUESTION 3:

An administrator has configured a server to host virtualized instances. The requirements of each VM must be able to
scale automatically depending on peak and off-peak usage.

Which of the following terms BEST describes this type of cloud concept?

A. Overprovisioning

B. Measured pooling

C. Resources pooling

D. Rapid elasticity

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard
without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?

A. Thunderbolt

B. eSATA

C. M.2

D. SCSI

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5:

The IT department recently upgrade the client computer for the graphics department. A user reports the new computer has
not worked since. It makes an unusual sound when pressing the power button.

A technician verifies the power cable works and the computer is connected properly to both data and power. The monitor powers on but display the message NO source. Which of the following BEST explains the cause of this
problem?

A. There is insufficient power in the computer

B. There is a back screen on the system boot.

C. The computer is overheating.

D. The error beep codes on POST.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6:

A user reports that printed receipts have black smudges over the entire image. The text is still present but is very dark
and sometimes illegible.

Which of the following are the MOST likely cause and solutions for the printer issue?

A. The ribbon is jammed and rubbed on the paper. Clear the bad ribbon and feed it through properly.

B. The printhead is too hot. Adjust the temperature down and retry printing.

C. The printer is loaded with the wrong type of paper. Replace the receipt paper with carbon paper.

D. The blue ink cartridge was loaded with black ink. Put in the correct ink and clean the printhead.

Correct Answer: B

Receipts are printed via a thermal printer. Thermal printers work by heating paper in specified areas in order to create
an image. The specific component that does this is a thermal printhead. Since the image appears to have black
smudges and is too dark, we know the thermal printhead is too hot since the capability of precise heating has
diminished

QUESTION 7:

A tier one technician has spent the past thirty minutes troubleshooting an Issue With an end user\’s network connection
After a solution was implemented, the end user rebooted the system, tested the Issue, and confirmed the Issue was
resolved.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Document the findings, actions, and solutions in the company knowledge base

B. Advise the user to try the solution before contacting the help desk if the Issue happens again

C. Establish a theory of probable cause

D. Escalate the Issue to the tier two support team for resolution.

Correct Answer: A

According to the Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Study Guide (220-1101) 1, the correct answer is A. Document the
findings, actions, and solutions in the company knowledge base.

The explanation is that after resolving an issue, a technician should always document what was done and how it was fixed. This helps to create a record of the problem and its solution for future reference and also to share knowledge with other technicians.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/acore-1-220-1101-study-guide By documenting the findings, actions, and
solution in the company knowledge base, it will help to ensure that if the Issue happens again, the technician or a
different technician will be able to quickly and easily find the solution and resolve the Issue. Additionally, it is important
to document the solution so that the same issue does not need to be troubleshot multiple times in the future.

QUESTION 8:

A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it.

B. Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution.

C. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

D. Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed.

Correct Answer: D

Identify the problem.

QUESTION 9:

A server administrator set up a VM to be used in a lab setting. A technician is setting up thin-client computers to access
this VM. Which of the following tasks are required to complete the project? (Choose three.)

A. Connect the device to a printer.

B. Install the operating system.

C. Install a USB keyboard and mouse.

D. Connect the device to the network.

E. Install the latest system updates.

F. Install the latest device drivers.

G. Connect the device to a monitor.

H. Install the necessary applications.

Correct Answer: DEH

QUESTION 10:

A technical lead wants to migrate all common business applications, including email and file shares, to the cloud. Which
of the following cloud concepts should be used?

A. MaaS

B. PaaS

C. SaaS

D. laaS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

A technician needs to call a user\’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user\’s mobile
device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?

A. Long-term evolution

B. Near-field communication

C. Radio frequency ID

D. Z-wave

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

A projector\’s image begins to flicker during a presentation. The laptop display does not produce this issue.
When a technician changes the resolution on the laptop, the issue persists.

Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should take?

A. Check the connectivity of the VGA cable.

B. Check the connectivity of the power cable.

C. Change the aspect ratio on the laptop.

D. Change the settings of the projector.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

A technician is setting up a laptop with an encrypted hard drive. The laptop will securely store a PIN that the user will
input at log-on. Which of the following must be installed to set up this configuration?

A. TPM

B. HSM

C. UEFI

D. ARM

Correct Answer: A

TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, and it is a special chip installed on a computer\’s motherboard that stores
encryption keys, passwords, and digital certificates. It can also securely store a user\’s PIN, allowing them to access
the laptop without having to enter the PIN every time they log on.

TPM is a secure way to store and protect sensitive data, making it ideal for use in laptops that need to securely store a PIN.

…

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312-50V12 Dumps Update Good To Win The Exam

April 27, 2023 No Comments

No bad intentions, just to help you win the (CEHv12) exam. How to do it, you must be curious. Don’t worry, Pass4itSure has released a new 312-50V12 dumps (a new study quiz that includes all the exam content), and if you practice hard, you can win the 312-50V12 exam very well.

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The EC-Council Certified Ethical Hacker (CEHv12) 312-50V12 exam is a certification exam that measures candidates’ knowledge and skills in cybersecurity.

Where the 312-50V12 exam is difficult？

In order to help you with the 312-50V12 exam, I have sorted out the difficulties of the exam:

Complex technical jargon:

This can be confusing for some test takers.

Familiar with various tools:

Such as vulnerability scanners, network sniffers, port scanners, password cracking tools, etc., there are many and easy to confuse.

Master network attack techniques:

Including denial of service attacks, SQL injection attacks, phishing, etc., candidates need to master the principles and countermeasures of these attack techniques.

The exam requires candidates to understand various network attack techniques including denial of service attacks, SQL injection attacks, phishing, etc., and candidates need to master the principles and countermeasures of these attack techniques.

Familiarity with various cybersecurity standards and regulations:

such as ISO 27001, HIPAA, GDPR, etc., requires in-depth knowledge.

A large amount of exam content:

The exam content is very extensive and requires candidates to put in a lot of time and effort to study and prepare for the exam.

What are the specific ways to deal with the difficulties of the 312-50V12 exam?

As a candidate, you should be well prepared, familiar with the content of the exam and technical terms, master various security tools and attack techniques, and understand cybersecurity standards and regulations.

At the same time, you should use the latest 312-50v12 dumps (which can be updated by Pass4itSure) to practice the exam questions to ensure excellent results.

Next, Old Rules, share the latest 312-50v12 exam questions (free)

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Question 1:

In an attempt to damage the reputation of a competitor organization, Hailey, a professional hacker, gathers a list of employee and client email addresses and other related information by using various search engines, social networking sites, and web-spidering tools. In this process, she also uses an automated tool to gather a list of words from the target website to further perform a brute-force attack on the previously gathered email addresses.

What is the tool used by Hailey for gathering a list of words from the target website?

A. Shadowsocks

B. CeWL

C. Psiphon

D. Orbot

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which of the following allows attackers to draw a map or outline the target organization\’s network infrastructure to know about the actual environment that they are going to hack?

A. Enumeration

B. Vulnerability analysis

C. Malware analysis

D. Scanning networks

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

Null sessions are unauthenticated connections (not using a username or password.) to an NT or 2000 system. Which TCP and UDP ports must you filter to check null sessions on your network?

A. 137 and 139

B. 137 and 443

C. 139 and 443

D. 139 and 445

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: C

Network-based scanner

A network-based vulnerability scanner, in simplistic terms, is the process of identifying loopholes in a computer\’s network or IT assets, which hackers and threat actors can exploit. By implementing this process, one can successfully identify their organization\’s current risk(s).

This is not where the buck stops; one can also verify the effectiveness of your system\’s security measures while improving internal and external defenses. Through this review, an organization is well

equipped to take an extensive inventory of all systems, including operating systems, installed software, security patches, hardware, firewalls, anti-virus software, and much more.

Agent-based scanner

Agent-based scanners make use of software scanners on each and every device; the results of the scans are reported back to the central server. Such scanners are well-equipped to find and report on a range of vulnerabilities.

NOTE:

This option is not suitable for us, since for it to work, you need to install a special agent on each computer before you start collecting data from them.

Question 5:

You are programming a buffer overflow exploit and you want to create a NOP sled of 200 bytes in the program exploit.c

What is the hexadecimal value of NOP instruction?

A. 0x60

B. 0x80

C. 0x70

D. 0x90

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which of the following tools is used to analyze the files produced by several packet-capture programs such as tcpdump, WinDump, Wireshark, and EtherPeek?

A. tcptrace

B. Nessus

C. OpenVAS

D. tcptraceroute

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

During a Xmas scan, what indicates a port is closed?

A. No return response

B. RST

C. ACK

D. SYN

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which Nmap switch helps evade IDS or firewalls?

A. -n/-R

B. -0N/-0X/-0G

C. -T

D. -D

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

An attacker redirects the victim to malicious websites by sending them a malicious link by email. The link appears authentic but redirects the victim to a malicious web page, which allows the attacker to steal the victim\’s data. What type of attack is this?

A. Phishing

B. Vlishing

C. Spoofing

D. DDoS

Correct Answer: A

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phishing Phishing is a type of social engineering attack often used to steal user data, including login credentials and credit card numbers. It occurs when an attacker, masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message. The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link, which can lead to the installation of malware, the freezing of the system as part of a ransomware attack, or the revealing of sensitive information. An attack can have devastating results.

For individuals, this includes unauthorized purchases, the stealing of funds, or identity theft. Moreover, phishing is often used to gain a foothold in corporate or governmental networks as a part of a larger attack, such as an advanced persistent threat (APT) event. In this latter scenario, employees are compromised in order to bypass security perimeters, distribute malware inside a closed environment, or gain privileged access to secured data.

An organization succumbing to such an attack typically sustains severe financial losses in addition to declining market share, reputation, and consumer trust. Depending on the scope, a phishing attempt might escalate into a security incident from which a business will have a difficult time recovering.

Question 10:

Kate dropped her phone and subsequently encountered an issue with the phone\’s internal speaker. Thus, she is using the phone\’s loudspeaker for phone calls and other activities. Bob, an attacker, takes advantage of this vulnerability and secretly exploits the hardware of Kate\’s phone so that he can monitor the loudspeaker\’s output from data sources such as voice assistants, multimedia messages, and audio files by using a malicious app to breach speech privacy. What is the type of attack Bob performed on Kate in the above scenario?

A. Man-in-the-disk attack

B. aLTEr attack

C. SIM card attack

D. Spearphone attack

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

What is a NULL scan?

A. A scan in which all flags are turned off

B. A scan in which certain flags are off

C. A scan in which all flags are on

D. A scan in which the packet size is set to zero

E. A scan with an illegal packet size

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

You are a penetration tester and are about to perform a scan on a specific server. The agreement that you signed with the client contains the following specific condition for the scan: “The attacker must scan every port on the server several times using a set of spoofed sources IP addresses. ” Suppose that you are using Nmap to perform this scan. What flag will you use to satisfy this requirement?

A. The -A flag

B. The -g flag

C. The -f flag

D. The -D flag

Correct Answer: D

flags -source-port and -g are equivalent and instruct Nmap to send packets through a selected port. this option is used to try to cheat firewalls whitelisting traffic from specific ports. the following example can scan the target from port twenty to ports eighty, 22, 21,23 and 25 sending fragmented packets to LinuxHint.

Question 13:

which of the following protocols can be used to secure an LDAP service against anonymous queries?

A. SSO

B. RADIUS

C. WPA

D. NTLM

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

What would be the purpose of running “wget 192.168.0.15 -q -S” against a web server?

A. Performing content enumeration on the webserver to discover hidden folders

B. Using wget to perform banner grabbing on the webserver

C. Flooding the web server with requests to perform a DoS attack

D. Downloading all the contents of the web page locally for further examination

Correct Answer: B

-q, –quiet quiet (no output) -S, –server-response print server response

Question 15:

Gilbert, a web developer, uses a centralized web API to reduce complexity and increase the Integrity of updating and changing data. For this purpose, he uses a web service that uses HTTP methods such as PUT. POST. GET. and DELETE can improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application. What is the type of web-service API mentioned in the above scenario?

A. JSON-RPC

B. SOAP API

C. RESTful API

D. REST API

Correct Answer: C

*REST is not a specification, tool, or framework, but instead is an architectural style for web services that serve as a communication medium between various systems on the web. *RESTful APIs, which are also known as RESTful services, are designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE RESTful API: RESTful API is a RESTful service that is designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols.

RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE. RESTful API is also designed to make applications independent to improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application.

APIs with the following features can be referred to as RESTful APIs: o Stateless: The client end stores the state of the session; the server is restricted to save data during the request processing o Cacheable: The client should save responses (representations) in the cache. This feature can enhance API performance pg. 1920 CEHv11 manual.

https://cloud.google.com/files/apigee/apigee-web-api-design-the-missing-link-ebook.pdf

Conclusion:

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350-401 Dumps 2023 Update | Overcome All The Difficulties Of The Exam

March 28, 2023 No Comments

The Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam is a highly specialized exam with a large number of candidates competing. Competition is fierce and the 350-401 (ENCOR) exam requires adequate practice and preparation. Having said all this, the exam is not impossible to crack. With the right guidance, it can pass smoothly. For example, our latest update 350-401 dumps 2023 are here to help you overcome all the difficulties of the exam.

In this type of exam, the preparation must be strategic and well-planned. Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-401.html is a good choice for your pass exam. Improve your knowledge and skills and better prepare for the exam by providing the latest study materials with 1044 exam questions.

What is the hardest thing about the 350-401 exam?

The possible factors that make the exam the hardest vary for different people. Some common factors include:

Time pressure: The Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam has a time limit and requires all questions to be completed within the allotted 120 minutes. For some people, time constraints can cause them to feel stressed and anxious, which can affect their performance.

Question Difficulty: Some of the questions on the 350-401 exam is very complex or involve abstract concepts that may require specific skills, knowledge, or experience to solve, which can be difficult for some people.

Nervousness and anxiety: The exam itself is a high-pressure environment, and even with good preparation, some people tend to feel nervous and anxious, which can affect their performance and thinking ability.

Lack of self-confidence: Some people may lack self-confidence and feel that they are not equipped enough to cope with the challenges of the 350-401 exam, which can also make it difficult for them.

In short, the most difficult factors of the exam vary from person to person and need to be analyzed and solved according to individual circumstances.

But it’s probably a few points outlined above, don’t worry, these can be solved.

The latest 350-401 dumps 2023 help overcome all the difficulties of the exam

The latest 350-401 dumps 2023, especially those provided by Pass4itSure, contain all 350-401 exam question types, which are difficult and easy, allowing you to fully understand the content of the exam, promote the understanding of knowledge, and master the difficult points. By practicing the exam questions, you will no longer be nervous and anxious, and face the final exam with more confidence.

Requires practice and thorough preparation by 350-401 dumps 2023

Do not fight unprepared battles. The highly competitive 350-401 (ENCOR) exam requires adequate practice and preparation. So, here is specially prepared for you to practice the latest exam part of the 350-401 dumps questions 2023 online, provided by Pass4itSure for free.

last update 350-401 dumps questions	time
free 350-401 questions	September 28, 2022

Question 1:

A client on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same.

What type of roam occurs?

A. inter-controller

B. inter-subnet

C. intra-VLAN

D. intra-controller

Correct Answer: D

Mobility, or roaming, is a wireless LAN client\’s ability to maintain its association seamlessly from one access point to another securely and with as little latency as possible. Three popular types of client roaming are:

Intra-Controller Roaming: Each controller supports same-controller client roaming across access points managed by the same controller. This roaming is transparent to the client as the session is sustained, and the client continues using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address.

Inter-Controller Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group and on the same subnet. This roaming is also transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP- or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.

Inter-Subnet Roaming: Multiple-controller deployments support client roaming across access points managed by controllers in the same mobility group on different subnets. This roaming is transparent to the client because the session is sustained and a tunnel between the controllers allows the client to continue using the same DHCP-assigned or client-assigned IP address as long as the session remains active.

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to the NewYork switch to resolve the issue?

A. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode negotiate NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

B. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

C. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

D. NewYork(config)#no interface po1 NewYork(config)#interface range fa0/1-2 NewYork(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode auto NewYork(config-if)#end NewYork#

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

Which HTTP code must be returned to prevent the script from exiting?

A. 200

B. 201

C. 300

D. 301

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

A. VLAN

B. VTEP

C. VXLAN

D. VRF

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

import JSON from requests import get

Headers = { “Content-Type” : “application/yang-data+json”, “Accept” : “application/yang-data+json” }

Devices = open(“devices.txt”, “r”)

for Device in Devices.deadlines():Hostname, IP, Login, Pass = Device.strip().split(“,”)URL = f”https://{IP}/restconf/data/Cisco-IOS-XE-native:native”Creds = (Login, Pass)

Response = get(URL, auth = Creds, headers = Headers, verify = False)

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?

A. ETR

B. ITR

C. Proxy ETR

D. Proxy ITR

Correct Answer: C

ETR, (Egress) from internal to External ITR, (Internal) from External to Internal

Question 7:

When voice services are deployed over a wireless environment, which service must be disabled to ensure the quality of calls?

A. Aggressive load balancing

B. Dynamic transmit power control

C. Priority queuing

D. Fastlane

Correct Answer: A

To have a successful voice deployment with 792x phones, not only do you need a professional site survey, you also need to make sure that the controller and the switched network are properly configured for voice.

The controller has several settings for a proper voice configuration:

Aggressive Load Balancing should be disabled.

Reference: http://what-when-how.com/deploying-and-troubleshooting-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/configuration-cisco-wireless-lan-controllers/

Question 8:

What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete

C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network

D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

Correct Answer: D

Stateful Switchover Routers specifically designed for high availability include hardware redundancy, such as dual power supplies and route processors (RPs). An RP is responsible for learning the network topology and building the routing table (RIB).

An RP failure can trigger routing protocol adjacencies to reset, resulting in packet loss and network instability.

During an RP failure, it may be more desirable to hide the failure and allow the router to continue forwarding packets using the previously programmed CEF table entries rather than temporarily drop packets while waiting for the secondary RP to reestablish the routing protocol adjacencies and rebuild the forwarding table.

Stateful switchover (SSO) is a redundancy feature that allows a Cisco router with two RPs to synchronize router configuration and control plane state information.

The process of mirroring information between RPs is referred to as checkpointing. SSO-enabled routers always checkpoint line card operation and Layer 2 protocol states.

During a switchover, the standby RP immediately takes control and prevents basic problems such as interface link flaps. However, Layer 3 packet forwarding is disrupted without additional configuration.

The RP switchover triggers a routing protocol adjacency flap that clears the roundtable. When the routing table is cleared, the CEF entries are purged, and traffic is no longer routed until the network topology is relearned and the forwarding table is reprogrammed.

Enabling nonstop forwarding (NSF) or nonstop routing (NSR) high availability capabilities informs the router(s) to maintain the CEF entries for a short duration and continue forwarding packets through an RP failure until the control plane recovers.

Question 9:

Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors?

A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes.

B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server.

C. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server.

D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server.

Correct Answer: A

A virtual machine (VM) is a software emulation of a physical server with an operating system. From an application\’s point of view, the VM provides the look and feel of a real physical server, including all its components, such as CPU, memory,

and network interface cards (NICs).

The virtualization software that creates VMs and performs the hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run concurrently is known as a hypervisor. There are two types of hypervisors: type 1 and type 2 hypervisors. In type 1 hypervisor

(or native hypervisor), the hypervisor is installed directly on the physical server. Then instances of an operating system (OS) are installed on the hypervisor. Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the hardware resources. Therefore they are

more efficient than hosted architectures. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware vSphere/ESXi, Oracle VM Server, KVM, and Microsoft Hyper-V.

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. answer \’Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach other nodes\’ big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required.

Examples of type 2 hypervisors are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac, and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (which only runs

on Windows).

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information to JSON Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Question 11:

Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

A. HTTP Status Code: 200

B. HTTP Status Code: 302

C. HTTP Status Code: 401

D. HTTP Status Code: 504

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/401

Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C

B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.

C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.

D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A

E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

Question 14:

What happens to the signal strength of an RF signal due to wave spreading?

A. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off equally near the transmitter and also farther away

B. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off quickly near the transmitter but more slowly farther away

C. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the receiver and more quickly farther away

D. The signal strength of the RF signal will fall off slowly near the transmitter but more quickly farther away

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command set must be added to the configuration to analyze 50 packets out of every 100?

A. sampler SAMPLER-1 mode random 1-out-of 2 flow FLOW-MONITOR-1

Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor SAMPLER-1 input

B. sampler SAMPLER-1 no mode random 1-out-of 2 mode percent 50 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

D. flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 record v4_r1 sampler SAMPLER-1 interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0

ip flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1 sampler SAMPLER-1 input

Correct Answer: C

Everything is complete and configured correctly, we just have to apply it on an interface.

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700-805 CRM Dumps 2023 – New Exam Preparation Materials

January 9, 2023 No Comments

The new year begins, and you’ll also need new 700-805 exam preparation materials to prepare for the Cisco Renewals Manager (CRM) exam.

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The 700-805 CRM exam is a 60-minute assessment of Cisco Renewals Manager to demonstrate their knowledge of customer experience (CX) concepts and tools covered in the Renewals Manager course learning map.

The 700-805 exam costs $300. Languages are available in English and Japanese.

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Cisco 700-805 free dumps 2023 questions:

QUESTION 1

What does TPV mean?

A. Total Product Value
B. Total Partner View
C. Telepresence Value
D. Total Partner Value

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which statement best summarizes the intended outcome of the Success Plan?

A. development of a customer-centric view for achieving value from their portfolio
B. provide scheduling for resolving customer qual y issues
C. generate financial data that indicates a customer\\’s propensity to renew
D. grow incremental annual recurring revenue

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

What is the primary customer value of the Cisco Services Portfolio?

A. Services priced based on usage
B. Services packages tailored to specific customer needs
C. Customers can develop their own service offerings
D. On-call, 24/7 service technicians at all levels

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

During which activity of the renewal process would an RM provide an appropriate co-termination timeframe and gain
required internal approvals?

A. deal strategy
B. billing
C. proposal build
D. quote delivery

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Which task is the responsibility of the Renewals Manager?
A. billing recurring revenue contracts
B. managing recurring revenue risk
C. driving adoption of specific technologies
D. managing the Success Plan

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which licensing model is the most complex for a customer to manage?

A. Managed service agreement
B. Subscription
C. Enterprise Agreement
D. A La Carte

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

What is the main purpose of CCW-R?

A. to factor customer ATR, up-sell, and attrition
B. to allow customers and partners to download renewal data
C. to allow customers and partners to store new software subscriptions and service contracts from one tool
D. to capture partner and customer billing preferences

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

How does Cisco define Business Critical Services?
A. subscription-based services covering the lifecycle of a technology
B. Pay-as-you-go, services covering business-critical functions
C. hardware replacement
D. Pay-as-you-go, technology-based services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Customer A purchased a one-year WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. Customer B purchases a three-year
WebEx contract of 100 seats at $10 per seat. What is the annual recurring revenue (ARR) for each?

A. $1000 and $3000
B. $1100 and $3300
C. $1000 and $1000
D. $3000 and $3000

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

Which is the first step in a solutions-led sales approach?

A. present quote to the customer
B. examine previous purchases
C. identify the latest technology release
D. understand the customer\\’s objectives

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which statement best describes an Ask the Expert session?

A. A pre-recorded webinar from an expert
B. A hosted an educational webinar with live expert Q and A
C. A 24-7 phone line providing expert advice
D. A one-on-one coaching engagement covering specific use cases

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which service offering helps define the customer\\’s IT vision and strategy?

A. Support
B. Advisory
C. Optimization
D. Training

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

When renewing a contract with a customer, which action is important?

A. Start discussions once the contract has expired.
B. Validate customers’ business needs.
C. Do not offer any financing solutions.
D. Propose only the most important part of the solution.

Correct Answer: A

One last word:

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350-401 Dumps (r 9.27) Brand-New 350-401 ECOR Exam Preparation Materials

September 28, 2022 No Comments

Use our 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) to prepare for the Cisco CCNP 350-401 exam. Our new 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) contains 866 practice questions and answers to ensure you’re ready.

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Need to know the basics of the 350-401 exam?

To pass the 350-401 exam, understanding the basics of the exam is the first step. Therefore, it is necessary.

The 350-401 exam is also known as the 350-401 ENCOR. It requires you to answer 100 ± questions in two hours and get 750-850 out of 1000 points to pass. It costs $400 to take the exam.

Passing the 350-401 exam is closely linked to the following certifications:

CCNP Enterprise (CCNP Enterprise Core Exam)
CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure (CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure Qualifying Exam)
CCIE Enterprise Wireless (CCIE Enterprise Wireless Qualifying Exam)

How do I prepare for the Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) exam?

Pass the 350-401 exam, how to prepare is important. You can use Pass4itSure 350-401 dumps (r 9.27) to prepare for the exam. It has the latest 350-401 exam practice questions that will help you win exams easily.

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Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
ENCOR training videos
ENCOR study materials

……

There are more, welcome to add.

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This blog provides you with free Cisco 350-401 ECOR exam preparation materials.

You can download the free 350-401 exam question: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1tkPwTavFjjXlt4gzLWBvpvUf9auk-Xlu/view?usp=sharing at [google drive].

Or read the online 350-401 exam questions directly below.

Cisco 350-401 Free Dumps: New 350-401 ENCOR Questions Test:

NEW QUESTION 1

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A. a predetermined string that is passed from client to server
B. a one-time encrypted token
C. a username that is stored in the local router database
D. a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Correct Answer: A

In REST API Security – API keys are widely used in the industry and became some sort of standard, however, this
the method should not be considered a good security measure.

API Keys were created as somewhat of a fix to the early authentication issues of HTTP Basic Authentication and other
such systems. In this method, a unique generated value is assigned to each first-time user, signifying that the user is
known. When the user attempts to re-enter the system, their unique key (sometimes generated from their hardware
combination and IP data, and other times randomly generated by the server which knows them) is used to prove that
they’re the same user as before.

Reference: https://blog.restcase.com/4-most-used-rest-api-authentication-methods/

NEW QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has configured an IP SLA for UDP echo\\’s. Which command is needed to start the IP SLA to test every 30
seconds and continue until stopped?

A. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life forever
B. IP SLA schedule 30 start-time now life forever
C. IP SLA schedule 100 start-time now life 30
D. IP SLA schedule 100 life forever

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, which protocol is used by an extended node to connect to a single edge node?

A. VXLAN
B. IS-IS
C. 802 1Q
D. CTS

Correct Answer: C

SD-Access Extended Nodes provide the ability to extend the enterprise network by providing connectivity to non-carpeted spaces of an enterprise – commonly called the Extended Enterprise. This allows network connectivity and management of IoT devices and the deployment of traditional enterprise end devices in outdoor and non-carpeted environments such as distribution centers, warehouses, or Campus parking lots.

This feature extends consistent, policy-based automation to Cisco Industrial Ethernet, Catalyst 3560-CX Compact, and
Digital Building Series switches and enables segmentation for user endpoints and IoT devices connected to these
nodes.

Using Cisco DNA Center automation, switches in the extended node role are onboarded to their connected edge node
using an 802.1Q trunk over an EtherChannel with one or multiple physical link members. Extended nodes are
discovered using zero-touch Plug-and-Play.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-designguide.html#Network_Components

NEW QUESTION 4

How does a fabric AP fit in the network?

A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
D. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to the DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

An engineer must configure a router to leak routes between two VRFs Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP any 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address 50
IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
B. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast route-map ACL-to-red
C. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.256 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address
ACL-to-red ip vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast map rm-to-red
D. IP access-list extended ACL-to-red permit IP 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.265 any route-map rm-to-red permit 10 match IP address acl-to-red IP vrf RED rd 1:1 import ipv4 unicast ACL-to-red

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two)

A. RADIUS authentication queries the router`s local username database
B. TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users
C. Local user names are case-insensitive
D. Local authentication is maintained on the router
E. KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 8

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:
Location A: -72 dBm Location B: -75 dBm Location C: -65 dBm Location D: -80 dBm
Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A. The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than at location C
B. Location D has the strongest RF signal strength.
C. The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing.
D. The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than at location A
E. The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than at location B

Correct Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “Tommy” under normal operation?

A. Cisco
B. local
C. 0 Cisco
D. Tommy

Correct Answer: A

In this question, there are two different passwords for user “Tommy”:
+
In the TACACS+ server, the password is “Tommy”
+
In the local database of the router, the password is “Cisco”.
From the line “login authentication local” we know that the router uses the local database for authentication so the
password should be “Cisco”.
Note: “… password 0 …” here means unencrypted password.

NEW QUESTION 10

In a fabric-enabled wireless network, which device is responsible for maintaining the endpoint ID database?

A. fabric border node
B. fabric edge node
C. fabric wireless controller
D. control plane node

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify?

A. The tunnel will be established and work as expected
B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface
C. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites
D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the wireless elements on the left to their definitions on the right.

NEW QUESTION 13

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?

A. fabric control plane node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric border node
D. fabric edge node.

Correct Answer: A

SD-Access Wireless Architecture Control Plane Node Closer Look Fabric Control-Plane Node is based on a LISP Map
Server / Resolver Runs the LISP Endpoint ID Database to provide overlay reachability information
+
A simple Host Database, that tracks Endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings (RLOCs)
+
Host Database supports multiple types of Endpoint ID (EID), such as IPv4 /32, IPv6 /128*, or MAC/48
+
Receives prefix registrations from Edge Nodes for wired clients and from Fabric mode WLCs for wireless clients
+
Resolves lookup requests from FE to locate Endpoints
+
Updates Fabric Edge nodes, Border nodes with wireless client mobility, and RLOC information

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/latam/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf

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Cisco 300-425 Exam Dumps Publishes | The Most Powerful 300-425 ENWLSD Learn Materials

July 13, 2022 No Comments

powerful 300-425 ENWLSD learning materials

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What do you think of the Cisco CCNP 300-425 exam?

Abbreviation: 300-425 ENWLSD
Full Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)
Exam time: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Cost: $300
Certification: CCNP Enterprise (Prove your skills with Enterprise networking solutions)
Other:
To earn CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to pass two exams: a core exam (350-401 ENCOR) and an enterprise concentration exam of your choice (one of six). The 300-425 exam happens to be one of the concentrated exams.

There are 6 enterprise concentration exams you need to know:

The above are the basic knowledge points of the exam, you need to know.

Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD) exam learn resources:

The official ones are:
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks (ENWLSD)

Powerful study material: Pass4itSure 300-425 exam dumps

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Download the Pass4itSure 300-425 exam dumps (learn material)

Practice all the questions in the 300-425 dumps

Take the ENWLSD exam 300-425

Finally, you will be notified that you succeeded

[2022.7] Newly released 300-425 free exam questions:

QUESTION # 1

An engineer performs a Layer 1 survey by using the Metegeek analyzer only on the current operating channel. Which
the operating mode is configured for a Cisco CleanAir AP?

A. Local
B. Sniffer
C. Monitor
D. SE-connect

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

QUESTION # 2

An engineer Is trying to determine the most cost-effective way to deploy high availability for a campus enterprise
wireless network that currently leverages three wireless LAN controllers. Which architecture should the engineer
deploy?

A. N+1 solution without SS0
B. N+1 with SSO
C. N+N solution without SSO
D. N+N with SSO

Correct Answer: B

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/hi_avail/N1_High_Availability_Deploy
ment_Guide/N1_HA_Overview.html?

QUESTION # 3

A high-density wireless network is designed. Which Cisco WLC configuration setting must be incorporated in the design
to encourage clients to use the 5 GHz spectrum?

A. RRM
B. Cisco centralized key management
C. Band select
D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 4

An engineer changed the TPC Power Threshold for wireless deployment from the default value to 65 dBm. The
engineer conducts a new post-deployment Survey to validate the results What is the expected outcome?

A. Increase cell size
B. Decreased client signal strength
C. Increased received sensitivity
D. Decreased channel overlap

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 5

During a post-deployment site Survey, issues are found with non-wi-Fi interference. What should the engineer use to
identify the source of the Interference?

A. Network analysis module
B. Wireless intrusion prevention
C. Wireshark
D. Cisco spectrum expert

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION # 6

A customer called with a requirement that internal clients must be on different subnets depending on the building they
are in, AH access points are operating in local mode and will not be modified, and this is a single controller solution.
Which design approach creates the desired result?

A. Create an SSID, place it to the desired VLAN under WLANs, and configure 802 lx in ISE to assign the correct VLAN
based on the SSID from which the client is authenticating.
B. Create FlexConnecI groups, place the access points in. and set the correct VLAN to SSID mapping based on
location.
C. Create AP groups for each desired location, map the correct VLANs to the internal SSID and add the access points
for that location.
D. Create mobility anchors for the SSID, and on the controller under the internal SSID. create a foreign map to the
desired VLAN based on location.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION # 7

A network engineer is troubleshooting connectivity issues between two WLCs running 8.x code in SSO mode and finds
that the redundancy management heartbeat is failing. Which packet type must be filtered for heartbeats when taking a
capture to verify communication?

A. RSTP
B. UDP
C. TOP
D. ICMP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION # 8

Why is 802.11a connectivity reduced in an X-ray room?

A. X-rays create significant non-Wi-Fi interference on the 802.11a band.
B. X-rays impact the 802,11a UNll-2 channels that cause access points to dynamically change channels.
C. X-rays within these rooms cause multipath issues.
D. X-ray rooms exhibit increased signal attenuation.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 9

Which CLI command does an engineer use to validate that the redundancy peer of a Stateful Switchover pair of
controllers are up and connected?

A. rping
B. ping
C. eping
D. mping

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

QUESTION # 10

A network engineer is working on a predictive WLAN design, the new wireless network must support access to the Internet,
email, voice, and the inventory database, to successfully support these services, which configuration must the engineer
use for the signal strength levels and SNR on the planning tool?

A. signal strength of 67 dBm, 25-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
B. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 5 percent, packet loss.
C. signal strength of 67 dBm, 20-dB SNR, and maximum 1 percent packet loss.
D. signal strength of 70 dBm,30-dB SNR., and maximum 10 percent packet loss.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057site-survey-guidelineswlan-00.html

QUESTION # 11

A wireless engineer is designing a wireless network for a warehouse using access points with internal antennas. Which
two elements have a negative effect on wireless users? (Choose two.)

A. wireless channels
B. access point height
C. client authentication
D. client authorization
E. absorption

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-1250-series/design_guide_c07-693245.ht
ml#_Toc309331086

QUESTION # 12

An engineer has successfully configured high availability and SSO using two Cisco 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers. The
engineer can access the Active Primary WLC, but the Secondary Standby WLC is not accessible. Which two methods
allow access to the standby unit? (Choose two.)

A. via the console connection
B. SSH to the redundancy management interface of the primary WLC
C. SSH to the service port interface
D. SSH to the virtual interface of the secondary WLC
E. SSH to the management interface of the primary WLC

Correct Answer: AC

Reference:

QUESTION # 13

A customer is looking for a network design with Cisco Hyperloctation using AP4800 for location tracking via a custom
mobile app Issues appeared in the past with refresh rates for location updates. What needs to be implemented to meet
these requirements?

A. Cisco CMX SDK in the location app
B. redundant CMX and fetch location in round-robin fashion.
C. device Bluetooth via the app
D. Cisco FastLocate technology

Correct Answer: D

Download free 300-425 dumps online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Z5KGXyECHVCtfj6xR_-5d1z3iY9IpWsz/view?usp=sharing

[Updated in 2022.6] free 300-425 exam questions: https://www.exampass.net/300-425-dumps-new-nersion-valid-cisco-enwlsd-300-425-preparation-material.html

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300-920 Exam Dumps [New] Benefit Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX Study Material

June 28, 2022 No Comments

For those preparing for the Cisco 300-920 exam, the first thing to do is to look for reliable Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX study materials to prepare for the exam. Here are the reliable Cisco 300-920 exam dumps you want, up to date.

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Which ones do you have to master? Cisco 300-920 DEVWBX exam?

Abbreviation: 300-920 DEVWBX
Full Name: Develop Applications for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Test language: English
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Cost: $300
Relevant certifications: Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Topics:
Webex API Fundamentals, Webex Meetings, Webex Devices, Messaging, Embedding Webex, and Management and Compliance
Recommended Official Resource: Developing Apps for Cisco Webex and Webex Devices (DEVWBX)
Recommended study material: Pass4itSure 300-920 Exam Dumps

To earn the Cisco Certified DevNet Professional certification, you will need to pass two exams, one Core Exam (350-901 DEVCOR) and the Software Developer Intensive Exam of your choice (300-435 ENAUTO, 300-835 CLAUTO, 300-535 SPAUTO, 300-735 SAUTO, 300-910 DEVOPS, 300-920 DEVWBX). The 300-920 DEVWBX is one of them and the subject we’re talking about today, so you have to get through successfully.

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New 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions released [2022.6]:

QUESTION # 1

What happens if a meeting is in progress when a DelMeeting request is sent in the Webex Meetings XML API?

A. The meeting host is notified and prompted to allow the meeting to be deleted.
B. The DelMeeting request drops all call-in users and deletes the meeting.
C. The DelMeeting request waits until the meeting is completed and then deletes the meeting.
D. The DelMeeting request results in an error.

Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://pdfslide.net/documents/webex-we.html (p.216)

QUESTION # 2

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the expressions to create a Webex Teams widget that uses Guest Issuer to enable customers to chat
and meet with agents. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 3

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses Webex Teams extensively for communications involving customers and wants to
enforce a consistent messaging policy. Which code completes line 20 to send a notification when non-compliant
messages are detected?

A. events?resource=people
B. compliance?resource=messages
C. events?resource=messages
D. compliance?resource=people

Correct Answer: C
The function is to get messages. Then a request is made so they get to come into action and does
events?Resource=messages to get the data for the events.

QUESTION # 4

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the correct Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status codes on
the right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/basics

QUESTION # 5

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to construct the JavaScript to create a new meeting with the Webex Meetings
XML API. Options can be used more than once.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 6

Refer to the exhibit. What is the Webex Teams REST API HTTP response status code, based on this code snippet?

A. 401
B. 403
C. 429
D. 501

Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/messages/get-message-details

QUESTION # 7

With CE 9.8 and above, which two statements are correct when an application is sending and receiving data over
a connection established with an xAPI interface? (Choose two.)

A. All Serial, SSH, and WebSockets can be used to send and receive data.
B. HttpClient can be used to send requests but not receive responses.
C. HttpFeedback is the only option to receive data.
D. The HttpClient command can be used to send requests and read responses over HTTP.
E. WebSockets is the only option to send and receive data.

Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/endpoint/ce98/sx-mx-dx-room-kit-boardscustomization-guide-ce98.pdf

QUESTION # 8

Refer to the exhibit. A snippet from the XSD schema of the Webex Meeting XML API LstRecordingResponse\\' element is listed in the exhibit. Assuming that a variable namedresp\’ exists that contains the XML response from a successful `LstRecording\’ request, which code snippet correctly generates a simple report that lists meeting names and recording
file download links?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION # 9

Which two statements are true when comparing the SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces of a Cisco Collaboration
device? (Choose two.)

A. The SSH interface supports XML payloads only.
B. The SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces support JSON and XML payloads.
C. The HTTP interface supports JSON and XML payloads.
D. Communications can be encrypted for all SSH, HTTP, and WebSocket interfaces.
E. The WebSocket interface supports JSON payloads only.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION # 10

DRAG-DROP
The Express framework receives a Webex Teams webhook event when someone presses a button in an Adaptive
Card. Drag and drop the property names onto the code snippet to access the form field named “preference”. Not all
options are used.

Select and Place:

Reference: https://github.com/marchfederico/ciscospark-websocket-events

QUESTION # 11

Which list of API calls must be made to provision 50 new Webex Room devices for an organization?

A. POST to /places with `displayName\\’, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/
B. POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST the returned `placeId\\’ to /devices/activationCode
C. POST to /licenses, POST the returned `licneseId\\’ and a specified `displayName\\’ to /devices
D. POST to /licenses, POST `displayName\\’ to /places, POST `licensed\\’ and placeId\\’ to /devices

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developer.webex.com/docs/api/v1/devices/list-devices

QUESTION # 12

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the expressions from the right onto the Webex JavaScript SDK code on the left to create a Webex
Teams space, add a person to the space, and send a welcome message. Not all expressions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION # 13

Which two items are needed to give a Webex user the ability to archive all Webex Teams messages for an
organization? (Choose two.)

A. Give the user “Read-only administrator privileges” in the Webex Control Hub.
B. Create an Integration app with all “spark_compliance” read scopes enabled.
C. Use the Webex Meetings XML API “SetUser” to update the user\\’s “” value to “TRUE”.
D. Configure the user as a “Compliance Officer” in the Webex Control Hub.
E. Create a Bot app with all “webex_compliance” read scopes enabled.

Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cloudCollaboration/spark/esp/Webex-TeamsSecurity-Frequently-Asked-Questions.pdf

free 300-920 DEVWBX exam questions download online: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Fws2VR-3M4gan0izGNxMuXkw36XROSTH/view?usp=sharing

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